Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

What is a granuloma?

A

A collection of macrophages (as few as 4).

They often fuse and form Giant Cells

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2
Q

What is a non-caseating granuloma?

A

A non necrotising granuloma

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3
Q

What causes hereditary and acquired angioedema?

A

Caused by a deficiency or dysfunction of the C1 inhibitor.
This results in increased levels of bradykinin because C1 inhibits activated kallikren (required for the generation of bradykinin) in the kinin system pathway.
C1 inhibitor is a protein that regulates the classical complement pathway.

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4
Q

Explain about Hereditary Angioedema

A

Autosomal Dominant
2 types:
1= 80% inadequate C1-inhibitor production
2= production of dysfunctional C1-inhibitor
C1 inhibitor functional tests are abnormal in both, in type 2 C1 inhibitor levels are normal.
Kinins generated secondary to complement activation play a role in vascular leakage contributing to angio-odema.
usually presents during childhood or adolescence.

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5
Q

Explain about Acquired Angioedema

A

C1-inhibitor may be excessively consumed by : clonal B lymphocyte proliferation ( B-cell lymphoma) or massive immune complex type disease.
May also be caused by autoantibodies that block or interfere with otherwise normal C1-inhibitor function.
Distinguished from HAE by late adult onset, non-familial and with reduced levels of C1q

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6
Q

What are the triggers for Hereditary and Acquired Angioedema?

A
Injury/infection
surgery/dental treatment 
stress
pregnancy
certain medications like the contraceptive pill
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7
Q

What are the symptoms for Hereditary and Acquired Angioedema?

A

Non-pruitic, recurrent, angio-oedematous swellings.
Common sites being- lips, tongue.eyelids,larynx and GI tract
Manifestations that suggest intestinal obstruction include N&V and colicky discomfort/
Bronchospasms don’t occur but laryngeal oedema may be present causing stridor.

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8
Q

What is the aetiology of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension?

A

Unknown

Highly associated with females and obesity (esp recent weight gain)

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9
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension?

A

CSF absorption occurs both via the arachnoid granulations and along nerve root sheaths, especially along the olfactory nerve (cribform plate)
Thought that there is an increase in resistance to CSF outflow along one or both pathways.

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10
Q

What is the characteristic of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension?

A

Raised Intracranial Pressure in an alert, orientated patient without localising neurological findings or an obvious cause

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11
Q

What are the clinical features of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension?

A

Headache= severe, pulsatile, daily and may awaken pt.
Nausea Common
Neck and Shoulder Pain
Transient Visula Obscurations= episodes of transient grey/brown outs that last <30secs. they can be mono or bi-ocular. Thought to be transient ischaemia of the optic nerve.
Pulse-synchronous Tinnitus= 60% patients. Specific. Sound is often unilateral- jugular pressure ipsilateral to the sound abolishes it.

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12
Q

How do you manage Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension?

A

1) Elimination of causal factors = weightloss
2) Acetazolamide (except 1st trimester of pregnancy)
+ Persistant headache= naproxene or amitriptyline or CSF shunting
+ Progressive visual loss= optic nerve sheath fenestration or CSF shunting

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13
Q

What is Cushing’s Reflex?

A

Bradycardia, Systolic Hypertension and Cheyne-Stoke respiration (irregular)

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14
Q

How does Cushing’s reflex occur?

A

In response to raised intracranial pressure
Causes+ primary/met tumour, head injury, haemorrhage, infection, hydrocephalus,cerebral oedema, status epilepticus.
Can also get if LP performed when there is a raised intracranial pressure ( except in IIH)
can also result from a low cerebral perfusion pressure (<15mmHg)

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15
Q

Mechanism of action of Cushing’s reflex?

A

1) ICP>MAB therefore get cerebral arteriole compression=cerebral ischaemia. In response to ischaemia you get sympathetic stimulation of arteries= constrict. This increases total resistance and increases MAB to try and restore bloodflow to the brain. Increase HR and CO
TACHYCARDIA AND HYPERTENSION
2) Baroreceptors in aortic arch detect raised BP and trigger parasympathetic response via vagus nerve (ICP may also distort vagus nerve and directly stimulate this pathway).
This induces BRADYCARDIA
3) Raised ICP causes increased pressure on the brain stem. Changes homeostasis and causes irregular breathing patterns.

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16
Q

What is a hernia?

A

The protrusion of a viscus into an abnormal space

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17
Q

What is a direct inguinal hernia?

A

Caused by a weakness in posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
Abdo contents forced through defect and into the canal
Hernia emerges medial to the deep ring canal (mid-point between ASIS and PT)

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18
Q

What is an indirect hernia?

A

Does not pierce posterior wall of the canal. The contents pass through the deep ring and exit via the superficial ring.
If you reduce the hernia and then press on the deep ring and get the patient to cough the hernia doesn’t re-emerge.

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19
Q

What is a femoral hernia?

A

The abdominal contents pass inferior to the inguinal canal and emerge in the femoral canal ( within the femoral sheath, medial to the artery and vein)
Space is tight and it is bordered medially by the edge of the lacunar ligament.
Increased risk of obstruction and strangulation.

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20
Q

How to you calculate maintenance fluid for children?

A

1st 10kg = 4ml/kg/hr or 100ml/kg
2nd 10kg = 2ml/kg/hr or 50ml/kg
all other kg= 1ml/kg/hr or 25ml/kg

+ ongoing losses
measured and replaced 4hrly

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21
Q

What is normal urine output for a child?

A

1ml/kg/hr

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22
Q

what is normal urine output for an adult?

A

0.5ml/kg/hr

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23
Q

What is an ALTE?

A

Apparent Life Threatening Event.

Apnoea that lasts over 30 seconds

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24
Q

What are the causes of Apnoea?

A

1/3 unknown
1/3 GORD
1/3 Other= RSV (prem), seizure, sepsis, pertusiis, sub-dural ( shaken baby)

Normal stop after 6 months. If they haven’t consider epilepsy or NAI

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25
Q

FEVER UNDER 5

Herpes Simplex encephalitis

A

Focal Neurological Symptoms
Focal Seizures
Reduced consciousness

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26
Q

FEVER UNDER 5

Kawasaki Disease

A

fever longer than 5 days + 4/5 features
Bilateral Conjunctival Injection
Change in Mucus Membrane in upper respiratory tract (inflammed pharynx, dry cracked lips, strawberry tongue)
Change in extremeties (oedema, erythema, desquamination)
Polymorphous Rash
Cervical Lymphadenopathy

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27
Q

FEVER UNDER 5

Meningicoccal Disease

A
Fever 
Non Blanching Rash
lesions larger than 2mm in diameter (purpura)
cap refil >3 seconds
neck stiffness 

Meningitis
Bulging fontanelle
reduced conciousness
convulsive status epilepticus

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28
Q

FEVER UNDER 5

Pneumonia

A

Tachypnoeic (RR 0-5 months 60mins, 6-12 months >50mins, >12months >40/min)
Crackles in chest
Increase in WOB- nasal flaring, chest indrawing
Cyanosis
<95% O2 sats on air

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29
Q

FEVER UNDER 5

Septic Arthritis/ Osteomyelitis

A

Swelling of limb/joint
Not using an extremity
Non-weight

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30
Q

FEVER UNDER 5

Urinary Tract Infection

A

Any fever <3 months
>3months fever + 1
vomiting, poor feeding, lethargy, irritability, abdo pain/tenderness, urinary frequency/dysuria

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31
Q

What are the classifications of generalised seizures?

A

1) TONIC CLONIC (Grand Mal)
2) Generalised Tonic
3) Generalised Clonic
4) Absent Seizures (Petit Mal)
5) Myotonic seizure (one ,or multiple, muscle groups involved)
6) Atonic ( total loss of muscle tone)

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32
Q

Describe Tonic Clonic Seizures

A

1) often preceding aura
2) TONIC- ictal cry (laryngeal spasm), cyanosis ( reduced resp) and contraction of the jaw. Sympathetic over-drive (tachycardic etc). Usually transient lasts a few seconds.
3) CLONIC- alternating and rapid muscle contraction and relaxation. Can last upwards of a few minutes
4) post ictal= confusion and reduced consciousness that can last a few hours.

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33
Q

What are simple partial seizures?

A
Concious level is not impaired
isolated sensory/motor features
head turning
may have no objective signs 
Todd's paresis may be apparent (weakness post limb seizure)
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34
Q

What are complex partial seizures?

A
Impairment of concious level
temporal lobe- ja maid vu or deja vu, lip smacking 
Frontal cortex- autonomic disturbance
Parietal- sensory disturbance
Occipital cortex- visual disturbance

Can progressto secondary generalised seizure of there is involvement of limb/muscle group that spreads- Jacksonian Arch

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35
Q

What is Status Epilepticus?

A

A seizure lasting >5mins or repeated seizures w/out regaining consciousness.
MEDICAL EMERGENCY

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36
Q

How do you treat Status Epilepticus?

A

1) ABCDE
2) Lorazepan 4mg IV or 10mg Diazepam PR
3) identify and reverse any underlying cause
4) if contine longer than >30min = phenytoin infusion (15mg/kg @ 50mg/min) and an anaethetist for GA and ITU admission

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37
Q

Tx of Anaphylaxis?

A
ABCDE
Adrenaline IM
Adults 500 micrograms of 1:1000
Children >12 500 micrograms
Children 6-12 300 micrograms 
Children < 6 150 micrograms
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38
Q

What is an Acute Kidney Injury?

A

A rapid decrease in renal function
leads to a fluid/electrolyte imbalance and acid/base disturbance.
RF= age, co-morbidities and medication

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39
Q

What are some of the pre-renal causes of AKI?

A
Sepsis
Hypotension
Hypovalemia 
Renal artery stenosis 
cardiac
liver 
ACEi
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40
Q

What are some of the intrinsic causes of AKI?

A

Vasculitis
Glomerulonephritis
Tubular Necrosis

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41
Q

What are the post-renal causes of AKI?

A

renal tract obstruction (has to be bilateral damage or chronic kidney damage)

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42
Q

What is Nephrotic Syndrome?

A

Oedema, Protein Urea, hypoalbuminaemia and hyperlipidemia

Over 3.5g of protein

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43
Q

What are some of the causes of nephrotic syndrome?

A
Deposition Disease 
Minimal Change Disease
Focal and Segmental Glomerulosclerois
Membranous Nephropathy
Membranoproliferative GN 
Myeloma ( screen in CKD if >50yrs)
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44
Q

What is Nephritic Syndrome?

A

Haematuria and Hypertension (+ sub-nephrotic proteinuria)

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45
Q

What is Rapidly Progressing Glomerulonephritis? (RPGN)

A

Rapid Loss of renal function (usually drops within 50% of eGFR in 3/12)
Formation of glomerular cresents (scars)
can present as Nephritic syndrome.

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46
Q

What is Type 1 RPGN?

A

Anti-GMB glomerulonephritis

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47
Q

Causes of Type 1 RPGN?

A

Good Pasteure’s Disease

Anti-GBM disease (same as good pasteures but involves only kidney)

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48
Q

What is Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A

Anti-glomerular basement membrane disease + pulmonary haemorrhage.
Caused by an anti-body to the alpha-3 chain of type IV collagen
15% of goodpasture’s syndrome is AGBM disease and the rest is ANCA vasculitis

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49
Q

What are common diagnostic features of goodpasture’s syndrome?

A
Reduced UO
haemoptysis
oedema
SOB
cough
crackles in lungs 
nephritic syndrome
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50
Q

What is Type 2 RPGN?

A

Deposition of immune complexes

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51
Q

What are the causes of RPGN type 2?

A

SLE, acute proliferative glomerulonephritis and IgA nephropathy, Henoch-Schonlein pupura.

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52
Q

What is type 3 RPGN?

A

Vasculitis.
Glomeruli are damaged in an undefined manner perhaps through the activation of neutrophils in response to ANCA.
Isolated to glomerulus= primary
Systemic= secondary = ANCA associated vasculitis, granulomatosis with polyangitis, microscopic polyangitis.

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53
Q

What is IgA Vasculitis?

A
Systemic 
Also known as HSP
Triad of abdo pain, Purpura and arthritis 
most common vasculitis of childhood 
get purpuric rash on legs and buttocks 
can cause intersusseption
can cause nephritic syndrome 
can get IgA nephropathy
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54
Q

What is IgA nephropathy?

A

Non-aggressive IgA= traditionally slow progression to CKD
Often get episodic haematuria following a sore throat (strep A)
can develop into RPGN
Aggresive IgA= nephritic syndrome 1-4 days post strep A infection

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55
Q

What is Post- Infectious GN?

A

Get nephritic syndrome several weeks post Strep A infection.

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56
Q

Causes of raised lactate?

A

Marker of anaerobic respiration or the bodies inability to convert lactate
Sepsis
Ischaemic bowel
Nebulisers ( cause peripheral vasoconstriction)

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57
Q

What are causes of cardiogenic shock in a neonate?

A

Duct dependent heart disease- baby okay until the duct closes.
left-sided obstructive lesion= shocked (eg aorta coarctation)
right sided obstructive lesion= blue
transposition of the great arteries= blue +/- acidosis

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58
Q

What raises your suspicion of metabolic disease in a neonate?

A

Hypoglycaemia
hyperammonia
marked lactate acidosis
FHx

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59
Q

How to you calculate plasma osmolality?

A

2x (Na+ and K+) + urea + glucose

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60
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of pyloric stenosis?

A

Vomiting after every feed + hungry after vomiting
palpable olive shaped mass, whilst feeding
dehydration
metaolic alkalosis w/hypochloreamia
as kidneys try and correct acidosis by holding onto H+

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61
Q

What is thrombocytopaenia?

A

A platelet count of less than 150,000/microlitre

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62
Q

What are the causes of Marrow Based thrombocytopaenia ?

A

1) Malignancy- leukaemia, lymphoma, myeloma or metastatic
2) Viral- infectious mononucleosis, HIV cytomegolovirus
3) Drugs/ Toxins- chemo or heavy alcohol consumption
4) Miliary TB- caseating granulomas within the bone marrow
5) Fibrosis- autoimmune/ inflammatory conditions

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63
Q

What are the sequestrian (enlarged spleen) aetiologies of thrombocytopaenia?

A

1) Cirrhosis- splenic enlargement may result from LD w/ portal HTN
2) Lysosomal Storage Disease- through splenic enlargement and reduced production
3) Malaria
4) Haematological malignancies

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64
Q

What are the different aetiologies for thrombocytopaenia associated with increased platelet clearance?

A

1) Immune complex- common differential of exclusion.
2) Medication- Heparin, Abx and anti-epileptics
3) DIC
4) Thrombotic Thrombocytopaenic Purpura - HUS in children and ADAMTSI3 deficiency in adults
5) HEELP- Haemolysis, elevated enzymes and low platelet syndrome= pregnant woman 3rd trimester, pre- /eclampsia.
6) Rheumatological disorders- peripheral estruction of platelets via secondary immune complexes
7) antiphospholipid syndrome- pts w/ lupus anticoagulant may have thrombocytopaenia + a paradoxical prothrombotic state.
8) cyclical thrombocytopaenia- episodeic bleeding every 21-35 days may be associated w/ menstruation.

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65
Q

What is psuedothrombocytopaenia?

A

1-2% of the population have ethylene diamene tetra acetic acd (EDTA) dependent antibodies.
Causes platelets to clump upon drawing into a EDTA coated blood tube.
Machine doesn’t count clumps as platelets
will have no Hx of bleeding
finger stick peripheral smear will be normal

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66
Q

What are the aetiologies of dilutional thrombocytopaenia?

A

1) following a blood transfusion- platelets reduce by half following 2 units of RBC. Every 6 units of RBC 1 unit of exogenous platelets should be given.
2) Gestational

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67
Q

What are the aetiologies of Endocrine thrombocytopaenia?

A

Some inflammatory endocrine conditions can cause iteg Hashimotos

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68
Q

What are the aetiologies of Nutritional thrombocytopaenia?

A

B12 or folate deficiency cause megoblastic megakaryocyte which can cause it

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69
Q

What is necrotising fascitis?

A

Bacterial Infection of soft tissue and fascia
Toxins cause thrombosis resulting in quick destruction of tissues
disproportionally painful
high mortality 25% if treated
Clostridium= gas gangrene
often polymicrobial

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70
Q

What is PVL?

A

Panton- Valentine Leukocidin- a toxin produced by some staph aureus that produce recurrent boils and abscesses- often dermonecrotic.

Can cause pneumonia- it is toxic to WCC therefore be aware of ‘viral chest infection’ with reduced WCC, neg CXR and high CRP.

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71
Q

Explain about Subarachnoid Haemorrhage.

Symptoms
Investigations

A

maximum intensity w/ 10 seconds- may last a few days at least a few hours
2/3 associated neurological symptoms or clinical findings
may have kernig/ bridzinki’s sign
3rd nerve palsy- posterior communicationg artery aneurysm
Bilateral leg weakness w/ ant communicating artery.
Neurological features are caused by secondary vasospasm which lead to tissue ischaemia.

Inv/ FBC, clotting and U&Es, glucose
ECG can look like an STEMI due to circulating catecholamines.
CT (white= acute blood)
LP = xanthochromia

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72
Q

Explain about central venous thrombosis?

Symptoms
Management

A

Presents as raised ICP w/headache and papilloedema
mimick a stroke/TIA
seizures
common in younger females (20-35)= pill and pregnancy
management heparin then (6/12 warfarin)

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73
Q

Explain about Viral Encephalitis

Symptoms

Treatment

A

Headache, fever, meningisum, focal neurology, altered mental state, seizures

Herpes Simplex- acyclovir 10mg/kg

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74
Q

Explain about brain abscess

Symptoms
cause

A

typical triad= fever, headache and lethargy
specific neurology depends on site
source is usually direct infection or via blood
usually staph or strep

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75
Q

What is central pontine myelinolysis?

A

occurs inconsistently as a complication of severe ad prolonged hyponatremia particularly if corrected too rapidly
characterised by acute paralysis, dysphagia and dysarthria

76
Q

What is septic shock?

A

Sepsis w/

1) persistent hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain MAP >65
2) serum lactate >2 despite adequate fluid resuscitation

77
Q

What are the signs of a shaken baby?

A

Retinol Haemorrage
Encephalopathy
Subdural haematoma
Apnoea

78
Q

Explain an extra dural haematoma?

Cause
Symptoms
Investigations
Management

A
low impact trauma
LOC
period of lucidity
rapid decline of consciousness
Fixed dilated pupil (3rd nerve compression) 
Looks bright and like a lens on CT
Craniotomy and Evacuation
79
Q

Explain an acute sub-dural haematoma?

Cause
Symptoms
Investigations
Management

A

Trauma (high speed or acceleration/deceleration) but can be vascular
wide range of presentation - asymptomatic to comatosed
CT bright and crescent shaped.
Decompression craniectomy

80
Q

Explain an chronic subdural haematoma?

Cause
Symptoms
Investigations
Management

A

Elderly, alcoholics, anti-coagulated and infants.
Typically presents several weeks after a mild head injury with progressive confusion, LOC, weakness or higher cortical function.
CT= dark crescent shape
Tx= burr hole drainage

81
Q

Explain an intracerebral haemorrhage ?

Cause
Symptoms
Investigations
Management

A

HTN, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid amgiopathy, brain tumour or infarct.
Presents similar to an ischaemc strole or with decrease in consciousness.
CT bright within the brain matter
Conservative care- may need to evacuate clots.

82
Q
explain an intraventricular haemorrhage?
Cause 
Investigations 
Complications
Management
A

Children= prematurity (Neonates in first 72hrs of life unknown aetiology)
Adults= linked to subarachnoid, vascular lesions or tumours.
CT bright within th edark CSF spaces of the ventricles.
Risk of obstructive hydrocephalous- surgical intervention

83
Q

What is placenta percrete?

A

when the placenta erodes through the myometrium of the uterus.
The most severe case is when it evades into the bladder.

84
Q

Explain Meckel Diverticulum.

A
2%- occurs in the population
2inches- long
2- feet from the ileocaecal valve
2/3 have ectopic mucosa
2 types of ectoptic tissue are commony present (mostly gastric and pancreatic)
2% become symptomatic.
85
Q

Why does Prothrobin time increase in biliary obstruction?

A

Have a decrease in concentration of bile salts, this leads to poor vit K absorption.

86
Q

Explain about Bilirubin

A

It is a breakdown product of Hb
An isolated rise is likely to be due to an inherited bilirubin metabolism defert, haemolysis or ineffective erythropoiesis.
Hyperbilirubinaemia causes by hepatobillary disease is almost always accompanied by another abnormality.

87
Q

Explain about aminotransferase

A

Enzymes present in hepatocytes and they leak into the blood w/liver cell damage.
Asparte Aminotransferase is also present in heart and skeletal muscle
Alanine Aminotransferase is more specific to the liver

88
Q

Explain about Alkaline Phosphate

A

Situated in the canalicular and sinusoidal membranes of the liver.
Raised serum concentrates are seen in cholestatis regarless of whether its an intra or extra hepatic causes .
Also found in placenta or bone.

89
Q

Explain about Gamma GT

A

A liver microsomal enzyme which may be induced by alcohol and enzyme inducing drugsc
In cholestasis the Gamma GT rises in parallel w/ ALP as they excreted similarly.

90
Q

How do you interpret abnormal liver biochemistry?

A

1) Predominant rise in serum aminotransferase indicates hepatocellular injury
2) elevation in serum bilirubin and ALP in excess of aminotransferase= cholestatic disease

91
Q

What are the prehepatic causes of jaundice?

A

Haemolysis (unconjugated)

92
Q

What are intrahepatic but unconjugated cause of jaundice?

A

Gilberts Disease

only abnormality is an isolated rasied Bilirubin.

93
Q

What is cholestatic jaundice?

A

Presents with jaudice w/ conjugated bilirubin, pale stools and dark urine.
Split into:
Intrahepatic= caused by hepatocellular swelling in parenchymal liver or abnormalities at cellular level of bile excretion
Extrahepatic= obstruction of bile flow at any point distal to the bile canaliculi

94
Q

What are some of the intrahepatic causes of cholestatic jaundice?

A
Viral Hepatitis
Drugs
Alcoholic Hepatitis 
Cirrhosis 
Pregnancy
Recurrent Idiopathic Cholestasis
Infiltrations 
Congenital
95
Q

What are some of the extrahepatic causes of cholestatic jaundice?

A
Common duct stones
Carcinoma (bile duct, pancrease,ampulla)
Biliary stricture
sclerosing cholangitis 
Pancreatitis 
Pseudocyst
96
Q

Explain Hepatitis B serology

HBsAg
anti-Hbc
anti-HBs
IgM-HBc

A

HBsAg anti-HBc anti-HBs IgM anti-HBc
Immune (Nat) -ve . +ve . +ve . -ve
Immune (vac) . -ve . -ve . +ve . -ve .
Acute Inf . +ve . +ve . -ve . +ve
Chronic Inf . +ve . +ve . -ve . -ve

HBeAg = infective

97
Q

What is the criteria for a TIA?

A

Stroke but symptoms resolve in 25hrs

98
Q

Explain a total anterior circulation infarct

  • which arteries are involved
  • what symptoms would you expect?
A

involved the middle and cerebral arteries

all 3 oxford stroke classifications would be present .

99
Q

explain Partial Anterior circulation Infarcts
- which arteries are involved
what symptoms you’d expect?

A

Involves smaller arteries of the ant. circulation.

2 of the oxford stroke classification would be present.

100
Q

explain lacunar infarcts
- which arteries are involved
what symptoms would you expect?

A

involves perfortating arteries around the internal capsuale, thalamus and basal ganglia.
Presents with 1 of the following.
unilateral weakness (+/- sensory) of face and arm, arm and leg or all three.
Pure sensory stroke
ataxic hemiparesis

101
Q

What factors does warfarin inhibit?

A

Vit K dependent factors

II, VII, IX, X

102
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Autoimmune destruction of the adrenals

80% causes of hypoadrenaline

103
Q

What are the symptoms of Addisons disease?

A

lethargy, weakness, anorexia, N&V, weightloss, “salt-craving”, hyperpigmentation (palmar crease first), femal loss of pubic hair, hypotension.
Hyponatramia
Hyperkalaemia
Hypercalcaemia

104
Q

What is primary hypoparathyroidism?

A

Reduced PTH secretion

eg. due to thyroid surgery

105
Q

What is the ion profile of primary hypoparathyroidism?

A

Low Calcium

High Phosphate

106
Q

What are the symptoms of primary hypoparathyroidism?

A

secondary to hypocalcaemia, tetany, perioral paraethesia, trousseau’s sign, chrostek’s sign. ECG prolonged QT interval.

107
Q

What are the signs of Wernicke’s Encephalopathy?

A
CAN OPEN
Confusion
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Ophlamoplegia
PEripheral Neuropathy.
108
Q
Expressive Language Milestones?
6 months
9months
12 months
20months
24 months
36 months
A
6 months- vowel sounds
9 months- babbling (mamma/dada)
12 months- first word with meaning
20 months- 20/30 words
24 months >50 words, joins 2-3
36 months- short sentences
109
Q
Receptive Language Milestones? 
5 months
7 months
11 months
14 months
18 months
24 months
A
5 months- responds to name
6-7 months- momentarily stops to 'no'
11 months- stops action when told no
14 months- 1 step command
18 months- points to objects when named
24 months- 2 step command
110
Q
Fine motor milestones?
3 months
6 months
8 months
12 months
18 months 
24 months
36 months
A
3- open and clasps hands
6- holds bottle with 2 hands
8 months- holds finger food 1 hand
12 months- transfers objects
18- scribbling etc (3 block tower)
24 months holding crayon (6-7 block tower)
36 month copy circle (9 block tower)
111
Q
Gross motor milestones?
3 months
4 months
6 months
9 months
11 months
12 months
18 months
24 months
30 months
36 months
A
3- hold head up straight
4- roll over front to back
6- sit without support
9- crawling 
11- cruising
12- walking (first step)
18- walking well
24- runs, climbs stairs
30-jump
36- climbs stairs with alternate feet.
112
Q

How do you stage lymphoma?

A
A= no B symptoms
B= b symptoms

1= 1 lymph node only
II= >2 LN same side of the diaphragm,
III= LN and/or spleen AND on both sides of the diaphragm
1. above renal vessels
2. in lower abdomen
IV= extranodal involvement (e/g liver and lungs)

113
Q

What are the indications for dialysis in an AKI?

A

uraemia= obtundation, astrixis, seizures, nausea, vomiting or pericarditis
hyperkalaemia that cannot be medically managed (>6.5 mmol/L if ECG changes)
fluid overload reisitant to diuretics
metabolic acidosis that cannot be medically managed.
pH <7.2 despite Sodium Bicarbonate therapy (cannot have if fluid overloaded)/

114
Q

What are some pre-hepatic causes for portal hypertension?

A

congenital atresia/stenosis
portal/splenic verin thrombosis
extrinsic compression eg pancreatic tumour

115
Q

What are some hepatic causes of portal hypertension?

A

Cirrhosis
Chronic Hepatitis
Myeloproliferative disease

116
Q

What are some post hepatic causes of portal hypertension?

A

Budd- Chiari Syndrome
Constructive Pericarditis
RHF

117
Q

Haemophilia A is which factor deficiency?

118
Q

Haemophilia B is which factor deficiency?

119
Q

Haemophili C is which factor deficiency?

120
Q

MYOTOMES;

C5

A

elbow flexion

121
Q

MYOTOMES

C6

A

wrist extension

122
Q

MYOTOMES

C7

A

elbow extensors

triceps

123
Q

MYOTOMES

C8

A

finger flexors

124
Q

MYOTOMES

T1

A

small finger adductions

125
Q

MYOTOMES

L2

A

hip flexors

126
Q

MYOTOMES

L3

A

knee extensors

127
Q

MYOTOMES

L4

A

ankle dorsiflexors

128
Q

MYOTOMES

L5

A

big toe extensors

129
Q

MYOTOMES

S1

A

ankle plantar flexors

130
Q

How do you medically treat hyperkalaemia?

A

1) is the pt passing urine- no= dialysis
2) 5.5-6.5- no risk of CA 6.5-7.5 treat if ECG changes. 7.5= medical emergency.
3) IV Ca gluconate 10ml of 10%. Beta agonist 10mg salbutamol via neb, 10 units of insulin + glucose
Sodium bicarb to correct acidosis.

131
Q

What is the oxford stroke classification?

A

1) unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm and leg
2) homonymous hemianopia
3) higher cognitive dysfunction (eg dysphagia)

132
Q

Explain Posterior Cerebral Infarcts
which vessels are involved
what symptoms would you get?

A

1) cerebellar brainstem syndromes
2) loss of consciousness
3) isolated homonymous hemianopia

133
Q

Features of class 1 haemorrhagic bloodloss?

A
<750ml
<15% bloodloss
<100 HR
BP normal
pulse pressure normal
RR= 14-20 min
UO >30ml/hr
CNS= slighlt anxious
134
Q

What does RA look like on an x-ray?

A

loss of joint space
erosions
soft tissue swelling
soft bone tissue (osteopenia)

135
Q

what does OA look like on an x-ray?

A

loss of joint space,
osteophytes
subcondral sclerosis
subchondral cysts

136
Q

What spinal tracts are affected in syringomelia?

what are the clinical features?

A

Ventral Horns, lateral spinothalamic tract

flaccid paresis typically effecting the intrinsic hand muscles
loss of pain and temperature sensation.

137
Q

what spinal tracts are affected in MS?

what are the clinical features?

A

Asymmetrical, varying spinal tracts

combination of motor, sensory and ataxia symptoms.

138
Q

What are the spinal tracts affected and the clinical features of Anterior Spinal artery occlusions.

A

lateral corticospinal tracts
lateral spinothalamic tracts

Bilateral spastic paresis
bilateral loss of pain and temperature.

139
Q

What are the spinal tracts affected and the clinical features in subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord?

A

so a B12 and folate deficiency
1) lat. corticospinal tracts, dorsal column and the spinocerebellar tract

bilateral spastic paresis
bilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensations
bilateral limb ataxia.

140
Q

What are the spinal tracts affected and the clinical features of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

Spinal cord hemisection
1) lateral corticospinal, dorsal coluns and the ;lateral spinothalamic tract.

ipsilateral spastic paresis below the lesion
ipsilateral loss of proprioception and vibration sensation
contralateral loss of pain and temperature.

141
Q

What are the features of class IV haemorrhagic shock?

A
>2000ml bloodloss
>40% circulating volume
>140 HR
low BP
low pulse pressure
RR= 35/min
urine output negligible
CNS confused/ lethargic
142
Q

What are the features of class III haemorrhagic shock?

A
1500-2000ml bloodloss
30-40% bloodloss
120-140 HR
BP decreased
pulse pressure decreased
RR= 30-40
urine output 5-15 mls
CNS= anxious, confused
143
Q

What are the features of class II haemorrhagic shock?

A
750-1500ml (15-30%) lost
HR= 100-120
BP normal
pulse pressure= decreased
RR= 20-30/min
UO 20-10 ml/hr 
CNS anxious
144
Q

What is the hormone profile for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
Raised = PTH and Ca 2+
Decreased= PO3-
145
Q

What are the clinical features of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

mild: asymptomatic

recurrent abdo pain (pancreatitis, renal colic)

146
Q

what are the causes of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

solitary adenoma
multifocal adenoma
carcinoma

147
Q

what are the treatment options for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

surgery if indicated e.g age. life-threatening, osteoporosis.

148
Q

What is the hormone profile for secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Raised= PTH, PO3-
Ca2+ normal or decreased
Vit D decreased

149
Q

What are the symptoms of secondary hyperparathyroididm?

A

few symtoms may have- bone disease, osteitis, fibrosa cystica and soft tissue calcification

150
Q

What is the cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

hyperplasia as a result of low calcium, almost always as a result of chronic renal disease.

151
Q

What is the hormone profile for tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Raised PTH, ALP and maybe Ca2+

Po3-/ Vit D are normal or decreased

152
Q

what are the clinical features of tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

metastatic calcification, bone pain/fracture, nephrolithiasis, pancreatitis

153
Q

what are the causes of tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

ongoing hyperplasia of PT gland after correction of the underlying renal disease.

154
Q

How does Warfain effect

1) Prothrobin Time
2) APTT
3) Bleeding time
4) Platelets

A

1) increases

no effect on the others

155
Q

How does Aspirin effect

1) Prothrobin Time
2) APTT
3) Bleeding time
4) Platelets

A

3) increases

no effect on the others

156
Q

How does Heparin effect?

1) Prothrobin Time
2) APTT
3) Bleeding time
4) Platelets

A

1) may increase
2) increases
no effect on the others

157
Q

How does DIC effect?

1) Prothrobin Time
2) APTT
3) Bleeding time
4) Platelets

A

1) increases
2) increases
3) increases
4) decreases

158
Q

What are the myeloma defining events?

A

C- hyperCalcaemia
R- Renal Insufficiency
A- Anaemia
B- Bone lesions

None of which can be explained by another cause

159
Q

What is myeloma?

A

Plasma cell neoplasm

160
Q

How would a sub-dural lead to a nerve palsy?

A

mass shift and herniation which occludes 3rd cranial nerve
1st= parasympathetic= blown pupil
2nd= occlusion of whole nerve= down and out pupil.

Pupil Sparing 3rd nerve palsy= normally a medical cause/

161
Q

Causes of Carotid Artery Disection?

A

Spontaneous- elderly
Trauma- high speed, delayed onset of Sx.
Causes ischamia to brain and stroke- like symptoms

162
Q

Cause and effect of diffuse axonal damage?

A

Normally unconcious from impact
high impact acc/deceleration trauma, especially including rotation

long term survivors= loss of white matter+ enlarged ventricles, alzheimer like pathology.

163
Q

What are the functions of the kidney?

A
Filtration/ excretion
Acid- Base buffering (kidney produces HCO3-)
EPO secretion
Electrolyte Balance
activates Vit D
RASS- fluid and BP
164
Q

What are the effects of CKD?

A

Reduced GFR= Raised K+ and Creat
Acidosis (reduced acid removal)
reduced EPO secretion= anaemia
renal bone disease- reduced Ca, Increased Phosphate, increased parathyroid (2ndary hyperparathyroidism)
impaired BP regulation- HTN
reduced fluid removal- oedema
impaired iron absorption- iron deficiency
reduced clearance of gastrin- peptic ulceration

165
Q

What are the indications for dialysis?

A
Refractory Pulmonary Oedema
Refractory Hyperkalaemia
Refractory Acidosis
Uraemic Encephalitis
Pericarditis
166
Q

What is ANCA?

A

Anti-Neutrophil Cytoplasm Antibodies

C-ANCA: PR3 (proteinase 3) cytoplasm staining

P-ANCA: MPO (myeloperoxidase) around the nucleus

167
Q

What are the ANCA associated vasculitis?

A

1) granulomatosis w/polyangitis
2) microscopic polyangitis
3) eosinophillic granulomatosis w/polyangitis (Hx of atopic lung disease)

168
Q

What are the large vessel vasculitis?

A

Giant Cell Arteritis
Takayasu (woman of childbearing age- granulmatosis of aorta + major branches. Get systemic inflammation then a pulseless phase of vascular insufficiency)

169
Q

What are the medium vessel vasculitis?

A
Kawasaki (under 5, fever >5 days, lymphadenopthy, rash genitals, red mucus membranes, 
Polyarteritis Nodosa (systemic, necrostising vasculitis, microaneurysms for a rosary sign)
170
Q

What are the small vessel vasculitis?

A

ANCA associated

Immune Complex
Cryoglobulinaemic
IgA ( HSP)
HUV
Anti-GBM
171
Q

What is Anti-phosphide lipid syndrome?

A

Autoimmune, hypercoaguble state causes by anti-phospholipid anti-bodies.
Provokes both arterial and venous thrombosis
Causes severe pregnancy related complications including miscarriage, still birth and eclampsia.

Can be Primary or secondary (With SLE)

Treat with an anti-coagulant (NB not warfarin in pregnancy as it can cross placental barrier and is tetragenic)

172
Q

What are some of the pre-renal causes of CKD?

A

RAS (discrepency of >1cm in kidney size think) , nephrosclerosis + ACEi

173
Q

What are some of the intrinsic causes of CKD?

A

GN, TIN (tubulointerstital Nephritis), ADPKD

174
Q

What are some of the post-renal causes of CKD?

A

BPH, RPF (renal blood flow)

175
Q

How to pre-renal, renal and post renal causes of kidney disease differ on urine dip?

A

Renal has urine dip +ve for blood and protein.
Pre and post are clear

NB- urine may be contaminated by blood from cancer ot stone in Post,

176
Q

What are the indications to investigate HTN further?

A
Onset before 30
Proteinuria, haematuria, glycosuria
Abnormal Biochemisty
Severe, resistant HTN
clinical features of an underlying cause
177
Q

What are the causes of secondary HTN?

A

RENAL:
Polycystic KD: cysts prevent normal functioning
Glomerular Disease
Diabetic Neuropathy: Damages the small capillaries

VASCULAR:
Reno-vascular HTN: RAS either atherosclerosis or fibromuscular dysplasia
Coarctation of the aorta

ENDOCRINE:
Cushings: Adrenal Gland increase cortisol
Aldosteronism (Conn’s)= kidneys retain Na+ and H2O, secrete K+ therefore raised BP
Pheochromocytoma= increased production of adrenaline and noradrenaline
Thryroid= both hyper and hypo
Hyperparathyroidism: increased Ca2+

OTHERS:
Drugs
Pregnancy
Sleep Apnoea= hypoxia leads to damage to vessels walls there for less effective at regulating BP.

178
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

How would you test for it?

A

hypocortisol and adrenal insufficiency

Measure 8am cortisol- Low = adrenal insufficiency

Cosyntropin stimulation test: measure base ACHT test..
administer synacthen (synthetic ACHT)
low cortisol+ high ACTH= primary (adrenals)
low cortisol + low ACTH= secondary (pituitary)
179
Q

What is the difference between Cushing’s disease and Cushing’s Syndrome?

A

Cushings Disease is raised ACTH from a pituitary cause

Cushings Syndrome is just raised cortisol

180
Q

How do you diagnose Cushing’s?

A

1) ACHT level
- low= ACHT independent
- high= ACHT dependent
2) ACHT independent= CT scan/MRI abdomen
- Adrenal adenoma/adrenal cancer
- bilateral hyperplasia
3) ACHT dependent = inferior petrosal sinus and MRI brain + CXR
- pituitary tumour (cushing’s disease)
- ectopic ACHT tumour (lung/thymus).

181
Q

What is hyperglycaemic, hypersosmolar syndrome?

A

type 2 diabetic (unwell not take medication)
increase in glucose= increase in diueresis = dehydration
No frank ketoacidosis (enough insulin)

182
Q

What are the causes of lymphadenopathy?

A

REACTIVE:
Infective: Bacterial (tonsillitis, cellulitis, TB, primary syphillis), Viral (EBV, CMV, HIV, hepatitis), Other (toxoplasmosis)
Non-infective: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, connective tissue disease (RA, SLE), dermatological (eczema, psorasis), drugs (phenytoin, retroviral drugs)

INFILTRATIVE:
Benign Histiocytosis
Neoplastic: Haemotological ( Hodgekins, Non-hodgekins lymphoma, CML,CLL, ALL,AML)

183
Q

Causes of Hepatomegaly?

A

SMOOTH AND TENDER: alcoholic hepatitis, Tricuspid regurgitaion w/RHF. Infectious Hepatitis ( acute infection) , RHF/PE, Glandular Fever, Budd-Chiari Syndrome, Abcess.

SMOOTH BUT NOT TENDER: Amyloidosis, leukaemia, early cirrhosis, lymphome, haemochromatosis, Primary Biliary Cholangitis, Fatty Liver, HIV, Sarcoidosis

IRREGULAR AND NON-TENDER: Neoplastic ( Hepatoma, metastatic carcinoma), hyatid cyst, polycystic liver

184
Q

Causes of Splenomegaly?

A

FEVERS: Infection (malarie, IE, hepatitis, EBV,TB, CMV, HIV), sarcoid, malignancy (lymphoma, chronic leukaemia)

LYMPHADENOPATHY: Glandular Fever, leukaemias, lymphomas, Sjogren’s Syndrome

PURPURA: Amyloid, Septicaemia, Typus, DIC, Meningiococcaemia

ARTHRITIS: Sjogren’s, RA, SLE, Lyme’s Disease, Vasculitis

ASCITES: Carcinoma, Portal Hypertension

MURMUR: IE, Rhuematic Fever, Hypereosinophillic syndrome, amyloid

MASSIVE SPLENOMEGALY: Malaria, CML, myelofibrosis, leishmaniasis, Gaucher’s

WEIGHT LOSS AND CNS PATHOLOGY:
Cancer, lymphoma, TB, myeloma, arsnic poisoning

ANAEMIA: Haemolytic Anaemia, leishmaniasis, leukaemia, pernicious anaemia.

185
Q

Causes of Hypercalcaemia?

A

ENDOCRINE:
Excess PTH: Primary and Tertiary Hyperparathyroidism, Ectopic Parathyroid Hormone
Other: Thyrotoxicosis and Addison’s Disease

MALIGNANT: Myeloma, Bone Mets

EXCESS ACTION OF VIT D: lymphoma, granulomatous disease (sarcoid/TB), self administered Vit D

DRUGS: Thiazides, Vut D analogues, Lithium and Vit A

OTHER: long term immobility, familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia.