Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PCM III > Miscellaneous > Flashcards

Miscellaneous Flashcards

1
Q

Hct below this is considered anemia

A

Hct <2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MCHC Reference Range

A

33-37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What stains in a Reticulocyte?

A

the remnant ribosomal RNA reticulum stains blue with Methylene Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Reticulocyte levels measure

A

Rate of production and release of red cells by the marrow into the peripheral blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Adult/Pediatric Reticulocyte Count Reference Range

A

Adult 0.5-1.5%

Pediatric 3.0-7.0%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When should reticulocyte count peak after acute hemorrhage?

A

6-10 days afterwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anticipated skin, eye, membrane or parenteral contact with blood or OPIM that may result form performance of an employee’s duties

A

Occupational Exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Specific contact with blood/OPIM capable of transmitting a BBP

A

Exposure Incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

MCC of exposure

A

Needle-sticks after use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Practice of isolating all body substances of individuals undergoing medical treatment especially highly infectious, goes further in isolating the workers from pathogens
Includes precautions against airborne transmission, droplet transmission, skin contact or prion diseases

A

Body Substance Isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Combines Universal and BSI Precautions

Includes protection of pt as well as health care worker

A

Standard Precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treat all human blood and OPIM as if known to be infectious with blood borne disease

A

Universal precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Most common mode of transmission of pathogens

A

Hands!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Red Cell variation in Size

A

Anisocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hyperchromic

A

Doesn’t exist –> there’s a limit to the Hb in a cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Increased central pallor seen in

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and Hereditary Spherocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Rouleaux found in

A

Multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Clumping seen in

A

Cold agglutinins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Nucleated red cells

A

Normoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Basophilic stippling found in

A

Lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Spherical cell inclusions seen in hemolytic anemia and post splenectomy

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

WBC reference range

A

4.0-10.9 x 10^3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Neutrophil reference range

A

50-60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Neutrophils elevated in

A

Bacterial infections, stress and corticosteroid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lymphocyte reference range

A

30-40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lymphocytes elevated in

A

Viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Eosinophil reference range

A

<5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Basophili reference range

A

< 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Basophils elevated in

A

CML

30
Q

Band cells usually

A

<3% WBCs

31
Q

Seen in systemic infections or inflammatory disease

A

Dohle bodies & Neutrophil bands

32
Q

Megaloblastic anemias

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils

33
Q

Normal platelet count

A

150,000-450,000

34
Q

Hypersegmented neutrophils seen in

A

Folate/B12 deficiency

35
Q

Target cells seen in

A

Thalassemia `

36
Q

Hollow organ pain caused by distention, stretching

A

Visceral, colic pain

37
Q

Steady aching pain, well localized

A

Parietal pain

38
Q

Serum alkaline phosphatase elevated out of proportion to transaminases in

A

Conjugated hyperbili

39
Q

Normal bowel sounds

A

High pitched tinkle every 3-5 seconds

40
Q

Absent bowel sounds

A

No bowel sounds after 2 minutes

41
Q

Percussion of gas

A

Tympany

42
Q

Percussion of liver

A

Resonant (lungs) to dull (liver) to tympanic (intestine)

43
Q

Normal liver size

A

<10cm

44
Q

A complete rectal prolapse

A

Procidentia

45
Q

Turner’s sign

A

Discoloration around the flanks seen in Acute Pancreatitis

46
Q

Cullen’s sign

A

Discoloration around the umbilicus due to hemorrhagic pancreatitis

47
Q

Urinalysis specific gravity determines

A

State of hydration

48
Q

Leukocyte esterase/nitrates on urinalysis shows

A

UTI

49
Q

WBC Casts

A

Acute pyelonephritis

50
Q

RBC Casts

A

Glomerulonephritis

51
Q

MC crystals

A

Calcium oxalate

52
Q

MCC UTI

A

E.coli

53
Q

Urine protein electrophoresis performed to test for

A

MM

54
Q

When should the balloon be inflated on cath?

A

Only after urine is observed flowing through the catheter

55
Q

One lumen NG tube

A

Levin tube

56
Q

Two lumen NG tube

A

Salem-Sump

Second lumen allows for counties suction and prevents gastric mucosa aspiration

57
Q

50% of EGD complications due to

A

Cardiopulmonary problems usually caused by medications used for conscious sedation

58
Q

Barrett’s Esophagitis

A

Columnar epithelium REPLACES squamous epithelium of the esophagus

59
Q

Malignant transformation in Barrett’s most common in

A

Caucasian men greater than 50 with more than 5 years of Sx

60
Q

Most common site for gastric ulcer

A

Angular incisura then lesser curvature and antrum

61
Q

Most common site of gastric cancer in western countries

A

Proximal lesser curvature, cardia and GE junction

62
Q

Advantage of colonoscopy over sigmoidoscopy

A

Colonoscopy can find and remove polyps in the colon distal to the sigmoidscope

63
Q

Absolute CI of Colonoscopy

A

Fulminant colitis
Known or suspected perforation
During early post-colectomy time period

64
Q

Do sessile or pedunculate polyps have more malignant potential?

A

Sessile

65
Q

If colon cancer is left untreated what are the sequelae?

A

Usually partially or completely circumferential and will obstruct the lumen if untreated

66
Q

UC vs. CD on cramping, diarrhea, and bleeding

A

CD more cramping and diarrhea but UC lesions more friable and more likely to bleed

67
Q

UC vs. CD which has apthous ulcers and anal lesions?

A

CD

68
Q

Which procedure is used to diagnose colon and bowel disease including polyps, diverticulosis and cancer?

A

Virtual Colonoscopy

69
Q

How many times should FOBT be repeated before drawing conclusions?

A

3-4 times

70
Q

How does FOBT work?

A

The resin reacts with iron and is very sensitive

71
Q

Disadvantages to FOBT?

A

Fails to detect most polyps and cancers
Flse positives are common
Dietary restrictions may be necessary several days before
Additional procedures may be required if the test indicates an abnormality

72
Q

Which Colorectal Cancer Screening Test can biopsy lesions?

A

Colonoscopy which requires a through cleansing of the colon before the test

PCM III (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions