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MISC Facts Flashcards

1
Q

time difference between cohort, case control and cross sectional

A

cohort: looking forward
case control: look back
cross sectional: a point in time

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2
Q

fetal effect of sulfonamides

A

kernicterus of the newborn

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3
Q

fetal effects of streptomycin

A

fetal effects of streptomycin

fetal high tone hearing loss

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4
Q

fetal effect of chloramphenicol

A

fetal effect of chloramphenicol

grey baby syndrome

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5
Q

sensitivity equation and meaning

A

a/(a+c)
of all the ppl who have the disease, how many did the test catch

a and d are always in the numerator

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6
Q

specificity equation and meaning

A

d/(d+b)
of all the ppl who did not have the disease, how many did the test say were negative

a and d are always in the numerator

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7
Q

PPV equation and meaning

A

a/(a+b)
of all the ppl who tested positive, how many actually were positive

a and d are always in the numerator

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8
Q

NPV equation and meaning

A

d/(d+c)
of all the ppl who tested negative, how many were actually negative

a and d are always in the numerator

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9
Q

accuracy equation

A

(a+d)/(a+b+c+d)

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10
Q

which congenital infection causes cataracts, cardiac defects, deafness, pulmonary artery stenosis, microcephaly, and radiolucent bone disease?

A

rubella

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11
Q

what fruit do you get listeria from? (buzzword)

A

cantalope

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12
Q

Monochorionic surviving twins

neurological injury (\_\_\_\_\_%)
death (\_\_\_\_%)
A

Monochorionic surviving twins

neurological injury (18%)
death (15%)
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13
Q

Surviving dichorionic twins

neurological injury (\_\_\_\_%) 
death (\_\_\_\_%)
A

Surviving dichorionic twins

neurological injury (1%) 
death (3%)
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14
Q

most common reason for primary c-section in US?

SECOND most common reason for primary c/s in US?

A

failure to progress

NRFHT

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15
Q

What percentage of fetus’ with increased NT will have aneuploidy?

what percentage of those with aneuploidy will be downs?

A

33%

50%

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16
Q

In patients with HNPCC, a risk-reducing BSO may reduce the incidence of epithelial cancer by up to ____%.

A

In patients with HNPCC, a risk-reducing BSO may reduce the incidence of epithelial cancer by up to 100%.

17
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2

prophylactic BSO reduces epithelial ovarian cancer risk by what percentage?

A

90%!!!!

that’s wild!

18
Q

endometrial cancer staging 1a, 1b and 2?

A

Stage IA involves less than 50% of the myometrium
Stage IB involves more than 50% of the myometrium
Stage II involves the cervical stroma

19
Q

Endometrial cancer stage 3a, 3b, 3c?

A

Stage IIIA involves the serosa of the uterus, tubes, and ovaries
Stage IIIB involves the vagina
Stage IIIC1 includes lymph nodes other than periaortic
Stage IIIC2 includes periaortic lymph nodes

Stage IV involves the bladder, rectum or more distant metastatic sites

20
Q

risk of uterine rupture during TOLAC after 1 c/s?

risk of uterine rupture during TOLAC IOL?

A

0.5%–0.7% risk of uterine rupture

1%

21
Q

minimum gestational age to dx omphalocele?

A

14 weeks, anything prior is physiologic

22
Q

the relationship between prolactin and dopamine directly proportional or inversely proportional?

A

inversely proportional

23
Q

you are trying to raise platelets in ITP. how long will it take for prednisone to raise the plts? how about IVIG?

A

prednisone 3-7days

IVIG 6-72 hours

24
Q

Rome criteria for IBS

A

The Rome criteria require recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort on at least 3 days per month in the last 3 months that is associated with 2 or more of the following:

1) improvement with defecation;
2) onset associated with a change in frequency of stool;
3) onset associated with a change in form (appearance) of the stool

25
Q

risk of lifetime risk of DMII after GDM?

A

70%

26
Q

how does haloperidol contribute to incontinence?

A

dopamine blockage causes relaxation of the internal sphincter

27
Q

how long to be on Coumadin after induced PE?

A

3 months

28
Q

6 reasons to give infective endocarditis ppx

A
  1. A prosthetic cardiac valve
  2. A previous episode of IE
  3. Unrepaired cyanotic heart disease with palliate shunts or conduits
  4. Completely repaired heart defect with prosthetic material within 6 months
  5. Repaired congenital heart defect with residual defects at or near the site of prosthetic material that inhibits endothelialization
  6. A cardiac transplant and who develop cardiac valvulopathy
29
Q

abx plan for 4th degree?

A

2 second gen cephalosporin at the time fo repair. cefotetan or cefoxitin.

30
Q

only FDA approved rx for female hirsuitism

A

eflornithine which inhibits ornithine decarboxylase,

31
Q

which type of bullae (bullous pemphigoid or pemphigus vulgaris) rupture easily and why

A

pemphigus vulgaris because the autoantibodies attack the desmogleins, which are part of the desmosomes that hold cells together. this is in the subcutaneous layer

the autoatibodies in bullous pemphigoid attack hemidesmosomes in the subepidermal layer

32
Q

4 criteria for neonatal Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

A
  1. Apgar score of less than 5 at 5 and 10 minutes after birth
  2. Fetal umbilical artery acidemia
  3. Multisystem organ failure
  4. Development of spastic quadriplegia or dyskinetic cerebral palsy
33
Q

what is the most prevalent STI?

second most?

A

trich!

chlamydia is second

34
Q

which STI has the highest incidence?

A

chlamydia!

35
Q

strongest risk factor for incontinence?

A

obesity

36
Q

The uterus receives what percentage of cardiac output at term?

A

17%

37
Q

renal blood flow increases by what percent at term?

A

50%

38
Q

According to CDC, who should receive PVC13?

A

all children under 2
ppl with chronic conditions over 2 yrs old
adults over 65 to discuss with PCP

REMEMBER: Women with no history of vaccination should initially receive PCV13, then PPSV23 approximately 6–12 months after the dose of PCV13.

39
Q

According to the CDC, who should receive PPSV23?

A

over 65 years old
2-65 with chronic conditions
19-65 is a smoker

REMEMBER: Women with no history of vaccination should initially receive PCV13, then PPSV23 approximately 6–12 months after the dose of PCV13.

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