Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Botox

A

Acetylcholine antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sperry and Gazzaniga

A

Corpus callosum removal –> split brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pleasure centers

A

Nucleus accumbens

Septal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Osmoregulation
Controls endocrine system
Body temp, hunger, thirst, libido

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What hormone is linked to depression and mania?

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What drug can be used to treat Parkinson’s?

A

L-Dopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Who theorized spreading activation model?

A

Collins and Loftus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who coined the term icons in visual memory?

A

Ulric Neisser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who studied patient HM?

A

Brenda Milner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who theorized levels-of-processing theory?

A

Craik and Lockhart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who discovered that memories are distributed to various areas of the cortex?

A

Karl Lashley

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is limit to chunking?

A

7 +/- 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who is associated with chunking?

A

George Miller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who provided support for Hebbian theory?

A

Kandel– aplaysia slugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Who studied iconic memory and capacity of sensory store?

A

Sperling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Generation-recognition model

A

Easier to recognize something than generate it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who theorized dual-coding theory?

A

Paivio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who devised term schizophrenia?

A

Bleuler

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Computer simulation models to solve problems like humans

A

Logical theorist

General problem solver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

7 biggest changes from DSM-IV to DSM-V

A

1) No axial system
2) 4 separately classified issues unified under “autism spectrum disorder”
3) Elimination of childhood bipolar disorder and replacement with Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD; extreme temper outbursts)
4) Relaxing strictness of ADHD diagnosis –> adults can be diagnosed if they have fewer signs and symptoms than children (given more developed brains thus more impulse control)
5) Nuance for children with PTSD and 4 main types of symptoms
- Arousal
- Avoidance
- Flashbacks
- Negative impacts on thought patterns and mood
6) New category: Neurocognitive disorder (major and mild) to reflect dementia and amnestic disorders (memory and learning difficulties)
7) Depression disorders no longer have bereavement exclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cingulate gyrus

A
  • Directing attention and emotion

- Part of telencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Types of representative heuristic

A

Base rate fallacy
Conjunction fallacy
Gamblers fallacy
Regression to the mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Representative heuristic

A

cognitive shortcut made when individuals assess the frequency of a particular event based solely on the generalization of a previous similar event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Over justification theory

A

The overjustification effect occurs when external rewards diminish intrinsic motivations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who: study of behavior toward Asians in America in the 1930s (attitude does not dictate behavior)

A

Richard LaPiere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Who: $1 and $20 cognitive dissonance study

A

Festinger and Carlsmith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Attribution theory

A

How we understand behaviors and causes of events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Morton Deutsch

A

Prisoners dilemma and trucking company game study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who: elaboration likelihood model

A

Petty and cacioppo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Who: inoculation theory (beliefs)

A

McGuire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Who: antisocial behavior increased in densely populated areas

A

Zimbardo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who: group polarization and risky shift

A

James Stoner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Who: doll study on segregation

A

Kenneth and Mamie Clark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Who: two coping differentiations

A

Richard Lazarus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Who: stress levels in differently shaped rooms (environment affects behavior)

A

Stuart Valins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Who: belief similarity > race similarity

A

M. Rokeach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Who: theory of reasoned action (explains difference between belief and action)

A

Fischbein and Azjen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Contact theory

A
  • Sherif

- Minimizing prejudice through cooperation (superordinate goals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Who: bystander effect

A

Darley and Latane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Who: 3 parts of attribution theory (consensus, distinctiveness, consistency)

A

Harold Kelley

Attributions we make about our own actions and those of others are usually accurate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Who: mental testing in military and psychology in advertising

A

Walter Dill Scott

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Who: role theory

A

Bindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Who: empathy-altruism hypothesis

A

Batson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Proxemics

A

Study of personal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Who: stimulus overload theory (why people in densely populated areas are less prosocial)

A

Milgram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Who: Hawthorne Effect; when

A

Henry Landsberger; 1955

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Actor-observer bias vs. fundamental attribution error

A

Fundamental attribution error: thinking about other people’s behavior
Placing greater emphasis on internal characteristics and ignoring external factors for other’s behavior
Actor-observer bias: thinking about our own behavior
Overemphasizing role of situational factors, and underestimating internal characteristics in our own behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Synonymous terms for fundamental attribution error

A
  • Correspondence bias

- Attribution effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Social interaction theory

A

Interactions maximize rewards/gains and minimize cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Who: studies on social facilitation (cockroaches)

A

Zajonc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Who: frustration-aggression hypothesis

A

Berkowitz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Who: two types of love (passionate and compassionate)

A

Elaine Hatfield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Who: study of people defending incorrect answers

A

Lee Ross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Who: self-perception theory

A

Bem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Who: 6 basic emotions

A

Ekman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Who: mental processes shape preferences subconsciously

A

Nesbitt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Who: balance theory and attribution theory

A

Heider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Who: transformational grammar

A

Noam Chomsky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Synonym for Whorfian hypothesis

A

Linguistic relativity hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Who: research on Hopi language

A

Benjamin Whorf –> Whorfian hypothesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Who: he found that children improve their understanding of language and grammar as they hypothesize about syntax and synthesize those hypotheses with their real-world language experience

A

Roger Brown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Who: Children learn language more rapidly after the onset of speech production (active speech) than they do while simply hearing it

A

Katherine Nelson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Who: They found that word meanings are different for different people, affected by life experience

A

Vygotsky and Luria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Who: semantic differential charts

A

Charles Osgood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes does a human have?

A

23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Gene that causes Huntington’s is dominant; If one parent has Huntington’s, what is the chance of the child developing the disorder?

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Ions crucial for resting potential

A

Sodium and Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Estrus

A

Female mammals; phase of sexual receptivity

-Humans have menstrual cycle instead of estrous cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Genome

A

Catalog of all the genes of a species

Whereas genotype is the variation of those genes in one individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Zeigarnik effect

A

We remember unfinished tasks better than completed tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Who: 3 personality types based on body types

A

Sheldon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Who: adult personality formed from interactions between the child and the parent as the child deals with basic anxiety

A

Karen Horney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Carl Jung’s theory of personality

A

based on the idea that the mind comprises pairs of opposing forces
-Analytic psychodynamic theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Who: cardinal, central, and secondary traits

A

Allport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Who: self-efficacy central to personality

A

Bandura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Who: conditions of worth

A

Rogers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Who: locus of control theory

A

Rotter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Who: personal construct theory

A

Kelly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Who: field dependence

A

Witkin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Circular reactions

A
  • Sensorimotor stage
  • Piaget
  • Repeated behaviors through which the infant manipulates the environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

At what age does theory of mind develop?

A

Age 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Who: five stages of grief

A

Kubler-Ross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Who: three kinds of infant temperaments (easy, slow to warm, difficult)

A

Thomas and Chess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Who: deaf children babbling with hands

A

Lenneberg, Rebelsky, and Nichols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

When is conservation developed?

A

Concrete operational stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

When is object permanence developed?

A

Pre-operational stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Who: zone of proximal development

A

Vygotsky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Between what ages is autonomy vs shame and doubt?

A

1.5-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Between what ages is initiative vs guilt?

A

3-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Ages of Piaget’s stages?

A

Sensorimotor: first two years
Pre-operational: 2-7
Concrete operational: 7-12
Formal operational: 12+ years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Who: strange situation (attachment patterns) and age of infants

A

Ainsworth

Age: 8 months-2 years (period of stranger and separation anxiety)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When does postconventional morality begin?

A

Around 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

When does preconventional morality occur?

A

7-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

At what age does gender labeling occur?

A

2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

At what age does gender stability occur?

A

3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

At what age does gender consistency occur?

A

4-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Gender schematic processing theory

A

Martin and Haverson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Who: British empiricist school of thought that believed experience is forefront for knowledge

A

Hume
Hobbes
Berkeley
Mill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Who: analyzing infant cries

A

Wolff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Major depression

A
Must last two or more weeks
Must be associated with both situational and biological factors
-At least five of
1) Depressed mood
2) Loss of pleasure in once enjoyable activities
3) Restlessness
4) Hypersomnia or insomnia
5) Weight gain or loss
6) Possible suicidal ideation
7) Difficulty concentrating
8) Loss of energy
9) Low self-worth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Neologism

A

Newly coined word or phrase

-Characteristic of disorganized thought

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Who: study with confederates entering mental hospital

A

Rosenhan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Who: learned helplessness experiment with dogs

A

Seligman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Who elaborated on Tyron’s experiment?

A

Cooper and Zubek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Who: raccoon and piggy bank (instinctual drift)

A

Keller and Marion Breland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Gestalt psychologists

A

Wertheimer
Kohler
Koffka

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Believes in monism

A

Aristotle
Hobbes
Locke

Believe in nurture (nature vs. nurture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Believers in dualism

A

Descartes
Plato

Believe in nature (nature vs. nurture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What did Descartes consider the mind?

A

Pineal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Who: founder of experimental psychology

A

Fechner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What perceptual phenomenon is caused by light and shadow?

A

Bumps and craters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What has longest wavelength and lowest frequency in roygbiv?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Phi phenomenon

A

The phi phenomenon is the optical illusion of perceiving a series of still images, when viewed in rapid succession, as continuous motion. Max Wertheimer defined this phenomenon in 1912

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Avoidance vs escape conditioning

A

Avoidance: to avoid an aversive stimulus (aka before it begins)

Escape: to stop an aversive stimulus (aka after it begins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Focus of sternberg’s short term memory research

A

Whether memory search processes are parallel or serial

Found evidence for serial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Divergent thinking/production

A

Guilford
Generating variety of hypotheses in a given problem situation
-When more than one possibility exists in a situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Cryptomnesia

A

When someone remembers something without sense of familiarity then misattributes the thought to imagination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Anchoring heuristic

A

During decision making, anchoring occurs when individuals use an initial piece of information to make subsequent judgments. Once an anchor is set, other judgments are made by adjusting away from that anchor, and there is a bias toward interpreting other information around the anchor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Interpolation

A

interpolation is a method of constructing new data points within the range of a discrete set of known data points.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Symbolic vs analogical representation

A

Symbolic: words
Analogical: pictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Baddeley’s working memory model

A

Central executive –>

1) phonological loop: language
2) visuo-spatial sketch pad: visual semantics
3) episodic buffer: short-term episodic memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Characteristics of sign language

A
  • all the combinatorial properties of spoken language (ie. Syntax and morphemes)
  • many of the gestures are analogical representations (not symbolic), so the form often resembles it’s meaning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Von restorff effect

A

also called the isolation effect, predicts that an item that “stands out like a sore thumb” (called distinctive encoding) is more likely to be remembered than other item

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Are boys or girls more frequently diagnosed with ADHD?

A

Boys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Are women or men more vulnerable to depression?

A

Women

Gender-related susceptibility patterns consistent around the world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Counter-conditioning

A

Strong positive reinforcement is pitted against a prominently feared behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Gesell’s maturation steps

A
Rolling over: 2.5 mo
Sit without support: 5-6 mo
Walking while holding furniture: 9 mo
Stand alone: 11.5 mo
Walking alone: 12 mo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

During dating, which relationship takes on critical importance for the adolescent?

A

Same-sex parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What has been highly correlated with premature birth?

A

Smoking by mother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Hartshorne and May

A

Children apply situational morality, acting differently in separate situations involving the same moral principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Ages of germinal, embryonic, and fetal period

A

Germinal: first two weeks
Embryonic: 2-8 weeks
Fetal: 8 weeks until birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Play pattern at 3 years old

A

Parallel play

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Critical social development period

A

Between 6 weeks and 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Research on sensation seeks (Anderson, bushman, others)

A

High levels of aggressiveness and impulsivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Snyder’s self-monitoring scale

A

Measures difference among people in their consistency across different situations
-challenges trait theories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Asch experiment properties (how many don’t conform, who does not conform)

A
  • 1/3 do not conform

- naive subjects who call it as they see it will likely remain nonconforming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Fiedler leadership research

A

Most important factor is the match of the leader to the situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Mind guards

A

Utilize a variety of strategies to control dissent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Catharsis aggression theory

A

Catharsis is when we get rid of negative emotions by engaging in something like art or venting (another source)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What did Descartes first conceptualize?

A

Reflex action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Ramon y Cajal

A
  • described structure and function of neurons
  • cns as separate but communicating nerve cells
  • physiology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Penfield

A
  • Studied electrical stimulation in humans
  • Raised possibility of helping people to stimulate their own brains via implanted electrodes
  • By stimulating the cortex, he created functional maps of motor and somatosensory cortex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Sherrington

A

Introduced the concept of the synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Loewi

A

Showed that communication across the synapse is chemical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

McGaugh

A
  • studied why emotionally arousing events are memorable
  • They stimulate
    1) norepinephrine synapses which enhances memory storage
    2) the sympathetic nervous system, which converts glycogen into glucose and raises blood glucose level, facilitating brain functioning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Delgado

A

dominant animal in a colony can become submissive under certain conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Olds and Hess

A
  • Pleasure centers in the hypothalamus: a rat will self-administer electric current to these centers
  • stimulation of pleasure centers used as positive reinforcement
  • Evidence against drive-reduction theory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Young-Helmholtz Theory

A

trichromatic color vision (3 types of cones for blue, green, red)
-challenged by opponent-process theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Effectors

A
  • organs of action
  • muscles and glands
  • respond to efferent nerve fibers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Interneurons

A

Enables communication between sensory or motor neurons and the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Reciprocal inhibition

A

-process of muscles on one side of a joint relaxing to accommodate contraction on the other side of that joint. -Joints are controlled by two opposing sets of muscles, extensors and flexors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Associative inhibition

A

Difficulty in establishing a new association because of previous associations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Left vs right hemisphere

A

Left: language, analytic thought, math
Right: spatial ability, creativity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Spatial vs temporal summation

A

Spatial: from multiple neurons
Temporal: from a single neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Distal vs proximal stimulus (vision)

A

Distal: external object
Proximal: retinal image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Learning acquisition sequency

A

1) Learning begins with drive
2) Drive needs signals or cues
3) Response to cues
4) Reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Delayed vs trace conditioning

A

Delay conditioning: CS overlaps with US.
Trace conditioning: CS and US do not overlap

Delay conditioning more effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Illusory conjunction

A

-when one sees features of two objects in one object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Confabulation

A

memory disturbance

  • fabricated, distorted or misinterpreted memories about oneself or the world,
  • no conscious intention to deceive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Pegword

A

mnemonic using nonsense rhyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Savings method (or relearning)

A
  • Ebbinghaus
  • assessing memory by measuring how long it takes to relearn the same set later
  • now known as implicit memory (or repetition priming)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Memory trace

A

structural alteration in brain cells after learning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Means-end analysis

A

-replacing initial problem with series of subproblems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Recollection vs familiarity

A

Recollection: remembering; slow, controlled
Familiarity: knowing; fast, automatic process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Memories in connectionist models

A

Strength of connections between nodes in a distributed network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Paired t-test

A

Analyzes within-subjects comparison of two conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Parameters vs statistics

A

Parameters: summarize data for an entire population
Statistics: summarize data from a sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Independent measures

A

Between-group analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

True or false: the mean always moves in the direction of the distribution’s skew

A

True

170
Q

Critical ratio

A

(Sample mean - population mean)/standard error of the mean

z-score

171
Q

Standard error

A

SD of a distribution of sample means

172
Q

Synonym for disorganized schizophrenia

A

Hebephrenic schizophrenia

173
Q

Trephination

A

making a hole in the skull of a living person

-May have been used to treat mental disorders

174
Q

What approach is used throughout hospitals and prisons?

A

Behavioristic

175
Q

Reality therapy

A
  • Glasser
  • Client makes signed contract with therapist
  • Reality therapy maintains that the individual is suffering from a socially universal human condition rather than a mental illness
  • realism, responsibility, and right-and-wrong
176
Q

Who had an impact on way patients were being treated?

A

Hippocrates
Pinel
Beers

177
Q

Cephalocaudal

A

Development from head down

178
Q

Proximodistal

A

Development from center of torso to extremities

179
Q

When does separation anxiety occur?

A

8mo-2 years

180
Q

What percentage total body length is a newborn’s head?

A

25%

181
Q

Maslow “D” needs

A
  • Deficiency needs
  • Basic four levels of pyramid (aka first 4 in hierarchy)
  • Anxiety if not met
182
Q

Eysenck

A

-Factor analysis
-3 personality dimensions
1) Introversion-extroversion
2) Stability-neuroticism
(first 2 make up personality quadrants)
3) Impulse control-psychoticism

Extroversion: sensation-seeking

183
Q

Fromm

A

Five types of love

1) Brotherly
2) Motherly
3) Erotic
4) Self
5) Supreme being

Fromm considered brotherly love most powerful

184
Q

Phenomenology

A
  • Study of subjective experience
  • Investigation of consciousness
  • Insight
  • Structuralism
  • Individual’s unique self
185
Q

Sullivan

A

Interpersonal therapy

186
Q

Interpersonal psychodynamic therapy

A
  • Sullivan
  • Interpersonal relationships define personality
  • 3 levels of cognition (prototaxic, parataxic, syntaxic)
    1) Prototaxic: experiences that are impossible to put into words
    2) Parataxic: experiences that are pre-logical and nearly impossible to accurately communicate to others (included are erroneous assumptions about cause and effect)
    3) Syntaxic: experiences that can be accurately communicated to others
  • Personifications: people acquire certain images of self and others throughout development stages (aka good mother, bad mother)
187
Q

Personal constructs phenomenological personality theory

A

-Kelly
we view the world through our own set of glasses
-people can change their view of the world and in turn the way they interact with it, thereby reconstructing themselves

188
Q

Role construct repertory test

A
  • Personal constructs theory (Kelly)

- identifies the constructs clients use to the construe the world

189
Q

CPC cycle

A
  • Kelly, personal constructs
  • Cycle of construction involved in decision-making
    1) Circumspection: consider issues propositionally, from a variety of angles
    2) Preemption: select the critical issue and eliminate other options from consideration
    3) Control: people choose a pole of the construct chosen in the preemption phase of the cycle and act in accordance with that pole
190
Q

Object relations theory

A
  • Klein
  • the way people relate to others and situations in their adult lives is shaped by family experiences during infancy
  • images of people and events turn into objects in the unconscious that the person carries into adulthood
  • good/bad breast– goal is to tolerate ambiguity
  • Based on psychodynamic theory
  • Family therapy
191
Q

Types of family therapy

A

1) Object Relations (Klein)
2) Bowen Theory (Bowen)
3) Communication Theory (Bateson)
4) Structural family (Minuchin)

192
Q

Thurstone’s scale

A

Please check all those statements with which you agree:
____1. I don’t approve of something that puts you out of a normal state of mind (3.0)
____2. It has its place (7.1)

193
Q

Likert scale

A
  • Response range encompassed five categories (strongly agree, agree, no opinion, disagree, strongly disagree)
  • It is important that a person’s score on each individual item in the scale correlate positively with the person’s overall score
194
Q

Semantic differential scale

A

-Osgood
-Person is given a subject followed by a series of bipolar adjectives (good—bad, honest—dishonest)
• Each pole has seven spaces in between; the person places a check in one of these spaces
-Through factor analysis, Osgood discovered three dimensions
• Evaluative (good—bad)
• Activity (active—passive)
• Potency (strong—weak)
-The evaluative scale is the key dimension

195
Q

Guttman’s unidimensional approach

A
  • Measures range of depth on a given attitude
  • If a subject had a very slight agreement on the attitude dimension, they would agree with the first item on the scale; if they had a stronger agreement, the person might agree with the first two scale items (cumulative: agreement with any item implies agreement with all preceding items)
196
Q

Social distance scale

A
  • Bogardus
  • Measures people’s willingness to participate in social contacts of varying degrees of closeness with members of diverse social groups (ie. racial and ethnic groups)
197
Q

Cialdini

A

-Refined Festinger’s theory: degree of cognitive dissonance will depend on the strength of that person’s need for consistency

198
Q

Aronson

A

-extended theory of cognitive dissonance to initiation type settings
• If we go through unpleasant behavior in order to meet the requirements for joining a group, we justify having gone through this experience by enhancing the valuation of the group

-people more likely to be attracted to those who evaluate them positively than those who negatively or neutrally evaluate them

199
Q

Determinants of attraction

A

In order of importance

1) Proximity (Festinger)
2) Are physically attractive
3) Similarity (Newcomb) in attitudes
4) Rewardingness (Aronson); people more likely to be attracted to those who evaluate them positively than those who negatively or neutrally evaluate them

5) Familiarity (Zajonc)

200
Q

Schachter

A

We like people who agree with us

201
Q

Behavior Exchange Model (or Social Exchange)

A

-Gergen
-Social attraction calculated by person’s rewards from interaction divided by cost of interaction
• When costs exceed rewards, social attraction should decline
• Behavior exchange

202
Q

Gain-Loss Model

A
  • Aronson

- Evaluation movement from negative to positive led to stronger social attraction than movement from neutral to positive

203
Q

Social comparison model

A
  • Festinger
  • Social attraction feeds perceived similarity, which feeds more social attraction, etc.
  • People are attracted to those who are perceived to be similar, and they perceive people who they are attracted to as more similar to themselves than is really the case
204
Q

Complementarity Theory

A
  • Winch

- Intimate relationships require that aspects of personality be complementary

205
Q

Who studied proxemics?

A

Hall

206
Q

Kinesics

A

Study of body language

Micro approach: notation system for each aspect of facial expression
Macro approach: general patterns of interaction over a period of time

207
Q

Who studied kinesics?

A

Birdwhistell (micro approach)

208
Q

Who created balance theory?

A

Heider and Newcomb

209
Q

Who: foot in the door technique?

A

Freedman

210
Q

Who: door in the face technique?

A

Cialdini

211
Q

Who: ask and you shall be given?

A
  • Doob/McLaughlin

- high likelihood that a person will respond positively to a request on behalf of a charitable cause

212
Q

Who: low-balling

A
  • Doob/McLaughlin
  • Tendency to stay with a commitment after the initially low stakes have been raised (ie. agreeing to buy a car for $9000, and then still agreeing to buy the car after the salesman says that $10,000 is actually the lowest he can go)
213
Q

Primacy-recency effect

A

-Skinner
• If the decision is soon or immediate, the last communicator (recency) is the most influential
• If the decision is distant, primacy is more effective

214
Q

Plomin & Caspi

A
  • Fraternal twin and identical twin personality scales correlation
  • Identical twins correlated b/t .4 and .53 on all five measures
  • Extraversion and Openness to experience were identical’s highest correlations
  • Agreeableness was fraternal twins’ highest correlation
  • Large differences b/t identical and fraternal twins
215
Q

Summatted ratings

A

Individual item scores correlate positive with overall score

aka Likert scale

216
Q

Gerbner’s television viewing study

A

Heavy viewers

  • Greatly overestimate danger when outside the home
  • Were desensitized to helping an actual victim of violence
  • Were more frequently boys than girls
217
Q

Attachment theory and who

A

Bowlby

  • dynamics of long-term interpersonal relationships between humans
  • a strong emotional and physical attachment to at least one primary caregiver is critical to personal development
  • Bowlby studied children
218
Q

Dilution effect

A

Reducing bias by providing more information about person

219
Q

Cialdini litter experiment

A

Litter prevention most effective when there is a litter-free space except for one pice of paper litter (reminds people that most people are not littering)

220
Q

Theory of association

A
  • Lewin
  • Forerunner of behaviorism
  • Grouping things together based on the fact that they occur together in time and space
221
Q

Hull’s formula for performance

A

Performance= Drive x Habit

222
Q

Tolman’s formula for performance

A

Performance = expectation x value

expectancy-value theory
People are motivated by goals that they think they can actually meet

223
Q

Vroom

A

Applied Toman’s expectancy-value theory to people in large organizations

Those lowest in status do not expect to receive incentives, thus motivation is low

224
Q

Approach-avoidance conflict

A
  • Neil Miller
  • When a goal has both pros and cons
  • The further one is from the goal, more one focuses on pros
  • Closer one is to the goal, more one focuses on cons
225
Q

Premack principle

A

People are motivated to do what they do not want to do by rewarding themselves afterward with something they like to do

226
Q

Response learning

A

-One learns what to do in response to particular triggers (ie. leaving building in response to fire alarm)

227
Q

Perceptual/concept learning

A
  • Learning about something not due to specific S-R chains

- Aka Tolman’s latent learning experiments

228
Q

Autoshaping

A

-When animal can control its reinforcements through behaviors (like bar pressing or key pecking); shaping its own behavior

229
Q

Garcia effect

A
  • When humans become sick from eating food one time and are never able to eat the food again
  • Biological preparedness
230
Q

Positive vs negative transfer

A

Positive: previous learning that makes it easier to learn another task later
Negative: previous learning that makes it more difficult to learn a new task

231
Q

Learning curve with age

A

Primed to learn: 3-20
Constant: 20-50
Drop: after 50

232
Q

Girls or boys faster at language learning?

A

Girls

233
Q

Backward masking

A
  • Ulric Neisser
  • When flash of light or new pattern before iconic image fades erases the first image
  • works for auditory stimuli
  • More successful if it is similar to the original stimulus, and if closer to first stimulus
234
Q

Factors that make memorizing list easier

A
  • Acoustic and semantic dissimilarity
  • Brevity
  • Familiarity
  • Concreteness
  • Meaning
  • Importance to the subject
235
Q

Tachtiscope

A

Instrument used in cognitive or memory experiments

-Presents visual material to subjects for fraction of a second

236
Q

Convergent thinking

A
  • Guilford

- Type of thinking to find one solution to a problem

237
Q

Mediation

A

intervening mental process that occurs between stimulus and response

238
Q

Does it take longer to make associations between pictures or between words?

A

Pictures

239
Q

James-Lange Theory of Emotion

A

-Physiological responses –> emotion

240
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory of Emotion

A

Emergency theory

-Emotions and bodily reactions occur simultaneously

241
Q

Schachter and Singer’s cognitive theory of emotion

A
  • Like J-L theory, emotions come from physiological reactions
  • However, cognition in between
  • Many different situations produce similar bodily reactions
  • Cognition we attach to a situation determines which emotion we feel in response to physiological arousal
242
Q

Structuralist vs Gestalt psychology

A

Structuralist: bottom-up
Gestaltist: top-down

243
Q

Who: color blindness

A

Helmholtz

244
Q

When is opponent-process theory at work, and when is tri-color theory at work?

A

Opponent-process theory: lateral geniculate body

Tri-color theory: retina

245
Q

McCollough effect

A

after=images

246
Q

Pragnanz

A
  • Gestalt

- Experience organized as meaningful, symmetrical, and simple whenever possible

247
Q

Ponzo illusion

A

When two horizontal lines of equal length appear unequal because of two vertical lines that slant inward
/—\
/ — \

248
Q

Fechner’s law

A

Built on Weber’s law (K= change in I/I)

S (sensation strength) = k log R
Strength of a stimulus must be significantly increased to produce a slight different in sensation

249
Q

Theory of Signal Detection

A

-aka Signal Detection Theory
-J.A. Swet
Motivation as a factor in detecting stimuli

250
Q

Receiver operating characteristic (ROC)

A

curves that are graphical representations of a subject’s sensitivity to a stimulus

251
Q

Traveling wave

A

Movement of cochlear fluid on the basilar membrane that causes activation of hair cells

252
Q

Path to auditory cortex

A

Olivary nucleus– inferior colliculus – medial geniculate body

253
Q

Who: gate control theory of pain

A

Melzack and Wall

254
Q

Structures in forebrain

A

1) Corticospinal tract
2) Diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus)
3) Pituitary gland
4) Telencephalon (Limbic system, hippocampus, amygdala, cingulate gyrus)
5) Cerebral cortex

255
Q

Where: Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area

A

Broca: frontal lobe
Wernicke: temporal lobe

256
Q

How many sleep cycles do people complete each night?

A

4-6

257
Q

How long does each sleep cycle last?

A

90 minutes

258
Q

Sleep cycles early in the night vs. later in the night

A

Early in the night: most time spent in stage 4 and 4

Later in the night: most time spent in stage 2 and REM

259
Q

Thanatos and Eros

A
  • Freud
  • Thanatos: the death instinct
  • Eros: the lift instinct
260
Q

Psychic determinism

A

mental processes are not spontaneous but are determined by the unconscious or preexisting mental complexes

-Behavior and dreams are symptoms of underlying unresolved conflict, manifested when the ego does not find acceptable ways to express conflict

261
Q

Who developed free association?

A

Freud and Breuer

262
Q

Synonymous with catharsis

A

Abreaction

263
Q

Compensation

A

Ego defense mechanism

-Excelling in one area to make up for shortcomings in another

264
Q

Identification

A

Ego defense mechanism

-Imitating a central figure in one’s life, such as a parent

265
Q

Undoing

A

Ego defense mechanism

Performing an often ritualistic activity in order to relieve anxiety about unconscious drives

266
Q

Dreams

A

Ego defense mechanism
Manifest content: actual content of the dream
Latent content: unconscious forces the dreams are trying to express

267
Q

Screen memory

A

Memories that serve as representations of important childhood experiences (psychoanalytic theory)

268
Q

Individual theory

A
  • Adler
  • People are creative, social, and whole
  • Process of “becoming”
  • Individual motivated by social needs and feelings of inferiority; will to power (quest for feelings of superiority)
  • Healthy individual will pursue goals outside of himself and beneficial to society

Unhealthy individuals: too affected by inferior feelings to pursue will to power; when they do, their goals are likely self-serving

269
Q

Adler’s personality typology

A

1) Ruling-dominant type (choleric): high in activity but low in social contribution; dominant
2) Getting-learning type (phlegmatic): low in activity and high in social contribution; dependent
3) Avoiding type (melancholic): low in activity and low in social contribution; withdrawn
4) Socially useful type (sanguine): high in activity and high in social contribution; healthy

270
Q

Shadow

A

Jung

-A person’s dark side, often projected onto others

271
Q

Jung’s abnormal theory

A

Psychopathology is signal that something is wrong with the psyche, and provides clues about how one could become more aware

272
Q

Roger’s abnormal theory

A

People who lack congruence between their real selves and their conscious self-concept

273
Q

Genuineness/congruence

A
  • Client-centered therapy
  • Feelings and experiences of the therapist should match; should not maintain a professional reserve, but increase speak and act genuinely
274
Q

Evidence of growth in client centered therapy

A

1) congruent self-concept
2) positive self-regard
3) internal locus-of-evaluation
4) willingness to experience

275
Q

Systematic desensitization

A
  • Wolpe
  • Exposed to increasingly anxiety-provoking stimuli while using relaxation techniques
  • Classical conditioning to relieve anxiety
276
Q

Aversion therapy

A

Classical conditioning to increase anxiety

-Generally used to treat addiction

277
Q

Behavioral techniques

A

1) Systematic desensitization
2) Flooding or implosive therapy
3) Aversion therapy
4) Shaping
5) Modeling
6) Assertiveness training
7) Role playing

278
Q

Types of maladaptive cognitions

A

1) Arbitrary inference
2) Overgeneralization
3) Magnifying/minimizing
4) Personalizing
5) Dichotomous thinking

279
Q

Arbitrary inference

A
  • Cognitive theory

- Drawing a conclusion without solid evidence: “my boss thinks I’m stupid because he never asks me to play golf”

280
Q

Overgeneralization (cognitive theory)

A

Mistaking isolated incidents for the norm

281
Q

Magnifying/minimizing

A

Making too much or little of something: “it was luck that I did well on my exam”

282
Q

Personalizing

A

Inappropriately taking responsibility: “our office’s failed project was all my fault”

283
Q

Dichotomous thinking

A

Black and white thinking: “If I don’t score a 750 on the GRE, I’ll have no future”

284
Q

Cognitive triad

A

Negative views about the self, the world, and the future

285
Q

Ellis’ abnormal theory

A

A) Activating event occurs
B) Client applies certain beliefs about the event
C) Consequence of emotional disruption

Therapist leads client to dispute (D) applied irrational beliefs
Goal is effective (E) rational beliefs

286
Q

Gestalt therapy

A
  • Goal is to fully experience and perceive the present
  • Perls, Wertheimer, Koffka
  • Abnormal behavior comes from disturbance of awareness
  • Dialogue with client, rather than leading
  • Focus on here and now experience
287
Q

Existential therapy

A

Frankl (logotherapy) and May

  • Greatest struggle is that of being vs. nonbeing and meaningfulness vs. meaninglessness
  • Will to meaning
  • Response to meaninglessness in life is neurotic anxiety
288
Q

Antimanics

A

Lithium

-Inhibit monoamines such as norepinephrine and serotonin

289
Q

Anxiolytics

A
  • Anti-anxiety
  • Barbiturates and benzodiazepines
  • Reduce anxiety or induce sleep by increasing effectiveness of GABA
  • Type of depressant
290
Q

Third force

A
Humanistic theories (client-centered, gestalt, existential)
-Reaction to psychoanalysis and behaviorism
291
Q

Eysenck on psychotherapy

A

Criticized its effectiveness after analyzing studies that indicated psychotherapy was no more successful than no treatment at all
-Other studies have contradicted this point

292
Q

Stress-inoculation training

A
  • Meichenbaum

- Prepares people for foreseeable stressors

293
Q

Neil Miller

A
  • Approach-avoidance conflict

- Proved experimentally that abnormal behavior can be learned

294
Q

Pick’s disease

A

Disease of the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain characterized by changes in personality

295
Q

Schizoaffective disorder

A

Schizophrenic symptoms accompanying a depressive episode

296
Q

Delusional disorder

A

Delusions including the following types:

1) Erotomanic: that another person is in love with the individual
2) Grandiose: that one has special talent of status
3) Jealousy
4) Persecutory
4) Somatic: believing a part of the body is ugly or misshapen for ex.

297
Q

Shared psychotic disorder

A

when two people have shared delusions

298
Q

Factitious disorder

A

Creating physical complains through fabrication to assume the sick role (conscious)

299
Q

Dyssmonias vs parasomnias

A

Dyssomnias: sleep abnormalities
Parasomnias: abnormal behaviors during sleep

300
Q

Types of personality disorders

A

1) Paranoid
2) Schizoid
3) Schizotypal
4) Antisocial
5) Borderline
6) Histrionic
7) Narcissistic
8) Avoidant
9) Dependent
10) Obsessive-compulsive

301
Q

Schizoid and Schizotypal personality disorder

A

Schizoid: detachment, small range of emotion
Schizotypal: eccentricity, distorted reality

302
Q

Synonymous with anti-psychotics

A

Neuroleptics

303
Q

Tardive dyskinesia

A
  • Can result from long-time use of neuroleptics or psychotropics
  • Characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the tongue, jaw, or extremities
304
Q

Cretinism

A

Form of mental retardation caused by iodine deficiency

305
Q

Disorders caused by heavy drinking

A

1) Korsakoff’s syndrome: vitamin B deficiency; loss of memory and orientation; confabulations to fill in gaps
2) Wernicke’s syndrome: thiamine deficiency; memory problems and eye dysfunctions

306
Q

Tay-Sachs disease

A
  • Recessive
  • Genetic deficiency of hexosaminidase A
  • May have symptoms resembling psychological disorders, such as schizophrenia or dementia
307
Q

Reactive depression

A

Depression resulting from particular events

308
Q

Depressive realism

A

Finding that depressed people tend to be more realistic about life than the nondepressed

309
Q

Schizophrenogenic mother

A
  • Fromm and Reichman

- Refers to type of mother that “supposedly” causes children to become schizophrenic

310
Q

H-Y antigen

A
  • Six weeks after conception
  • Presence causes testis to form, absence causes ovaries to form

3 months after conception: testosterone causes formation of rest of male reproductive system, while lack of causes formation of the female reproductive system

311
Q

Hormones causing secondary sex characteristics

A

Boys: androgen
Girls: estrogen

312
Q

Gelman

A

Showed Piaget underestimated cognitive ability of preschoolers
-Can deal with ideas such as quantity in small sets of objects

313
Q

Piaget’s moral development

A

4-7: imitates rule-following behavior; does not question acceptance of rules
7-11: understands rules and follows them
12+: applies abstract thinking to rules; can change rules if all parties agree

314
Q

Age of Freud’s psychosexual stages

A
Oral: birth- 1.5 years
Anal: 1.5-3 years
Phallic: 3-6 years
Latency: 6-puberty
Genital: Puberty on
315
Q

Kohlberg’s levels

A

1) should avoid punishment
2) should gain rewards
3) should gain approval
4) should follow law and authority
5) beyond black and white of laws; attentive to rights and social welfare
6) makes decisions based on abstract ethical principles

316
Q

Who: parenting styles (authoritarian, permissive, authoritative)

A

Baumrind

317
Q

Trajectory of sex-typed behavior

A

-Stereotypical gender behavior

Low during prepubescence, highest in young adulthood, lower again during later life

318
Q

Symbolic play

A

When children are 1-2 years old

-Pretend roles, imagination, using objects to represent other things

319
Q

Proprium or propriate function

A
  • Allport
  • Governs conscious motives
  • Acts consistently based on traits it had developed through experience
320
Q

Allport: ideographic or nomothetic?

A

ideographic

321
Q

Traits vs states

A

Traits: relatively enduring characteristics
States: temporary feelings or characteristics

322
Q

Taxonomies

A

Organized categorization systems

323
Q

Dispositionists
Situationists
Interactionists

A

Dispositionists: internal determinants of behavior
Situationists: aka behaviorists, only circumstances determine behavior
Interactions: combination of stable internal factors and situations

324
Q

Critics of trait theorists (dispositionists)

A

Epstein and Mischel

325
Q

Consistency paradox

A

The possibility that a person may behave inconsistently

Problem for labeling people as having one internal disposition

326
Q

Cognitive prototype approach

A

Mischel and Cantor

-Examines cognitive behavior (formation of and attention to prototypes) in social situations

327
Q

Deaux

A

Found that women’s successes at “male” tasks attributed to luck, and men’s successes attributed to skill
-Women attribute their successes to luck more than men, indicating lower self-esteem

328
Q

Horner

A

Believed females shunned masculine-type successes, not due to fear of failure, but because they feared success and its negative repercussions

329
Q

Eagly

A

Found interaction between gender and social status, in terms of how easily an individual might be influenced

330
Q

Maccoby and Jacklin

A
  • Few sex differences that can be explained away by social learning
  • Females have greater verbal ability, and males have greater visual/spatial ability
331
Q

Who: type A personality

A

Friedman and Rosenman

332
Q

Dahlstrom

A

Linked type A personality to heart disease and other health problems

333
Q

Authoritarianism

A
  • Viewing the world as made up of power relationships
  • Either highly domineering or highly submissive (if they are in presence of more powerful figure)
  • Conventional, aggressive, stereotyping, and anti-introspective
  • Measured by F-scale (fascism scale)–> f-ratio
334
Q

Self-monitoring

A
  • Scrutinizing own behavior
  • Acting appropriately rather than honestly
  • Ability to mask true feelings
335
Q

Costa and McCrae

A

Personality changes very little after age 30

336
Q

Who: TAT

A

Murray

337
Q

Self-serving attributional bias

A

Blaming situations for failures, and taking credit for successes

338
Q

Sleeper effect

A

-Explains why persuasive communication from a source of low credibility may become more acceptable after the fact

339
Q

Rodin and Langer

A

Nursing home residents who have plants to care for have better health and lower mortality rates

340
Q

Who used Darwinian principles to promote eugenics?

A

Galton

341
Q

Titchener

A

-Founder of structuralism

342
Q

IQ

A
  • Binet

- Mental age/chronological age X 100

343
Q

What is the mean IQ of Americans?

A

100

SD= 15-16

344
Q

Stanford-Binet intelligence scale

A
  • Terman
  • Used with children, and organized by age level
  • Best known predictor for future academic achievement (out of all the IQ tests)
345
Q

Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI)

A

Children 4-6

346
Q

Ages for WISC-R

A

6-16

347
Q

What correlates most positively with IQ?

A

IQ of biological parents and socioeconomic status of parents

348
Q

Who: fluid and crystallized intelligence

A

Horn and Cattell

Fluid intelligence declines with old age, but crystallized does not

349
Q

Spearmen

A

general factor in intelligence, g

350
Q

Q-sort test

A
  • Objective personality test
  • Sorting cards into normal distribution (neutral in the middle, one end very characteristic, and not characteristic on the other end)
351
Q

CPI

A

Usually used for more normal and less clinical groups than the MMPI
-Developed by Gough

352
Q

Myers-Brigg Type Indicator

A
  • Derived from Carl Jung’s personality theory
    1) Introverted/Extroverted
    2) Sensing vs. intuition
    3) Feeling vs thinking
    4) Judgement vs perception
353
Q

Picture-Frustration (P-F) Study

A

=-Rosenzweig
Cartoons where one person is frustrating another person
-Subject asked to describe how the frustrated person responds
-Projective test

354
Q

Word association test

A
  • Projective
  • Word– subject says the next word that comes to mind
  • Originally used in conjunction with free-association techniques
355
Q

Draw-A-Person Test

A
  • Projective

- Subject draws a person of each sex and tells a story about them

356
Q

Beck Depression Inventory

A

Not used to diagnose depression, but is used to assess the severity of depressive symptoms

357
Q

Example of criterion-keying approach

A

Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory

358
Q

Anastasi

A

Researched intelligence in relation to performance

359
Q

Bayley Scales of Infant Development

A

Measures sensory and motor development of infants in order to identify mentally retarded children

Poor predictor of later intelligence

360
Q

Predictive value

A

Degree to which an independent variable can predict a dependent variable

361
Q

Acquiescence

A

When people agree with opposing statements, problem for research

362
Q

Synonymous with experimenter bias

A

Rosenthal effect

363
Q

Reactance (in research)

A

attitude change in response to feeling that options are limited

Eg. subjects react negatively to being in an experiment by behaving unnaturally on purpose

364
Q

Selective attrition

A

When the subjects that drop out of an experiment are different from those that remain (remaining sample is no longer random)

365
Q

Difference between bar graph and histogram

A

In bar graph, vertical bars do not touch

366
Q

Formula for t score

A

Transformation of a z-score, where mean is 50 and SD=10

T= 10 (z-score) + 50

367
Q

Percentiles according to SD

A
-1 =15
0= 50
1= 84
2= 97
3=99
368
Q

Curvilinear relationship

A

Curve line

-Ex. arousal and performance

369
Q

When to use Pearson r coefficient vs Spearman correlation coefficient

A

Use Spearman r correlation coefficient only when the data is in the from of ranks

370
Q

One-way ANOVA vs two-way ANOVA

A

One-way: tests the means for one independent variable

Two-way: tests effects of two independent variables at once

371
Q

T-tests

A

compares means of two different groups

372
Q

ANOVAs vs T-test

A

ANOVAs can analyze different among more than two groups (even if the groups have different sample sizes)

Both analyze continuous variables

373
Q

Factorial analysis of variance

A
  • When experiment involves more than one IV
  • Allows separation of effects of different levels of different variables
  • Can isolate main effects and interaction effects
374
Q

Analysis of Covariance (ANCOVA)

A

whether at least two groups co-vary

375
Q

Split-half reliability

A
  • Comparing individual’s performance on two halves of the same test
  • Reveals internal consistency of test
376
Q

Item analysis

A

How a large group responded to each item on measure

  • Weeds out dud or problematic questions that do not have discriminatory value
  • Internal consistency (reliability)
377
Q

Synonymous with concurrent validity

A

Cross validation

378
Q

Multitrait-multimethod technique

A
  • Campbell and Fiske

- To determine validity of tests

379
Q

Mental Retardation

A

IQ of 70 or bellow
Mild= 55-70
Moderate= 40-55
Severe= 25-40

380
Q

What indicates learning disorders?

A

School achievement or standardized scores at least two standard deviations below the mean

381
Q

16 Major Diagnostic Categories in DSM-5

A

1) Neurodevelopmental disorders
2) Schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorders
3) Bipolar and related disorders
4) Depressive disorders
5) Anxiety disorders
7) Trauma- and stressor-related disorders
8) Dissociative disorders
9) Somatic symptom and related disorders
10) Feeding and eating disorders
11) Sleep–wake disorders
12) Sexual dysfunctions
13) Gender dysphoria
14) Disruptive, impulse-control, and conduct disorders
15) Substance-related and addictive disorders
16) Neurocognitive disorders
17) Paraphilic disorders (sexual deviation)
18) Personality disorders

382
Q

Dysthymic disorder (persistent depressive disorder)

A

Symptoms of MDD for more than two years, but there is never an actual depressive episode

383
Q

Major depressive disorder

A
  • Symptoms present nearly every day for at least two weeks

- Depressed mood, loss of interest, change in weight or sleep, low energy, feelings of worthlessness, thoughts of death

384
Q

Holophrastic vs telegraphic speech

A

Holophrastic: one word that conveys meaning of entire sentence
Telegraphic: barebones and only conveys necessity
“me want cookie” “me ball”

Same idea, 1 word vs. multiple words

385
Q

Who: overjustification

A

Bem

386
Q

What does a cross-sectional study control for, compared to longitudinal study?

A

Cohort effect

387
Q

What likely causes hermaphrodite individual?

A

Female fetus being exposed to higher than normal level of testosterone

388
Q

What do osmoreceptors deal with?

A

Thirst

389
Q

Proprioception

A

Also known as kinesthetic sense

-Information from receptors in joints and muscles that tells us position of our body

390
Q

Cutaneous/Tactual receptors

A

1) Free nerve endings: pain and temperature changes
2) Meissner’s corpuscles: receptors that detect touch/contact
3) Pacinian corpuscles: respond to displacement of skin

391
Q

What are vestibular sacs for?

A

Sensitive to tilt and provide sense of balance

392
Q

Outer ear

A

Auditory canal and pinna

393
Q

Purkinje shift

A

Perceived color brightness changes with the level of illumination in the room

At lower levels of illumination, the extremes of color spectrum (especially red) are seen as less bright

394
Q

Minimum principle

A

Tendency to see what is easiest or logical

395
Q

What causes dark adaptation?

A

Regeneration of retinal pigment (rhodopsin)

Do not reach max sensitivity to dark until 30 minutes

396
Q

Who: opponent-process theory

A

Hering

397
Q

Lateral inhibition

A

Allows the eye to see contrast and prevents repetitive information from being sent to the brain (once one receptor cell is stimulated, the others nearby are inhibited)

398
Q

Passage through cells after visual receptor cells

A

Horizontal cells –> Bipolar cells –> Amacrine cells –> ganglion cells

399
Q

Accommodation (vision)

A
  • Occurs though the lens

- Bending to focus image of the outside world onto the retina

400
Q

What is the lens controlled by?

A

Ciliary muscles

401
Q

What is the pupil controlled by?

A

Iris

402
Q

Draw-A-Man Test

A
  • Goodenough
  • For children
  • Notable for cross-cultural application and simple directions (make a picture of a man, best picture)
  • Scored based on detail and accuracy (not talent)
  • Example of IQ testing NOT projective testing
403
Q

What is Terman famous for (other than Stanford-Binet intelligence scale)?

A
  • Studies with gifted children

- Finding that children with higher IQ are better adjusted

404
Q

Zajonc

A
  • Familiarity determinant of attraction
  • Social facilitation
  • Studied relationship between birth order and intelligence
  • Firstborns slightly more intelligent than second-borns, etc.
  • More children in a family, less intelligent they are likely to be
  • Greater spaces between children leading to higher intelligence
405
Q

Objective personality tests

A

1) MMPI: 550 true/false/not sure questions
2) CPI
3) Myers-Brigg Type Indicator (MBTI): 93 questions, which each have 2 answers
4) Rotter’s Internal-External Locus of Control Scale

406
Q

Special feature of TAT

A
  • Used to measure need for achievement

- Terms that go along with interpreting the test: needs, press, and personology

407
Q

Rotter Incomplete Sentence Blank

A

Similar to word association

  • Subjects finish incomplete sentences
  • Projective test
408
Q

Cohort-sequential design

A

-Combines longitudinal and cross-sectional approaches

409
Q

Variables: frequency polygon vs histogram

A

Frequency polygon: continuous variables
Histograte: useful for discrete variables that have clear boundaries and for interval variables in which there is some order

410
Q

Domain-referenced test

A
  • Measures less-defined properties (like intelligence) and needs to be checked for reliability and validity
  • Not norm
  • Vs criterion-referenced test: mastery in a particular area or subject
411
Q

Primary prevention

A

Attempts to prevent documented psychosocial problems through direct contact with an at-risk (but unaffected) group

Before problems arise, rather than as a result of the problems

412
Q

Neo-Freudians

A

Horney and Sullivan

413
Q

Antabuse

A

Drug that changes metabolism of alcohol, resulting in severe nausea and vomiting

Used to countercondition alcoholics

414
Q

Examples of antipsychotics

A

Thorazine (chlorpromazine)

Haldol (Haloperidol)

415
Q

Examples of tricyclic antidepressants

A

Elavil (amitriptyline)

416
Q

Examples of MAOIs

A

Nardil (phenelzine)

417
Q

Examples of SSRIs

A

Prozac (fluoxetin)
Paxil (paroxetin)
Zoloft (sertraline)

418
Q

Type A personality

A

1) Drive
2) Competitiveness
3) Aggressiveness
4) Hostility

Most commonly found in middle-upper class men

419
Q

Nerve deafness

A

From damaged hair cells on the cochlea

420
Q

Difference threshold for hearing

A

Change must be 5%