Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UWorld Wrong > Misc > Flashcards

Misc Flashcards

1
Q

CFTR is what type

A) Voltage gated

B) ATP-gated

C) Ca2+ gated

E) cGMP gated

A

ATP gated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ovarian vessels and nerves delivered via what vessel?

A

suspensory ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Elevated aPTT, PT with no change in TT suggests what anticoagulant

A

Direct Xa inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Excessive athlete in non-teenage athlete

A

steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

adrenergic receptor block causing postural hypotension

A

alpha-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This artery courses with radial nerve in the arm

A

deep brachial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Splenic artery infarct: blood flow will decrease more in short gastric or left gastroepiploic?

A

short gastric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Absence of T tubules will cause what

A

uncoordinated myfibril contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Diminished ankle reflex: L5 or S1

A

S1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diminished patellar reflex: L4, L5, or S1

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many half lives to reach steady state concentration of continous infusion w/ first order kinetics

A

4-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Don’t take this drug with levodopa

A

B6 – increases peripheral metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Food stuck in piriform recess injures what nerve with what effect

A

internal laryngeal nerve (branch of CN X), injures afferent limb of cough reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Testicular tumor + hyperthyroidism: what tumor marker?

A

beta-hCG – analog of TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

chloramphenicol toxicities

A

pancytopenia and aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vitamin deficiency causing squamous metaplasia of pancreatic and exocrine ducts to a keratinizing epithelium

A

Vitamin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why is skeletal muscle resistant to Ca channel blockers

A

Calcium doesn’t actually flow through the calcium channels – their opening mechanically opens the Ryanodine receptors inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pathologic change preceding aortic calcification

A

cell necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Low alveolar PaCO2

High alveolar PaO2

Poor perfusion or poor duffusion

A

Poor perfusion – diffusion problems don’t usually affect CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

4 year old with bounding pulses and palpable thrill at LUSB

A

PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

PDA arises from which aortic arch

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HbA 60%

HbS 40%

What’s the genotype

A

Heterozygote for sickle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Renal artery stenosis will result in hypertrophy of what renal cells

A

Juxtaglomerular cells (modified smooth muscle cells of afferent arterioles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Huntington’s caused by deficiency in what neurotransmitter

A

GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Renal efferent arteriole vasoconstriction has what effect on GFR and FF

A

FF goes up

GFR goes up with mild to moderate vasoconstriction, goes down with severe vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Management of somatic symptom disorder

A

Regularly scheduled visits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Brain lesion causing pure motor symptoms and spasticity

A

internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Malleus and incus: what pharyngeal arch

A

1st – same as CN V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Injecting this buttock quadrant risks superior gluteal nerve

A

superior medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

IL that stimulates growth and differentiation of eosinophils in asthmatics

A

IL-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CMV retinitis tx

A

gangiclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

pharm therapy for gestational diabetes

A

insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

albuminuria with minimal concentrations of other proteins refers to what kind of proteinuria

A

selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cause of portal HTN with no liver injury

A

portal vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

List medial to lateral:

gonadal vessels, internal iliac vessels, ureter

A

internal iliac / ureter / gonadal vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which antilipid med has greatest effect on lowering TGs

A

fibrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Most common cause of lacunar infarct

A

small vessel lipohyalinosis 2/2 HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Physostigmine, Neostigmine, Edrophonium:

Which is centrall acting

A

Physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Best screening test for undifferentiated malabsorption

A

Sudan stool stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Niacin mechanism

A

inhibit hepatic VLDL production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Lead or iron poisoning:

colicky abdominal pain

constipation

headaches

bluish pigmentation at the gum line

A

lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Clasp knife spasticity:

putamen, caudate, internal capsule, or globus pallidus

A

internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Symptom of hyper aldosteronism:

Diarrhea and flushing

OR

Paresthesia and muscle weakness

A

Paresthesias and muscle weakness (low K)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Does insulin cross placenta

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Electrolyte abnormalities in amphotericin B therapy

A

low K and Mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ab for neutrophil myeloperoxidase is another way of saying what?

A

p-ANCA positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Nitroprusside acts on arteries or veins

A

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Middle aged female with DM and borderline HTN is most likely to die of what

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Ab targets alpha3 chain of collagen 4: another way of saying what

A

anti-GBM positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Does hemochromatosis cause cirrhosis

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

triptan mechanism

A

serotonin agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cholestasis will cause gastric atrophy or osteomalacia

A

osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Converts androgen to estrogen in women

A

aromatase in granulosa cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

scrotal abscess drains to what lymph node

A

superficial infuinal (only the testis itself goes to para-aortic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Hydralazine and procainamide are metabolized how

A

Liver acetylation

These drugs cause drug induced lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Colchicine mechanism

A

inhibit microtubule formation

Acute gout treatment causing diarrhea –> think colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Iron studies in iron deficiency anemia

Fe:

Ferritin:

Transferrin:

A

Fe: low

Ferritin: low

Transferrin: high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Patients with significant prior atheroscerotic disease

Consider what before prescribing ACE-I

A

possibiliy of bilateral renal artery stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Permanent central DI

hypothalamus or posterior pituitary

A

hypothalamus

(In pituitary lesions, the hypothalamus can eventually compensate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Pelvic fracture most likely to injure what portion of urethra

A

posterior membranous (just distal to prostate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Unilateral swelling of face and arm in patient with risk factors for malignancy

A

brachiocephalic vein syndrome (not SVC!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which nervous system terminal output uses NE

A

sympathetic visceral innervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How does squatting help in Tet spells

A

increase SVR (doesn’t affect PVR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Arteriolar vasodilators such as hydralazine have what complication

A

salt retention and edema

(they activate RAAS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

NE administered: what’s second messenger system

Blood vessels:

Heart:

A

Blood vessels: IP3

Heart: cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Rapid bilateral cerebral necrosis in young person

A

HSV encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Direct hernia: breakdown of transversalis fascia or weak rectus muscle

A

transversalis fascia breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Hives: epidermal spongiosis or dermal edema

A

dermal edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Method of INH metabolism

A

acetylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

List 5 insulin types in increasing duration of action

A

aspart

regular

NPH

detemir

glargine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Reperfusion injury causing rise in CK is best explained by:

glutathione peroxidase pruduction

OR

Cell membrane damage

A

cell membrane damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe buspirone muscle relaxant effects

A

none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Most common cause of spontaneous PTX in healthy individual

A

ruptured subpleural apical blebs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Serotonin syndrome: tryptophan or tyrosine

A

tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

serotonin syndrome antidote

A

cyproheptadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What’s Kussmaul sign

A

paradoxical inspiratory rise in JVP: impaired RV filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

INH mechanism against mycobacterium

A

inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Acanthocytes on peripheral smear imply what

A

abetalipoproteinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Impact of myocardial ischemia on intracellular Na, Ca, K

A

Na: increased

Ca: increased

K: decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

This med is given for PAH while patient is waiting for transplant

What’s the mechanism

A

bosentan: endothelin receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What’s Cheyne-Stokes breathing

A

apnea then period of crescendo-decrescendo tidal volumes then apnea and repeat

Seen in cardiac and neurologic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which anti-mycobacterial agent works best in acidic environments (e.g. intracellular)

A

pyrazinamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

flutamide mechanism

A

blocks testosterone receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Integrins bind what 3 things

A

fibronectin

collagen

laminin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Side effects of typical antipsychotics

Low potency:

High potency

A

Low potency: anti cholinergic and antihistaminergic

High potency: EPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

First dose side effect of ACE-I

A

hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Reason nitrates are taken morning and noon but not night

A

need a nitrate free interval to avoid tolerance development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Moldy substance causing p53 mutation

What is it and what cancer does it cause

A

aflatoxins that cause HCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What causes the iron buildup in patients with hemochromatosis

A

abnormal intestinal absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

cromolyn and nedocromil mechanism

A

inhibit mast cell degranulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

HF patient w/ slow heart rate, nausea, vomiting, hyperkalemia. What’s the drug responsible?

A

digoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

beta blocker mechanism in glaucoma

A

decreased aqueous humor production by ciliary epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

colonic diverticuli: traction or pulsion

A

pulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

daytime sleepiness more common in short acting or long acting benzos

A

long acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

1st line treatment for these seizures

myoclonic:

tonic-clonic:

simple partial:

complex partial:

A

myoclonic: VPA

tonic-clonic: phenytoin, carbamezapine

simple partial: carbamezapine

complex partial: carbamezapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Tomoxifen more likely to cause osteoporosis or endometrial hyperplasia

A

endometrial hyperplasia – tomoxifen actually increases bone mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Findings in congestion, red hepatization, and gray hepatization

A

congestion: exudate containing mostly bacteria

red hepatization: exudate contains erythrocytes, neutrophils and fibrin

gray hepatization: exudate contains neutrophils, fibrin, and disintegrated RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What 2 substances are responsible for osteoclast differentiation?

A

RANKL and M-CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Multinucleated cells in Paget’s disease represent what

A

osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

confluent erythema, LAD, fever, and facial swelling after recently starting phenytoin

A

DRESS – remember the eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

bisphosphonates are analog of pyrophosphate or hydroxyproline

A

pyrophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is substance P?

A

pain neurotransmitter in PNS and CNS. levels are lowered by capsaicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

infant with growth retardation and teeth discolorations cause by maternal use of what substance

A

tetracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Name the signaling pathway:

nicotinic receptors:

muscarinic receptors:

beta-1 and beta-2:

alpha-1:

A

nicotinic receptors: ligand-gated ion channels

muscarinic receptors: IP3

beta-1 and beta-2: cAMP

alpha-1: IP3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

chlorpheniramine is what class of drug

A

1st generation anti-histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

72 kD enzyme present only in inflammatory tissues is bound by which of the following:

allopurinol, aspirin, colchicine, infliximab, prednisone

A

aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Matching:

gp120 and gp41

adherence and fusion

A

gp120: adherence
gp41: fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

hyperglycemia and lipodystrophy in HIV patient. what drug class likely responsible

A

protease inhibitors, e.g. idinavir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

elevated phenobarbital level in patient with essential tremor. what’s he taking?

A

primidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

best long term tx for CF-associated diarrhea

A

pancreatic lipase – CF causes pancreas obstructive fibrosis and insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

pinworm treatment

A

albendazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Wegener’s: crescentic glomerulonephritis or membranous glomerulopathy

A

crescentic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Half life formula in terms of clearance and Vd

A

t = 0.7Vd/Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

6MP metabolized by what enzyme

A

xanthine oxidase – that’s why you must be careful when using with allopurinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

advanced HIV

CMV retinitis

given drug causing hypomag and hypocalcemia

what’s the drug

A

foscarnet (note that ganciclovir is first line but can’t be given because of neutropenic side effects)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

1st or second gen antihistamine

benadryl

chlorpheniramine

promethazine

fexofenadine

hydroxyzine

A

benadryl: 1st
chlorpheniramine: 1st
promethazine: 1st
fexofenadine: 2nd
hydroxyzine: 1st

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Uremic bleeding

What labs will you see

A

normal aPTT, PT, Plt count

elevated bleeding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What non-psych drugs can contribute to serotonin syndrome

A

linezolid

ondansetron

triptans

tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

severe hyperK after administering muscle relaxant

A

succinylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Check what lab before initiating therapy with canagliflozin and other SGLT1 inhibitors

A

BUN and Cr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

benzo mechanism

A

bind allosterically to GABA_A receptor increasing frequency of ion channel opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

comedocarcinoma is subtype of what cancer

A

DCIS

124
Q

Patient in MVA given med to relieve cerebral edema and subsequently develops pulmonary edema and dies. What’s the med?

A

mannitol or other osmotic diuretic

125
Q

Does colchicine inhibit leukocyte production or function

A

function

126
Q

INH requires processing by what enzyme to be activated

A

catalase peroxidase

127
Q

Med treats HTN emergency, increases renal perfusion and promotes sodium excretion

A

fenoldopan

128
Q

Effect of fluorinated anesthetics on cerebral and hepatic blood flow

A

increased cerebral

decreased hepatic

129
Q

if someone is experiencing anticholinergic side effects, is it due to muscarinic or nicotinic receptors

A

muscarinic

130
Q

antiarrhythmic that targets ischemic myocardium

A

lidocaine and other 1B drugs

131
Q

leurolide mechanism

effect on testosterone and DHT levels after initiation of therapy

A

GnRH agonist

initial increase in both followed by decrease in both

132
Q

Alveolar cells containing golden cytoplasmic granules that turk dark blue on Prussian blue staining.

What are the granules and what is the disease

A

hemosiderin

heart failure

133
Q

anti-TB drug causing red body fluids

what’s the mechanism of action

A

rifampin inhibits DNA transcription

134
Q

impact of statins on LDL receptor density

A

increases

135
Q

what two antifungals bind ergosterol

A

amphotericin B

nystatin

136
Q

oseltamivir mechanism

A

neuraminidase inhibitor decreases release of virions

137
Q

thiopental levels in brain rapidly decrease. why?

A

redistribution to skeletal muscle and fat

138
Q

Antiarrhythmics causing torsades

name 4

A

dofetilide and sotelol

procainamide and quinidine

139
Q

TB drug causing vision changes

What’s the mechanism

A

ethambutol inhibits carbohydrate polymerization

140
Q

Which cell count increases following glucocorticoid administration

A

neutrophil

141
Q

Left or right side CRC manifests as obstruction?

How does each side typically present?

A

left

left side presents with constipation, distention, nausea, etc

right side presents with anemia, fatigue, weight loss

142
Q

Which lipid med increases triglycerides

A

cholestyramine

143
Q

doxorubicin causes what specific cardiac abnormality

A

DCM

144
Q

how to prevent doxorubicin cardio-toxicity

A

dexrezoxane

145
Q

what lipid med can reduce warfarin effectiveness

A

cholestyramine

146
Q

What drugs increase lithium toxicity

A

ACE-I

Thiazides

NSAID

“ATN”

147
Q

Class I antiarrhythmic affinity for sodium channel

A

C > A > B

148
Q

Protein production in what organ increases in response to glucocorticoids

A

liver

149
Q

Adding this to a statin increases risk of myopathy

A

fibrate

150
Q

combination of what two lipid drugs most increases risk of gallstones

A

fibrate and bile acid sequestrant

151
Q

etanercept mechanism

A

TNF-alpha decoy receptor

152
Q

How to distinguish succinylcholine from other muscle relxants using train of 4

A

if all the bars are initially equal in height, it’s succinylcholine

153
Q

TB stops being acid fast after exposure to what drug

A

INH (stops mycolic acid synthesis)

154
Q

Beta agonist smooth muscle signaling mechanism

A

cAMP

155
Q

Never use what to treat alcohol withdrawal

A

carbamezapine

156
Q

hypothyroidism is side effect of what psychiatric drug

A

lithium

157
Q

stimulation of this pancreatic receptor decreases insulin secretion

A

alpha (everything else increases it)

158
Q

electrophoresis of bug exposed to ceftriaxone in presence of beta-lactamase shows how many bands

A

0

159
Q

atropine affects muscarinic, nicotinic or both

A

muscarinic

160
Q

antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

pralidoxime

161
Q

Lung cell responsible for regeneration of alveolar epithelial lining after injury

A

Type II pneumocytes

162
Q

p24 associated with what HIV gene

A

gag

163
Q

DNA methylation responsible for what genetic phenomenon

A

imprinting

164
Q

Do neural crest cells migrate to the rectum

A

yes

165
Q

Last cell type to disappear in as airway progress distally along the respiratory tube

  1. cilia
  2. goblet cells
  3. mucous glands
  4. serous glands
  5. cartilage
A

cilia

166
Q

RPGN: which substance forms the crescent?

A) IgE

B) C4

C Fibrin

D) Thyroglobulin

E) Pyrogenic exotoxin B

A

Fibrin

167
Q

Which of the following is stratified squamous?

  1. paranasal sinuses
  2. laryngeal vestibule
  3. false vocal cords
  4. true vocal cords
  5. tracheal bifurcation
A

True vocal cords – all the other are ciliated pseudostratified columnar

168
Q

Tendency for study subjects to change behavior when they know they’re being studied

A

Hawthorne effect

169
Q

Enhancer location relative to transcribed gene

A

anywhere!

170
Q

Acute rejection: mostly T or B cells

A

T

171
Q

what structure connects osteocytes

A

gap junctions

172
Q

CNS cells that lipid-stain most intensely after ischemic infarct

A

microglia (it’s eating up the myelin)

173
Q

parietal cells located in what layer of stomach

A

upper glandular layer

174
Q

Faster conduction velocity: atria or ventricles

A

atria

175
Q

Rathke’s pouch derived from what embryonal cell line

A

surface ectoderm

176
Q

radial head subluxation (Nursemaid’s elbow) involves stress/tear of what ligament

A

annular ligament

177
Q

Very long chain fatty acids metabolized in what organelle

A

peroxisome

178
Q

Patient with ASD: which change is irreversible

pulmonary HTN or RVH

A

pulmonary HTN

179
Q

neutropenic patient with ecthyma gangrenosum has what infection

A

pseudomonas

180
Q

poison ivy reaction mediated by what cell type

A

T cell (it’s type IV hypersensitivity)

181
Q

water deprivation test: discriminate between central DI and polydipsia

A

the osmolality will increase in polydipsia before the ADH is given

182
Q

defective gene in ataxia telangiectasia and result

A

ATM – defective DNA break repair

183
Q

median nerve goes between what muscles before reaching the wrist

A

flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus

184
Q

Croup most common cause

A

paraflu aka paramyxovirus

185
Q

Where in the nephron does uric acid precipitate

A

collecting tubule (lowest pH)

186
Q

Elastic property of elastin is due to what biochemical structural attribute

A

lysine cross-linking

187
Q

Most important factor in preventing flu infection despite prolonged exposure to ill contacts

A

circulating antibodies against hemagglutinin

188
Q

cell origin of melanocytes

A

neural crest

189
Q

Name the virulence factor for each of these E Coli presentations:

Bacteremia:

Neonatal meningitis:

Bloody gastro:

Watery gastro:

UTI:

A

Bacteremia: LPS

Neonatal meningitis: K1 capsular polysaccharide

Bloody gastro: Shiga-like toxin

Watery gastro: Heat-stable/labile enterotoxin

UTI: Fimbrial antigen

190
Q

Most common cause of monosomy X

A

mitotic error causing loss of parental chromosome

191
Q

DNA abnormality causing Fragile X

A

gene methylation

192
Q

urine H2PO4 in DKA: elevated or depressed

A

elevated

193
Q

Immune cells responsible for containing TB

A

CD4+ T lymphocytes and macrophages

194
Q

end product of sorbitol metabolism in healthy individuals

A

fructose

195
Q

RF is IgM antibody specific for what

A

Fc portion of IgG

196
Q

Crohn’s pt rx w/ infliximab develops joint pains, skin rash, vasculitis ten days after starting med. What’s the dx?

A

serum sickness w/ associated low complement levels

197
Q

Calories per gram of

carbs:

protein:

EtOH:

fat:

A

carbs: 4
protein: 4

EtOH: 7

fat: 9

198
Q

absorption or excretion of bilirubin uses active transport?

A

excretion

199
Q

Candida antigen test evaluates T or B cell function

A

T

200
Q

Thyroid hormone receptors are located where (in/on the cell)

A

in the nucleus

201
Q

what leukocyte predominates in sarcoid

A

CD4+ T helper cells

202
Q

How does DDAVP stop bleeding: vasoconstriction or increase in endothelial protein release?

A

increase in endothelial protein release (likely von Willebrand disease)

203
Q

old person with blurry vision and gray sub-retinal membrane

What’s the dx and tx

A

Wet macular degeneration

Treat with anti-VEGF

204
Q

What substance is required to trigger release of ACh from presynaptic terminal at NMJ

A

Calcium

205
Q

Vitamin deficiency manifesting as failure to carboxylate glutamate residues in the liver

A

Vit K deficiency

206
Q

5 yo boy w/ bilateral lens subluxation and multiple infarcts

Dx and Tx?

A

Homocysteinuria

Treat with pyridoxine

207
Q

Which has lower oxygen concentration: PA or coronary sinus

A

coronary sinus

208
Q

cytokine that mediates pus accumulation

A

IL-8 (responsible for neutrophil chemotaxis)

209
Q

Nitrous oxide is derivative of what amino acid

A

arginine

210
Q

pantothenic acid is fancy name for what

A

CoA

211
Q

Anti-convulsant also used in tremor. May lead to elevated phenobarbital levels

A

primidone

212
Q

Middle meningeal artery is branch of what artery

A

maxillary

213
Q

Cause of wrinkles in normal aging

A

decreased collagen fibril production

214
Q

How does silicosis predispose to TB infection

A

impaired macrophage killing

215
Q

What phases of SA and AV node depolarization involve calcium

A

Mostly phase 0 but also phase 4 (which is mostly about sodium)

216
Q

mifepristone mechanism

A

anti-progestin

217
Q

morphine effect on ion channels

A

increases K efflux –> hyperpolarization

218
Q

tx for acute intermittent porphyria results in downregulation of what enzyme

A

delta-aminolevulinate synthase

219
Q

Large cell in TB

What’s the name and what causes it to form

A

Langhans giant cell

formed by CD4+ Th1 cells

220
Q

Where is rRNA produced

A

nucleolus

221
Q

rubella caused by what virus

A

togavirus

222
Q

Order DNA base excision repair start to finish

ligase, glycosylase, endonuclease, DNA polymerase, lyase

A

glycosylaste

endonuclease

lyase

DNA polymerase

ligase

223
Q

how does glucose down-regulate lac operon

A

decreased cAMP –> CAP does not bind the operon

224
Q

Oral vaccine more likely to elicit this class and location of antibody

A

IgA in the gut

225
Q

eosinophil response to parasites: antibody mediated or not?

A

antibody mediated

226
Q

Mono-like illness with negative monospot

A

CMV

227
Q

Can prevent tumor lysis syndrome: probenecid or rasburicase

A

rasburicase – probenecid is contraindicated in patients at risk of nephrolithiasis or uric acid nephropathy

228
Q

hyperaldosteronism: bicarb is high or low

A

high – aldosterone increases acid secretion which results in increased bicarb resorption

(OR, just know the patient is hypoK which almost always implies met alk)

229
Q

Blood type antibody class (e.g. anti-A) by maternal blood type

Mom is type A:

Mom is type B

Mom is type O:

A

Mom is type A: IgM

Mom is type B: IgM

Mom is type O: IgG

230
Q

What causes insulin resistance: high LDL or high free fatty acids

A

high free fatty acids

231
Q

Function and location in ribosomes:

16S rRNA:

23S rRNA:

A

16S rRNA: complementary to mRNA, located in 30S subunit

23S rRNA: facilitates peptide bond formation, located in 50S subunit

232
Q

acyclovir mechanism

A

incorporates into viral DNA and terminate DNA synthesis

233
Q

Atypical lymphs in mono:
B or T?
CD?

A

CD8+ cytotoxic T lymphocytes

234
Q

anemia, hypercoagulability, pancytopenia suggests what?

CD_ and CD_ will be deficient

A

PNH 2/2 complement activation

CD55 and CD59 deficient

235
Q

High fructose 2,6-bisphosphate: favors glycolysis or gluconeogenesis

A

glycolysis

236
Q

The following tissue types have glucose transporters that are insulin-sensitive:

What’s the name of the glucose transporter:

A

skeletal muscle and adipocytes contain GLUT4

237
Q

Which luekocyte prevents disseminated candidiasis

A

neutrophils

238
Q

punch biopsy

stellar cells with characteristic intracytoplasmic granules shaped like tennis racket

demonstrate some myeloid surface markers and interact closely with T lymphocytes

A

langerhans cells

239
Q

entacapone and tolcapone mechanism

A

COMT inhibitors prevent peripheral conversion of DA, increasing the quantity that reaches the brain

240
Q

vWF binds what two substances

A

platelet glycoproteins and subendothelial collagen

241
Q

Cell lineage

anterior pituitary:

posterior pituitary:

A

anterior pituitary: oral ectoderm (Rathke’s pouch)

posterior pituitary: neuroectoderm

242
Q

2 nitrate side effects

A

HA and flushing

243
Q

Why is chlamydia is resistant to beta lactams

A

cell wall doesn’t contain peptidoglycan

244
Q

Etoposide targets topoisomerase I or II

A

II

245
Q

TB drug requiring acidic environment

A

pyrazinamide

246
Q

Rb gene functions properly when hypo- or hyperphosphorylated

A

hypo-

247
Q

Distinguish T-cell and B-cell ALL based on clinical presentation

A

mediastinal mass = T cell

248
Q

radiation kills cancer cells how?

A

double strand breaks in DNA

249
Q

Stool sample finding suggestive of strongyloides stercoralis

A

rhabditiform larvae in stool

250
Q

Mature B lymphs exposed to a virus gain the ability to propogate indefinitely in vitro and still secrete immunoglobulins. What’s the virus

A

EBV

251
Q

Most effective at prolonging time to HSV-2 recurrence: short or lifelong acyclovir

A

LIFELONG

252
Q

Young woman with headaches complains of lump in throat. PE and workup unrevealing

A

globus hystericus

253
Q

DNA fragmentation into multiples of 180 bases on electropheresis

A

apoptosis

254
Q

Genetic disease present in offspring but not in parents or relatives

A

germline mosaicism

255
Q

structure most likely to be injured in A/P knee dislocation

A

popliteal artery

256
Q

bacteria in endometritis

A

b frag

257
Q

Reflection vs facilitation

A

reflection paraphrases what’s been said. facilitation encourages continued discussion

258
Q

splenectomy in hereditary spherocytosis prevents what complication

A

gallstones

259
Q

chemical modification to carboxy-terminal anchor of transmembrane protein

A

palmitoylation

260
Q

Impact of nitrates on HR and LV end systolic volume

A

HR increases

LVESV decreases

261
Q

function of CFTR in sweat glands and respiratory epithelium

A

sweat: reabsorb NaCl
respiratory: secrete Cl

262
Q

Defn of allelic heterogeneity

A

different mutations on same locus cause similar presentation

classic example: Duchenne and Becker multiple dystrophy

263
Q

prohormone peptide molecule has signal sequence with hydrophobic core. large deletion of the core would result in protein accumulation where

A

cytosol

264
Q

increased branch-chain alpha-keto acids in blood and urine. what enzyme is deficient and what cofactor does it depend on

A

maple syrup urine disease:

alpha keto acid dehydrogenase requires thiamine

265
Q

abnormal testosterone concentration in seminiferous tubules and epididymis but normal T in rest of body. what structure is messed up

A

sertoli cells (not leydig)

266
Q

messenger system for glucagon in hepatocytes

A

Gs and cAMP

267
Q

axillary sweating: cervical or thoracic sympathetic ganglia

A

thoracic

268
Q

red safranin O stains what

A

cartilage, mast cells and mucin

269
Q

what connects to the gubernaculum in females

A

round ligament

270
Q

platelet activating factor effects and messenger system

A

primary effect: platelet aggregation

toxicities: bronchoconstriction, vasoconstriction, thrombi

messenger system: Gq / IP3

271
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta decreases synthesis of what

A

collagen

272
Q

how does lactulose treat hepatic encephalopathy

A

acidifies intestinal contents by converting NH3 to NH4+

273
Q

bone abnormality in Vit D deficiency: spongy or osteoid

A

osteoid

274
Q

What nerve fibers are unmyelinated

A

autonomic postganglionic axons

afferent sensory heat and slow-onset pain

275
Q

What HLA II component is digested during antigen presentation

A

invariant chain

276
Q

pleiotropy vs genetic heterogeneity

A

pleitropy: one gene has multiple effects

genetic heterogeneity: multiple genes (at different loci) have the same effect

277
Q

ergosterol: lipid or peptidoglycan

A

lipid

278
Q

ATN affects cortex or medulla

A

medulla

279
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia: decreased LDL receptors or decreased lipoprotein lipase

A

decreased LDL

280
Q

GI sx w/ spots around mouth

A

Peutz Jegher

281
Q

Lithium: central or peripheral DI

A

peripheral

282
Q

Adding amniotic fluid to ethanol and looking for foam is a test for what substance

A

surfactant

283
Q

What characteristic of heparin makes it safer than warfarin in pregnancy

A

Higher water solubility

284
Q

Main bacterial factor responsible for establishing gonococcal infxn

A

pilus

285
Q

Mechanism by which viruses get transferred from animals to humans

A

genetic reassortment

286
Q

Which is cause of Graves opthalmopathy:

1) neutrophil infiltration of retrobulbar tissue
2) glycosaminoglycan synthesis by fibroblasts

A

2)

287
Q

Vitamin C deficiency can cause presentation similar to what genetic disorder

A

Ehlers Danlos

288
Q

Nodules in liver cirrhosis are due to what cells proliferating

A

hepatocytes

289
Q

50S methylation promotes resistance to macrolides or chloramphenicol

A

macrolides

290
Q

What causes lactase deficiency

A

decreased gene expression

291
Q

flat affect, hypersexuality, hyperphagia: what brain structure

A

amygdala

292
Q

cyclosporin mechanism

A

block IL-2 transcription

293
Q

What causes tardive dyskinesia:

decreased dopamine sensitivity

upregulation of DA receptors

A

upregulation of DA receptors: results in loss of cholinergic tone

294
Q

What’s increased in COPD: residual volume or expiratory reserve volume

A

residual volume

295
Q

carbonic anhydrase is necessary for what function in bone

A

osteoclast activity – needed for bone remodeling

296
Q

eosinophilic round inclusion in hippocampal neurons

painful pharyngeal spasms

A

rabies

297
Q

Matching:

Superior rectal vein/IMA and inferior rectal vein

Liver mets and lung mets

A

Liver mets: IMA

Lung mets: inferior rectal vein

298
Q

phosphorylation of PFK2-FBPase promotes glycolysis or gluconeogenesis

A

gluconeogenesis (phosphorylation caused by glucagon)

299
Q

Insulin upregulates or downregulates PFK2

A

upregulates (promoting glycolysis)

300
Q

Giardia vs E hystolytica on microscopy

A

both have trophozoites but in E hysto they contain RBCs

301
Q

Solid onc patient found to have nephrotic syndrome. whats the cause

A

membranous GN

302
Q

site of APO B100 and APO B48 synthesis

A

100: hepatocytes
48: intestinal cells

303
Q

Methylmalonic acidemia occurs when what reaction type is deficient

A

isomerization

304
Q

Defective enzyme in maple syrup urine requires what substance as cofactor

A

thiamine (keto acid dehydrogenase rxn)

305
Q

MCC of recurrent lobar hemorrhages

A

cerebral amyloid angiopathy

306
Q

opsoclonus-myoclonus associated with what malignancy

A

neuroblastoma

UWorld Wrong (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions