Misc Flashcards
What is the drug class of amlodipine?
Calcium channel blocker and vasodilator.
What is the mechanism of action of amlodipine?
Inhibits calcium entry into smooth muscle cells
How is amlodipine administered?
Orally (PO).
What is amlodipine commonly used to treat?
Systemic hypertension.
What are important considerations when using amlodipine?
Monitor for signs of hypotension and bradycardia.
What is the drug class of enalapril?
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor.
What is the mechanism of action of enalapril?
Blocks angiotensin II formation
How is enalapril administered?
Orally (PO).
What are the common indications for enalapril?
Used as a vasodilator in congestive heart failure (CHF) and for systemic hypertension.
What additional conditions can enalapril be used to treat?
Chronic renal failure (CRF) and protein-losing nephropathy (PLN).
What should be monitored when using enalapril?
Blood pressure
What is the drug class of furosemide?
Loop diuretic.
What is the mechanism of action of furosemide?
Acts in the thick ascending loop of Henle to inhibit sodium (Na) and chloride (Cl) reabsorption.
How is furosemide administered?
Orally (PO) or intravenously (IV).
What are the common indications for furosemide?
Used in CHF to reduce pulmonary edema
What are important side effects of furosemide?
Can cause fluid and electrolyte imbalances and azotemia.
What should be monitored when using furosemide?
Hydration status and blood work values.
What is a key clinical tip for owners when prescribing furosemide?
Advise that pets will urinate more frequently and must have access to fresh water at all times.
What is the drug class of lidocaine?
Antiarrhythmic (Class 1B) and local anesthetic.
What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?
Binds to and inhibits voltage-gated sodium channels.
How is lidocaine administered for cardiac indications?
Intravenously (IV) or regional infusion.
What cardiac condition is lidocaine commonly used to treat?
Ventricular tachyarrhythmias.
What are the non-cardiac indications for lidocaine?
Used as a local anesthetic for analgesia.
When should lidocaine be used cautiously?
In patients with hepatic disease.
What electrolyte imbalance can decrease the efficacy of lidocaine?
Hypokalemia.
What is the drug class of pimobendan?
Inotropic drug with vasodilatory properties.
What is the mechanism of action of pimobendan?
Calcium sensitizer and selective phosphodiesterase-3 (PDE3) inhibitor.
How is pimobendan administered?
Orally (PO).
What are the primary indications for pimobendan?
Used as adjunctive therapy in CHF secondary to DCM and mitral valve disease.
In which species is pimobendan not FDA-approved?
Cats.
In which cardiac condition is pimobendan contraindicated?
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM).
What additional precaution should be taken when using pimobendan?
Use with caution in cases of arrhythmias.
What is the drug class of spironolactone?
Aldosterone competitive antagonist.
What is the mechanism of action of spironolactone?
Competitively inhibits aldosterone at the distal renal tubules.
How is spironolactone administered?
Orally (PO).
What are the common indications for spironolactone?
Used as a diuretic in CHF and in renal conditions such as nephrotic syndrome.
Why is spironolactone considered a weak diuretic?
It is often used in combination with more potent diuretics.
Why should potassium levels be monitored when using spironolactone?
Spironolactone is potassium-sparing and can cause hyperkalemia.
What is the definitive host for Dipylidium caninum?
Dogs and cats.
Where in the host does Dipylidium caninum reside?
Small intestine.
What are the common clinical signs of Dipylidium caninum infection?
Often asymptomatic
How is Dipylidium caninum transmitted?
Ingestion of an infected intermediate host (fleas or lice).
What diagnostic method is most commonly used to identify Dipylidium caninum?
Visualization of proglottid segments in feces
Why is fecal flotation not a reliable diagnostic method for Dipylidium caninum?
Eggs do not consistently float
How can Dipylidium caninum infection be prevented?
Prevent ingestion of intermediate hosts by ensuring adequate flea and lice control.
Is Dipylidium caninum zoonotic?
Yes
What are the treatment options for Dipylidium caninum?
Praziquantel and epsiprantel.
What is the most common species of Taenia in dogs?
Taenia pisiformis.
What is the most common species of Taenia in cats?
Taenia taeniaeformis.
What are the intermediate hosts for Taenia pisiformis and Taenia taeniaeformis?
Rabbits for T. pisiformis and rodents for T. taeniaeformis.
What are the common clinical signs of Taenia spp. infection?
Usually asymptomatic
How is Taenia spp. transmitted?
Ingestion of infected intermediate host tissue containing cysticerci (T. pisiformis) or strobilocerci (T. taeniaeformis).
What diagnostic methods are used for Taenia spp.?
Identification of proglottids in feces and fecal flotation with high specific gravity.
Why can fecal flotation be unreliable for diagnosing Taenia spp.?
Proglottids are not uniformly distributed in feces
Why is it difficult to distinguish Taenia eggs from Echinococcus eggs under a microscope?
Their eggs are morphologically identical.
How can Taenia spp. infections be prevented?
Prevent predatory activities and ingestion of intermediate hosts.
What are the treatment options for Taenia spp.?
Praziquantel
What are the two main species of Echinococcus that affect dogs and cats?
Echinococcus granulosus and Echinococcus multilocularis.
What is the definitive host for Echinococcus granulosus?
Dogs.
What is the definitive host for Echinococcus multilocularis?
Dogs and cats.
What are the intermediate hosts for Echinococcus spp.?
Ungulates for E. granulosus and rodents for E. multilocularis.
How do definitive hosts become infected with Echinococcus spp.?
By ingesting intermediate hosts containing hydatid cysts (E. granulosus) or multilocular cysts (E. multilocularis).
What is the main clinical sign associated with Echinococcus spp. infection?
Usually asymptomatic
Why is diagnosing Echinococcus spp. difficult?
Proglottids are very small and require specialized testing (CELISA or PCR) for confirmation.
Why is fecal flotation unreliable for diagnosing Echinococcus spp.?
Echinococcus eggs are not distinguishable from Taenia eggs under a microscope.
What are the treatment options for Echinococcus spp.?
Praziquantel.
Is Echinococcus spp. zoonotic?
Yes
What is the active ingredient in Frontline Top Spot?
Fipronil.
What parasites does Frontline Top Spot target?
Fleas
What is the application method for Frontline Top Spot?
Topical once monthly for fleas
What species can Frontline Top Spot be used on?
Dogs and cats.
Why should Frontline Top Spot not be used in rabbits?
Fipronil is toxic to rabbits.
What additional ingredient does Frontline Plus contain compared to Frontline Top Spot?
S-methoprene.
What is the role of S-methoprene in Frontline Plus?
It is an insect growth regulator (IGR) that prevents flea eggs from developing.
What is the active ingredient in Advantage II?
Imidacloprid and Pyriproxyfen.
What parasites does Advantage II target?
Fleas and lice.
What is the application method for Advantage II?
Topical once monthly.
What species can Advantage II be used on?
Dogs and cats.
What is the difference between Advantage Multi and Advantage II?
Advantage Multi contains Moxidectin
What is the active ingredient in Revolution?
Selamectin.
What parasites does Revolution treat in dogs?
Fleas
What parasites does Revolution treat in cats?
Fleas
What is the application method for Revolution?
Topical once monthly; every two weeks for sarcoptic mange and ear mites.
What is the active ingredient in Bravecto?
Fluralaner.
What is the application method for Bravecto?
Oral every 12 weeks (dogs); topical every 12 weeks (cats).
What is the active ingredient in Nexgard?
Afoxolaner.
What is the application method for Nexgard?
Oral once monthly.
What is a common side effect of Nexgard?
Vomiting
What is the active ingredient in Comfortis?
Spinosad.
Why should Comfortis not be used with ivermectin?
It increases the risk of neurotoxicity.
What is the active ingredient in Capstar?
Nitenpyram.
What is the primary use of Capstar?
Kills adult fleas rapidly but has no residual effect.
How is Capstar administered?
Oral or rectal
What is the active ingredient in Seresto collars?
Flumethrin and Imidacloprid.
How long does a Seresto collar provide flea and tick protection?
8 months.
What is the active ingredient in Sentinel?
Milbemycin and Lufenuron.
What is the function of Lufenuron in Sentinel?
It inhibits flea development but does not kill adult fleas.
What is the active ingredient in Trifexis?
Spinosad and Milbemycin Oxime.
What parasites does Trifexis target?
Fleas
What is the most common side effect of Trifexis?
Vomiting
Why is permethrin contraindicated in cats?
It is highly toxic to cats and can cause severe neurotoxicity.
What is the drug class of famotidine?
H2 receptor antagonist.
How is famotidine administered?
PO
What is famotidine commonly used for?
Reducing acid production in various GI cases.
What are the two primary uses of lactulose?
Stool softener and ammonia reducer.
How is lactulose administered?
Orally (PO).
In addition to constipation
what other condition is lactulose used for?
What is the drug class of maropitant?
NK1 (Neurokinin) receptor antagonist.
What is the mechanism of action of maropitant?
Blocks substance P to prevent vomiting.
How is maropitant administered?
PO (tablets)
What are the two labeled indications for maropitant?
Treatment and prevention of acute vomiting; prevention of motion sickness.
Why should Cerenia be used cautiously in foreign body obstruction cases?
It may mask vomiting
What is a common side effect of SC maropitant injection
and how can it be reduced?
What are the two main effects of metoclopramide?
GI prokinetic and antiemetic.
How is metoclopramide administered?
IV
What are the common indications for metoclopramide?
Gastric motility disorders
When should metoclopramide be avoided?
GI obstruction
Why should injectable metoclopramide be protected from light?
It is light-sensitive.
Why should metoclopramide IV compatibility be checked before administration?
It may be incompatible with other IV therapeutics.
What is the drug class of metronidazole?
Nitroimidazole antibiotic and antiparasitic agent.
How is metronidazole administered?
PO or IV.
What are the primary indications for metronidazole?
Giardia and other protozoal infections
What is the mechanism of action of metronidazole?
Inhibits nucleic acid synthesis by disrupting microbial DNA.
What is a major side effect of metronidazole
particularly at high doses?
How should metronidazole dosing be adjusted in patients with liver disease?
The dose should be reduced.
Why is metronidazole often compounded into a flavored suspension?
It has a very bitter taste.
Why should injectable metronidazole be protected from light?
It is light-sensitive.
What is the drug class of mirtazapine?
Tetracyclic antidepressant; 5-HT3 antagonist.
What is mirtazapine primarily used for in veterinary medicine?
Appetite stimulation.
How is mirtazapine administered?
PO or transdermally.
What is the feline transdermal form of mirtazapine called?
Mirataz.
Why should mirtazapine not be used with MAOIs or SSRIs?
It may cause serotonin syndrome.
What is the typical dosing interval for mirtazapine?
Every 72 hours.
What drug class do omeprazole and pantoprazole belong to?
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs).
How is omeprazole administered?
PO.
How is pantoprazole administered?
IV.
What is the primary indication for omeprazole and pantoprazole?
Reducing gastric acid secretion in GI disorders.
What is the drug class of ondansetron?
5-HT3 receptor antagonist.
How is ondansetron administered?
IV or PO.
What is the primary indication for ondansetron?
Antiemetic for vomiting cases.
What veterinary specialty commonly uses ondansetron?
Oncology
Why should ondansetron IV compatibility be checked before administration?
It may be incompatible with other drugs.
What unexpected condition can ondansetron help treat in brachycephalic breeds?
Sleep apnea.
What is the drug class of sucralfate?
Gastroprotectant.
How is sucralfate administered?
PO.
What is sucralfate primarily used for?
Protection against GI ulceration.
Why should sucralfate not be given within two hours of food or other medications?
It can interfere with drug absorption.
How is sucralfate commonly administered to patients?
Tablets are crushed
What is the definitive host for Toxocara canis?
Dogs.
What is the definitive host for Toxocara cati?
Cats.
Where do Toxocara spp. reside in their hosts?
Small intestine.
What is the most common mode of transmission for Toxocara canis?
Transplacental (transuterine) transmission.
What is the zoonotic significance of Toxocara spp.?
Toxocara canis is associated with visceral larval migrans in humans.
How is Toxocara diagnosed?
Fecal flotation.
What are common treatment options for Toxocara infections?
Fenbendazole
What is the common name for Ancylostoma spp.?
Hookworms.
Which Ancylostoma species infects dogs?
Ancylostoma caninum.
Which Ancylostoma species infects cats?
Ancylostoma tubaeforme.
What are the clinical signs of Ancylostoma infection?
Diarrhea
What is the zoonotic significance of Ancylostoma?
It causes cutaneous larval migrans in humans.
How is Ancylostoma diagnosed?
Fecal flotation.
What are common treatment options for Ancylostoma infections?
Fenbendazole
What is the common name for Trichuris spp.?
Whipworms.
Which Trichuris species infects dogs?
Trichuris vulpis.
Where does Trichuris vulpis reside in the host?
Cecum.
What are the clinical signs of Trichuris infection?
Diarrhea
Why can Trichuris infections be difficult to diagnose?
Intermittent shedding and low egg numbers make fecal flotation unreliable.
What are the recommended treatments for Trichuris infections?
Fenbendazole (3 days
What is the transmission route for Uncinaria stenocephala?
Oral ingestion of eggs (most common).
What are the treatment options for Uncinaria stenocephala?
Pyrantel pamoate
Which nematode species is more common in growing puppies and kittens?
Toxocara spp.
What is the drug class of Proparacaine HCL?
Ocular anesthetic.
How is Proparacaine HCL administered?
Topically applied to the cornea.
What is Proparacaine HCL commonly used for?
Used before procedures that might cause ocular discomfort
Why should the Schirmer Tear Test (STT) be performed before administering Proparacaine?
Topical anesthesia can affect STT results.
What is the drug class of Tropicamide?
Mydriatic-cycloplegic vasoconstrictor.
How is Tropicamide administered?
Topically applied to the cornea.
What is Tropicamide commonly used for?
Dilating pupils to facilitate fundic examination.
What is a contraindication of Tropicamide?
May cause acute congestive glaucoma in predisposed patients.
What is the drug class of Atropine Sulfate?
Mydriatic-cycloplegic vasoconstrictor.
How is Atropine Sulfate administered?
Topically applied to the cornea.
What is Atropine Sulfate used for?
Controls pain due to corneal and uveal disease by relaxing ciliary muscle spasm.
What is a contraindication for Atropine Sulfate?
Glaucoma patients.
What is the drug class of Flurbiprofen?
Topical ophthalmic NSAID.
What is Flurbiprofen used for?
Uveal inflammation.
Why is Flurbiprofen contraindicated in corneal ulcers?
It has possible immunosuppressive effects.
What is the drug class of Prednisolone Acetate?
Steroidal anti-inflammatory ophthalmic agent.
What is Prednisolone Acetate commonly used for?
Anterior uveitis and steroid-responsive inflammatory eye conditions.
Why should a fluorescein stain be done before prescribing Prednisolone Acetate?
To rule out corneal ulcers
What is the drug class of Timolol Maleate?
Beta adrenergic antagonist.
What is Timolol Maleate used for?
Decreasing intraocular pressure in glaucoma cases.
Why should Timolol Maleate be used cautiously in CHF or feline asthma patients?
It has beta-blocker properties that can affect cardiovascular and respiratory function.
What is the drug class of Dorzolamide HCL?
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor.
How does Dorzolamide HCL reduce intraocular pressure?
By decreasing aqueous humor production.
What is a common side effect of Dorzolamide HCL?
Stinging upon application.
What is the drug class of Latanoprost?
Prostaglandin F2 alpha analog.
What is Latanoprost used for?
Decreasing intraocular pressure in primary glaucoma cases.
What are common side effects of Latanoprost?
Topical irritation
How should Latanoprost be stored?
Refrigerate until opened and protect from light.
What is the drug class of Tobramycin?
Aminoglycoside antibiotic.
What type of infections is Tobramycin used for?
Gram-negative infections such as Pseudomonas
What is the drug class of Ofloxacin?
Fluoroquinolone antibiotic.
What is Ofloxacin used for?
Gram-negative bacterial eye infections.
What is the drug class of Erythromycin?
Macrolide antibiotic.
What is Erythromycin used for?
Gram-positive infections such as Mycoplasma spp.
What is the drug class of Oxytetracycline?
Tetracycline antibiotic.
What is Oxytetracycline commonly used for?
Conjunctivitis due to Chlamydia and Mycoplasma.
What is the drug class of Bacitracin Zinc/Neomycin/Polymyxin B Sulfate?
Broad-spectrum antibiotic agent.
What are the indications for Bacitracin Zinc/Neomycin/Polymyxin B Sulfate?
Canine conjunctivitis and prophylactic use in corneal ulcers.
Why should Bacitracin Zinc/Neomycin/Polymyxin B Sulfate be avoided in cats?
Neomycin can cause allergic reactions and anaphylaxis in cats.
What is the drug class of Cyclosporine?
Immunosuppressant.
What is Cyclosporine used for?
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS) and pannus in German Shepherds.
What is the drug class of Tacrolimus?
Macrolide antibiotic with immunomodulating properties.
What is Tacrolimus used for?
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS).
How does Tacrolimus stimulate tear production?
Exact mechanism is unknown.
What is the drug class of Synotic Otic Solution?
Corticosteroid.
What are the active ingredients in Synotic Otic Solution?
Fluocinolone and DMSO.
What is Synotic Otic Solution used for?
Acute or chronic allergic otitis.
What is the drug class of Baytril Otic?
Quinolone antibiotic.
What are the active ingredients in Baytril Otic?
Enrofloxacin and Silver Sulfadiazine.
What is Baytril Otic used for?
Bacterial otitis caused by Pseudomonas spp.
Why is culture and sensitivity testing recommended before using Baytril Otic?
To guide bacterial otitis treatment.
What is the drug class of Posatex?
Combination antifungal
What are the active ingredients in Posatex?
Posaconazole
What is Posatex used for?
Canine otitis externa caused by Malassezia pachydermatis
Why should Posatex not be used if tympanic membranes are not intact?
Risk of ototoxicity.
What are the active ingredients in Mometamax?
Gentamicin
What is Mometamax used for?
Canine otitis externa caused by Malassezia pachydermatis
Why should Gentamicin-containing ear medications be used cautiously?
Gentamicin is known to be ototoxic.
What are the active ingredients in Surolan Otic Suspension?
Miconazole nitrate
What is Surolan used for?
Canine otitis externa caused by Malassezia pachydermatis and Staphylococcus pseudintermedius.
Why should Surolan not be used if tympanic membranes are not intact?
Risk of ototoxicity.
What are the active ingredients in Tresaderm?
Neomycin
What is Tresaderm used for?
Bacterial
What is a key storage requirement for Tresaderm?
Store in the refrigerator.
Why should Tresaderm be avoided in patients sensitive to neomycin?
Some patients may have hypersensitivity reactions to neomycin.
What is the drug class of Claro?
Combination antibiotic
What are the active ingredients in Claro?
Florfenicol
What is Claro used for?
Canine otitis externa caused by Malassezia pachydermatis and Staphylococcus pseudintermedius.
How often is Claro administered?
Single-use treatment regimen.
What is the drug class of Osurnia?
Combination antibiotic
What are the active ingredients in Osurnia?
Florfenicol
What is Osurnia used for?
Canine otitis externa caused by Malassezia pachydermatis and Staphylococcus pseudintermedius.
How is Osurnia administered?
Applied in-clinic after ear cleaning; requires a second application one week later.
Why should Osurnia be stored in the refrigerator?
To maintain stability before use.
Why should owners avoid cleaning their pet’s ears after Osurnia treatment?
Ear cleaning should not be done for 45 days after initial treatment.
What is the drug class of Praziquantel?
Cestode parasiticide.
What parasites does Praziquantel treat in dogs?
Dipylidium caninum
What parasites does Praziquantel treat in cats?
Dipylidium caninum
What are some common products containing Praziquantel?
Droncit
What is the drug class of Epsiprantel?
Cestode parasiticide.
What parasites does Epsiprantel treat?
Dipylidium caninum and Taenia spp.
What is a common brand name for Epsiprantel?
Cestex.
What is the drug class of Fenbendazole?
Cestode and nematode parasiticide.
What cestode does Fenbendazole remove in dogs?
Taenia pisiformis.
What is Fenbendazole ineffective against?
Dipylidium caninum.
What is a common brand name for Fenbendazole?
Panacur.
What is the drug class of Pyrantel Pamoate?
Nematode parasiticide.
What parasites does Pyrantel Pamoate treat?
Toxocara canis
What is a common brand name for Pyrantel Pamoate?
Strongid.
What are some common products containing Pyrantel?
Heartgard
What is the drug class of Milbemycin Oxime?
Nematode parasiticide.
What parasites does Milbemycin Oxime control?
Adult Ancylostoma caninum
What are some common products containing Milbemycin Oxime?
Sentinel Spectrum
Why should Milbemycin be given with food?
Fat aids in absorption.
What is the drug class of Moxidectin?
Nematode parasiticide.
What parasites does Moxidectin treat in dogs?
Hookworms (4th stage larvae
What parasites does Moxidectin treat in cats?
Hookworms (Ancylostoma tubaeforme)
What are some common products containing Moxidectin?
Advantage Multi
What is the drug class of Selamectin?
Nematode parasiticide.
What parasites does Selamectin treat?
Hookworms (Ancylostoma tubaeforme)
What is a common brand name for Selamectin?
Revolution.
What is the drug class of Emodepside + Praziquantel?
Nematode and cestode parasiticide.
What parasites does Emodepside + Praziquantel treat?
Hookworms (Ancylostoma tubaeforme)
What is a common brand name for Emodepside + Praziquantel?
Profender.
What is the drug class of Praziquantel/Pyrantel Pamoate/Febantel?
Nematode and cestode parasiticide.
What parasites does Praziquantel/Pyrantel Pamoate/Febantel treat?
Hookworms
What is a common brand name for Praziquantel/Pyrantel Pamoate/Febantel?
Drontal Plus.
What is the drug class of Albon (Sulfadimethoxine)?
Sulfonamide antimicrobial agent.
What is Albon commonly used for?
Coccidiosis.
What are possible side effects of Albon?
KCS
What is the drug class of Sulfadiazine/Trimethoprim (TMS)?
Potentiated sulfonamide antimicrobial.
What is TMS used for?
Broad-spectrum antibiotic; inhibits protozoa like Coccidia and Toxoplasma spp.
Why should TMS be avoided in Dobermans?
Higher risk of adverse side effects.
What is the drug class of Ponazuril (Marquis)?
Antiprotozoal.
What is Ponazuril used for?
EPM (Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis) caused by Sarcocystis neurona; also used in small animals for Coccidia.
What is the drug class of Clindamycin?
Lincosamide antibiotic with antiprotozoal activity.
What protozoal infection is Clindamycin used for?
Toxoplasmosis (Toxoplasma gondii).
What is a common side effect of Clindamycin?
Nausea and GI upset.
What is the drug class of Metronidazole (Flagyl)?
Nitroimidazole.
What is Metronidazole used for?
Giardia
What is a major risk of Metronidazole at high doses?
Neurotoxicity.
Why is Metronidazole commonly compounded into a flavored liquid?
It has a very bitter taste.
What is the drug class of Ronidazole?
Antiprotozoal.
What is Ronidazole used for?
Feline Tritrichomonas foetus infections.
What is a major side effect of Ronidazole?
Neurotoxicity at high doses.
What is the most common Giardia species in dogs?
Giardia duodenalis.
How is Giardia transmitted?
Fecal-oral route via ingestion of cysts from contaminated water
What are the clinical signs of Giardia infection?
Diarrhea
What are the diagnostic options for Giardia?
Direct smear
What treatments are recommended for Giardia?
Fenbendazole
What is the zoonotic risk of canine and feline coccidia?
None; they are not zoonotic.
What species of Isospora infect dogs?
Cystoisospora canis
What species of Isospora infect cats?
Cystoisospora felis
How is coccidia transmitted?
Ingestion of sporulated oocysts or infected transport hosts.
What is the primary treatment for coccidiosis?
Sulfadimethoxine (Albon).
What alternative treatments are available for coccidiosis?
Ponazuril
What is the causative agent of feline Tritrichomonas infection?
Tritrichomonas blagburni (formerly T. foetus).
How is Tritrichomonas transmitted?
Fecal-oral route.
What is the primary clinical sign of Tritrichomonas infection?
Chronic or intermittent diarrhea.
What are the diagnostic options for Tritrichomonas?
Direct fecal smear
How can Tritrichomonas be distinguished from Giardia on a smear?
T. blagburni has jerky
What is the treatment for Tritrichomonas infection?
Ronidazole (though drug resistance and neurotoxicity are concerns).
What are the primary hosts of Toxoplasma gondii?
Cats.
How is Toxoplasma transmitted?
Ingestion of infective oocysts
What are the diagnostic options for Toxoplasmosis?
Fecal floatation (oocysts)
What is the treatment of choice for Toxoplasmosis?
Clindamycin.
Why is Toxoplasma gondii a major zoonotic concern?
It can cause congenital defects in humans; pregnant women should avoid cat litter.
What is the definitive host for Neospora caninum?
Dogs.
How is Neospora transmitted?
Ingestion of infected tissue (bradyzoites) or transplacental transmission.
What is the key clinical sign of Neospora infection in young dogs?
Ascending paralysis.
What are the diagnostic options for Neospora?
Fecal floatation
What is the treatment for Neospora?
Clindamycin
What Cryptosporidium species affect dogs and cats?
C. canis (dogs)
How is Cryptosporidium transmitted?
Fecal-oral route via sporulated oocysts.
What are the diagnostic options for Cryptosporidium?
Fecal floatation
What are the treatment options for Cryptosporidium?
Nitazoxanide (Alinia)
What is the diagnostic test of choice for rabies?
Direct Fluorescent Antibody (DFA) testing on the brain.
Which brain regions are tested for rabies diagnosis?
Brainstem and cerebellum.
Is rabies a reportable disease?
Yes
What are the primary reservoirs of rabies?
Wildlife
What is the most common source of human rabies cases?
Bats.
What are the two key clinical signs of rabies?
Behavior change and vocalization.
What are examples of behavioral changes in rabies?
Aggression
Can rabies present with lameness?
Yes
How long can rabies remain asymptomatic?
1-2 months.
What are the two forms of rabies?
Furious form and dumb form.
What are the clinical signs of the furious form of rabies?
Anxiety
What are the clinical signs of the dumb form of rabies?
Hypersalivation and difficulty swallowing.
How should an unvaccinated pet exposed to rabies be managed?
Euthanasia and testing OR 4-month quarantine (dogs/cats) or 6-month quarantine (ferrets) with immediate vaccination.
How should a vaccinated pet exposed to rabies be managed?
Booster rabies vaccine immediately and 45-day owner observation.
How should a pet overdue for a rabies vaccine but with proof of prior vaccination be managed?
Booster vaccine and 45-day owner observation.
What is the post-exposure prophylaxis for an unvaccinated human exposed to rabies?
Rabies immunoglobulin and rabies vaccine on days 0
What is the post-exposure prophylaxis for a vaccinated human?
Rabies vaccination at 0 and 3 days.
How is a healthy animal that bites a human managed?
10-day quarantine regardless of vaccination status. Do not vaccinate.
What should be done if a quarantined animal shows signs of rabies?
Report to health department and euthanize for rabies testing.
How is a stray or unwanted dog/cat/ferret that bites a human managed?
Euthanize immediately and submit for rabies testing.
What is the toxic principle of anticoagulant rodenticides?
Inhibits Vitamin K1 epoxide reductase
What are examples of first-generation and second-generation anticoagulant rodenticides?
First-gen: Warfarin; Second-gen: Brodifacoum
What are the typical clinical signs of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity?
Hemorrhage into body cavities
When do clinical signs of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity typically appear?
3-7 days post-ingestion
What diagnostic test is most indicative of anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity?
Prolonged PT (prothrombin time)
What is the treatment for recent ingestion of anticoagulant rodenticides?
Emesis (if within 2-4 hours)
What is the treatment for a dog presenting with hemorrhage due to anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity?
Plasma transfusion
What is the toxic principle of bromethalin?
Inhibits oxidative phosphorylation
What are the clinical signs of bromethalin toxicity at high doses?
Acute onset (<12 hrs): Tremors
What are the clinical signs of bromethalin toxicity at lower doses?
Delayed onset (days to weeks): Ascending paralysis beginning in hindlimbs.
What is the treatment for acute bromethalin ingestion?
Emesis
What is the treatment for symptomatic bromethalin toxicity?
Supportive care
What is the prognosis for severe bromethalin toxicity?
Poor.
What is the toxic principle of cholecalciferol rodenticide?
Converted to active Vitamin D3
What are the clinical signs of cholecalciferol rodenticide toxicity?
PU/PD
When do signs of cholecalciferol toxicity typically appear?
Hyperphosphatemia at 12 hours
What is the treatment for acute cholecalciferol ingestion?
Emesis
What is the role of bisphosphonates in cholecalciferol toxicity?
Inhibit osteoclast activity to prevent bone resorption of calcium (pamidronate is most effective).
What is the prognosis if cholecalciferol toxicity progresses to renal failure?
Guarded to grave.
What factors should be considered when selecting suture material?
Memory
What is memory in suture material?
The tendency for suture to return to its original shape.
What is tensile strength in suture material?
The ability of the suture to resist deformation and breakage under stress.
What is capillarity in suture material?
The degree of fluid transfer by the suture due to absorption.
How does suture size correlate with diameter?
As you move from 0 to 2-0 to 3-0
What are the different types of suture needles?
Taperpoint
When should a taperpoint needle be used?
For delicate soft tissue
What is the advantage of a reverse cutting needle?
Stronger than a regular cutting needle and less traumatic to tissues.
What are the advantages of monofilament suture?
Less tissue drag
What are the advantages of multifilament suture?
Greater strength and flexibility
What are examples of absorbable suture materials?
Catgut
What is the main disadvantage of catgut suture?
Rapid proteolytic breakdown
Which absorbable suture has the longest tensile strength?
PDS II (polydioxanone)
Which absorbable suture is rapidly absorbed and loses all tensile strength within 2-3 weeks?
Caprosyn (Polyglytone 6211).
What are examples of non-absorbable suture materials?
Nylon (Ethilon)
What is a key property of polypropylene (Prolene)?
Excellent prolonged strength
Why is silk not commonly used for internal sutures?
It has high tissue reactivity and significant strength loss within 12 weeks.
When should polymerized caprolactam (Vetafil) be used?
Only on the skin to avoid sinus formation.
What is the primary toxic compound in antifreeze?
Ethylene glycol.
Why is ethylene glycol frequently ingested by animals?
It has a sweet taste.
What enzyme metabolizes ethylene glycol?
Alcohol dehydrogenase.
What are the toxic metabolites of ethylene glycol?
Glycoaldehyde
What are the three clinical stages of ethylene glycol toxicity?
Stage I (neurological)
What is the hallmark sign of Stage I ethylene glycol toxicity?
Ataxia
What is a key early diagnostic finding of ethylene glycol toxicity?
Calcium oxalate crystalluria (as early as 6 hours post-ingestion).
What are the key signs of Stage III ethylene glycol toxicity?
Oliguric renal failure
What competitive inhibitors are used to treat ethylene glycol toxicity?
Fomepizole (4-MP) and ethanol.
Why is ethanol therapy less preferred than fomepizole?
It requires close monitoring and can worsen acidosis
What is the prognosis for ethylene glycol toxicity?
Good if treated within 4-8 hours
What types of damage do acids and alkalis cause?
Acids cause caustic burns
When do burns from acid ingestion appear?
Immediately.
When do burns from alkali ingestion appear?
8-12 hours post-ingestion.
What is the first-line treatment for caustic ingestion?
Dilute milk or water.
Why should vomiting NOT be induced in acid or alkali ingestion?
It can further damage the esophagus.
Why is activated charcoal not used for acid or alkali toxicity?
It does not effectively bind acids or alkalis.
What is the primary risk of paint thinner ingestion?
Aspiration pneumonia.
What should be used to remove paint from a pet’s fur?
Mild soap and water; avoid paint thinners or turpentine.
What is the first-line treatment for paint thinner ingestion?
Milk or water; do NOT induce vomiting.
What is the toxic principle in moldy food ingestion?
Penitrem A
What is the mechanism of action of penitrem A?
It raises the resting membrane potential
What are the key clinical signs of moldy garbage toxicity?
Panting
What is the first-line treatment for penitrem A ingestion?
Induce vomiting (if the animal is not neurologically compromised).
What drugs are used to treat muscle tremors in moldy garbage toxicity?
Methocarbamol (Robaxin).
What drugs are used to treat seizures in moldy garbage toxicity?
Diazepam
