Misc Flashcards

1
Q

For any reports of missing FF…

A

IC request next greater alarm assignment

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2
Q

the Division or Group Officer shall contact Command to activate Rapid Intervention Team operations after…

A

two failed verbal or radio attempts to contact the firefighter with the activated P.A.S.S. device or a member of the company that can account for the activation

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3
Q

LUNAR

A

Location, Unit, Name of crew members, Assignment, Resources needed

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4
Q

When to give UCAN report and what is it

A
  • upon locating FF
  • Unit number (Crew making transmission) - Conditions (what they encountered)
  • Actions (what are they doing to rectify
  • Needs (additional needs or manpower)
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5
Q
  • Interior structural firefighting operations will not begin until…
  • Exceptions?

Two-In Two-Out

A
  • until two firefighters are available outside the IDLH atmosphere to monitor the safety of the interior team
  • Exceptions
    -signs of a victim rescue situation, realistic expectation of victim rescue.
    -incipient stage fire or outside fire Is executed with less than 4 people
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6
Q

PPE should be cleaned every…

A

6 MONTHS or after contact with hazardous materials

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7
Q

VibraAlert activates when…

A

supply reaches 1500 psi or 1⁄3 of the total air supply

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8
Q

Primary indicator of air supply

A

HUD

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9
Q

Smoke Color

A
  • Whitish- Incipient Fire
  • Brown- wood or natural product
  • Black- Hydrocarbon, plastic, or synthetic materials
  • Yellowish/greenish under pressure- Oxygen deficient fire with backdraft potential
  • Heavy, rolling, black under pressure- conditions common with impending Flashover
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10
Q

Type of building more likely to require Ventilation and safest way to accomplish

A
  • Commercial Occupancy
  • removing skylight while on arial device
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11
Q

DE shall remain on turntable when…

A

whenever members are operating on the aerial ladder or in the bucket, as well as when they have moved from the aerial/platform

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12
Q

Arial placements dependent of 4 Conditions:

A

 Immediate rescue
 Frontage of building to be covered
 Amount of smoke, heat, and/or fire present
 Presence of any area or street conditions that may affect best positioning (i.e. narrow alleyways, elevated roads, powerlines, street lights)

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13
Q

Aerial apparatus should be positioned so that the ladder tip is extended at least…

A

5 ft past roof level (6 ft in operator book)

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14
Q

ladder distance away from powerline

A

10 ft

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15
Q

Position the ladder so that it is approximately ____ inches away from the objective. Aerial ladders, booms, and baskets should never be allowed to rest upon any object

A

6-8 inches

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16
Q

Arial tip loads for TRT use

Different manufactures

A
  • Pierce: 1000lbs
  • E-One: 750lbs
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17
Q

Overhaul operations Generally start when…

A

the fire has been declared “under control”

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18
Q

SLICERS

A

-size up
-locate fire
-identify flow path
-cool the space
-extinguish fire
-rescue
-salvage

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19
Q

1st and 2nd Priorities in Defensive Operations

A

-1st: Protect Exposures
-2nd: extinguish the fire

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20
Q

When the order to evacuate is given, all available and appropriately equipped units in the immediate vicinity will sound their air horns intermittently in what manor…

A

one second on, one second off for thirty (30) seconds.

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21
Q

Collapse Zone

A

1.5 x building height

22
Q

Good climbing angle is achieved my placing the center of the turntable _____ft from the building

A

25-35 ft

23
Q

Salvage operations generally start…

A

at the same time of fire attack

24
Q

4 strong slaps on the back indicates:

A

to withdraw from the structure

25
Q

Transitional Attack

A
  • quick def. knockdown of main body of fire followed by interior Off. Attack
  • placing straight stream into heavily involved fire compartment from exterior at a high angle 65-80 degrees for approx. 15 sec.
  • followed by rapid entry for int. atk.
26
Q

Span of control accepted limit

A

5

27
Q

Order of positions in ICS

A

IC
Command Staff
General Staff
Branch
Division
Group
Task Force
Strike Force
Single Resource

28
Q

Passports

A
  • Passports never enter the hazard zone, must be maintained at the command vehicle during large or complex operations, and must reflect only personnel presently in the hazard zone
    -if member of crew IS NOT in the hazard zone, par tag flipped upside down
    -for single company incidents, stays on dash, driver assumes accountability responsibilites
29
Q

PAR can be called for all of the following:

A
  1. missing person
  2. change in tactics (offensive to defensive)
  3. 30 min interval into incident
  4. hazardous event (structure collapse),
  5. report of fire under control or all clear
30
Q

High rise is classified as a building taller than…

A

50ft (5 stories)

31
Q

In high rise, minimum of ___ firefighters on attack line

A

4(5-6 preferred)

32
Q

Fire and smoke showing at __ floors or less, use the stairs

A

7

33
Q

Elevators should be taken __ floors below the fire floor

A

2

34
Q

In high rise, connect to standpipe where?

A

Below fire floor

35
Q

RIT team size in high rise ops

A

3-6

36
Q

2 1/2” standpipe outlets must flow bt a min of ___ psi and max of ___ psi at the most remote outlet (usually the roof)

A

100-175

37
Q

Classes of standpipes

A

Class 1: 2.5” outlets for fire dept use
Class 2: 1.5” outlets for occupant use
Class 3: both

38
Q

Pressure Reducing Device

A

Only reduce flow pressure; have no effect on static system not flowing water. Usually consist of a reduced orifice or adjustable orifice/baffle on the discharge side. Some are adjustable and others can be disabled at the riser via a pin. Class 3 may have PRD’s on the 2.5” to 1.5” reducer that FFs remove from a hose cabinet

39
Q

Pressure Reducing Valve

A

generally work using an internal spring calibrated to open up a certain amount when a given pressure is applied.
Engineered to work correctly (correct PSI and GPM) only when a specific pressure is achieved
WATER CANNOT flow into a PRV from the discharge side

40
Q

foam should be reapplied every…

A

7-10 minutes

41
Q

Electrical Vehicles (EV)

time it takes to put out
can burn for how long?
volts

A

i. Can take 30-45 minutes to accomplish
ii. If left alone can burn for over 1.5 hours
iii. Direct result of not having direct access to the battery package
iv. Can reignite several hours later. In one case, 22 hours later
1. Notify towing company of this potential and the need to store away from exposures for at least 24 hours post-fire
b. Can be as high as 600 volts

42
Q

flammable liquid fire

A
  • uphill/upwind and ID type of liquid
  • greater than 5 gal - request HAZMAT
  • AFFF at 3% for hydrocarbons
  • AR-AFFF for polar solvents
43
Q

Dumpster, Trash, and Chute Fires

A
  • RISK NOTHING TO SAVE NOTHING
  • TIC can’t be relied upon (embers b/t floors and behind concrete)
  • AFFF is discouraged due to lack of penetrating ability (Class A foam perferred)
  • Flooding dumpster preferred of raking around the content
  • Commercial waste companies must dump there load onto pavement to effectively extinguish fire
44
Q

Fire in active shooter scenario

A
  • non-emergency
  • minimum of a helmet
  • Hit and run philosophy
45
Q

vehicle extrication

A
  • Full turnout gear w/ eye pro, members not next to vehicle wear reflective traffic vest (i.e. D/E, transport only unit)
  • Term FREEZE will be used to stop all activities and can be used by anyone witnessing an unsafe act (Sharp slap on back in high noise environment )
  • Preform outer and inner circle size up
  • 1st Scene Stabilization, 2nd vehicle Stabilization, then 3rd Patient Stabilization
  • Remove smart keys at least 15 ft away
46
Q

Fire hydrant inspection and maintenance

A
  • twice a year
  • NFPA 1 requires
    -7.5 ft of clearance in front and sides
    -4 ft behind
    -center of steamer cap 18” from ground
  • Flow the hydrant through the discharge port that will cause the least amount of property damage.
47
Q

Fire well inspoection and maintenance

how often inspected
OOS criteria

A
  • inspected semi-annually
  • Out of Service/In Need of Repair
    A. Caps not easily removed
    B. Fire well obstructed
    C. Flow raters under 500 GPM
    D. Excessive sand/debris in waterflow not alleviated after several minutes
    E. OOS process same as hydrant
48
Q

Aerial climbing kit

A

-Climbing kit consist of: Blue rope bag, 2 red carabiner, 125ft of blue static 7/16th kernmantle rope, petzl ASAP fall arrester, silver carabiner and 3ft of blue anchor strap
-Every use must be documented in rope log which is located on target solutions under “record completions”

49
Q

Wind speeds

A
  • Sustained Wind Speed < 50 Mph: Normal Response
  • Sustained Wind Speed >35 Mph: No use of aerial ladders or extension ladders.
  • Sustained Wind Speed > 50 Mph but < 75 Mph: Responses only to Imminent Life / Property Loss Incidents (At Battalion Discretion)
  • Sustained Wind Speed > 75 Mph: No Responses
  • Slow vehicle speeds to 20 MPH
50
Q

Non-airport and Mutual Aid Unit Response

A
  • Escort for units or Air Traffic control via signals:
    1. Steady green – Proceed
    2. Steady red – stop clear of the runway
    3. Flashing red – clear the taxiway/runway
    4. Flashing white – turn around and return to original location
  • Gates
  • E-1 (West): Gate 351, east of the Air Traffic Control Tower, 4150 SW 11 Terrace
  • E-2 (South): Gate 414, South Perimeter Road (south of Runway 10R/28L, 0.2 miles west of U.S. 1 and Griffin Road)
  • E-3 (East): Staging area is located on the east end of Runway 10R/28L at 3545 SW 2 Avenue.
  • E-4 (Northwest): Gate 300, adjacent to the approach to Runway 10L/28R off of West Perimeter Road