Misc Flashcards

1
Q

Vessels that can be permanently ligated

A
  • Both common carotid arteries (dogs)
  • Both jugular veins (dogs)
  • L renal vein (dogs)
  • Brachiocephalic veins
  • Brachial arteries
  • Hepatic vein
  • Femoral arteries
  • Both external iliac arteries
  • Both common iliac veins
  • Both femoral veins
  • Abdominal vena cava cd to liver
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2
Q

Temporary ligation times

A
  • Descending thoracic aorta = 5-10min
  • Portal triad = 10-15min
  • Hepatic artery = 30min
  • Splenic artery & vein = 15-20min
  • Renal artery & vein = 30min
  • Abdominal aorta = 30min
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3
Q

Nuclear scintigraphy used for OSA, GFR, pancreas

A
  • OSA: technetium-99m, hydromethylene diphosphate
  • GFR: diethylenetriaminepentaacetic acid (DTPA)
  • Pancreas: Indium-III pentetreotide
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4
Q

Risk factors for SSI

A
  • Duration of sx/anesthesia (2x increase/30% for every hour)
  • Method of prep
  • Staples
  • Abx prophy
  • Endocrinopathy
  • Obesity
  • Immunosuppression
  • Propofol
  • Bulldog
  • MRSP
  • Intact male
  • Higher ASA
  • Level of wound contamination
  • # people (30% increase per person)
  • Recovery in ICU
  • Drain
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5
Q

Grenade bulb pressure

A
  • Rolled = 170 mmHg
  • 1 hand = 84 mmHg
  • 2 hands = 110 mmHg
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6
Q

Components of Plasma-Lyte 148 & Normosol R

A
  • 295 mOsm/L
  • 140 Na+
  • 5 K+
  • 98 Cl-
  • 3 Mg 2+
  • 27 acetate
  • 23 gluconate
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7
Q

Components of 7.5% NaCl

A
  • 2400 mOsm/L
  • 1200 Na+
  • 1200 Cl-
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8
Q

Components of LRS

A
  • 273 mOsm/L
  • 130 Na+
  • 4 K+
  • 109 Cl-
  • 3 Ca 2+
  • 28 lactate
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9
Q

Components of 23.4% NaCl

A
  • 8,000 mOsm/L
  • 4,000 Na+
  • 4,000 Cl-
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10
Q

mOsm/L 25% mannitol

A

1,250 mOsm/L

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11
Q

Components of 0.9% NaCl

A
  • 308 mOsm/L
  • 154 Na+
  • 154 Cl-
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12
Q

Components of Normosol-M with 5% dextrose

A
  • 363 mOsm/L
  • 40 Na+
  • 13 K+
  • 40 Cl-
  • 3 Mg 2+
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13
Q

Components of Plasma-Lyte M with 5% dextrose

A
  • 377 mOsm/L
  • 40 Na+
  • 16 K+
  • 40 Cl-
  • 3 Mg 2+
  • 5 Ca 2+
  • 12 lactate
  • 12 acetate
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14
Q

Components of plasma-lyte 56

A
  • 110 mOsm/L
  • 40 Na+
  • 13 K+
  • 40 Cl-
  • 3 Mg+
  • 16 acetate
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15
Q

Components of 0.45% NaCl

A
  • 154 mOsm/L
  • 77 Na+
  • 77 Cl-
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16
Q

Steam sterilization expiration times

A
  • Single musslin = 1 week closed, 2d open
  • Double musslin = 7 weeks closed, 3 weeks open
  • Paper/M = 8 weeks open
  • Crepe/M = 10 weeks open
  • Plastic/M = >9 months open
  • Heat sealed = 1 year open

96 weeks?

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17
Q

Local anesthetic & central effects

A
  • Inhibit K+ and Ca2+ at dorsal horn
  • Inhibit substance P
  • Inhibit glutamatergic transmission
  • Prox-distal (large nerves)
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18
Q

Segments for epidural

A
  • Pelvic limb: L3-S1 (0.2 mL/kg)
  • Abdominal wall: T11-L3 (0.36 mL/kg)
  • Thorax: T2-T13 (0.4 mL/kg)
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19
Q

Most modern vaporizers

A
  • Agent specific
  • Concentration-calibrated
  • Variable bypass
  • Flow over
  • Out of circle
  • High resistance
  • Compensated (temp, flow, back-pressure)
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20
Q

Ventilator bellows

A
  • Standing = ascending
  • Hanging = descending
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21
Q

4 stages of anesthesia

A
  1. Lasts until loss of consciousness
  2. Lasts until onset of regular breathing
  3. Surgical anesthesia, progressive loss of reflexes
    - 3 light: until eyeball movement ceases
    - 3 medium: progressive intercostal paralysis
    - 3 deep: decreased intercostal muscle/TV, weak corneal, central pupils
  4. Extreme CNS depression
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22
Q

Non-neuromuscular effects of neuromuscular blockade

A

Antimuscarinic
- Histamine release
- minimal placental transfer
- protein-bound

Succinylcholine
- hyperK+
- increased IOP
- increased intragastric pressure
- increased ICP

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23
Q

Pattern of stimulation NMB

A
  • Single: 1 twitch every 7-10 seconds
  • Train of four: 4 twitches every 2 seconds (4th, 3rd, 2nd, 1st, 1st, 2nd, 3rd, 4th)
  • Tetanic: sustained 5 seconds
  • Post-tetanic: stimulus shortly after (indicator of recovery)
  • Double-burst: two to four 750ms apart
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24
Q

Barbiturates

A
  • cerebroprotective (decreased CmO2, CBF, ICP)
  • mild decreased BP, compensatory tachycardia
  • crosses placenta

Contraindications: sighthounds, severe cardiopulmonary disease, neonates, liver disease, underweight

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25
Q

Alfaxalone

A
  • decreased CBF, ICP, CmRO2
  • suitable for neonates & C-section
  • steroid
  • Phase I & II metabolism
  • CV depression (minimal)

Contraindications: elevated IOP

26
Q

Oxygen tanks

A

E
- 1,900 psi
- 660 L

H
- 2,200 psi
- 6,900 L

27
Q

CO2 E tank

A
  • 838 psi
  • 1,590 L
28
Q

Medical air E tank

A
  • 2,200 psi
  • 6,550 L
29
Q

Nitrogen H tank

A
  • 2,200 psi
  • 6,400 L
30
Q

Nitrous Oxide tanks

A

E
- 745 psi
- 1,590 L

G
- 745 psi
- 13,800 L

H
- 745 psi
- 15,800 L

31
Q

Opioids & analgesia

A
  • inhibition of GABA interneurons in periaqueductal grey region (also activation of inhibitory dorsal horn nociceptive neurons; release NE + serotonin)
  • inhibit pre-NT release and post-hyperpolarization
  • reduce nerve terminal excitability (peripheral)
  • better with C-fiber (high doses/epidurals get A-delta)
32
Q

Central emetic center (higher center)

A

M1, H1
scopolamine
dimenhydrinate

33
Q

Lateral reticular formation in mid-brainstem (emetic center)

A

M1, H1, NK
maropitant
atropine
dimenhydrinate

34
Q

Peripheral emetic

A

SHT3, D2, M1
ondansetron
metoclopramide
isopropamide

35
Q

Vestibular apparatus (emetic)

A

H1, M1
maropitant
dimenhydrinate

36
Q

Nucleus tractus
solitarius of CN X

A

H1, M1, NK, SHT3, D2
ondansetron
metoclopramide
scopolamine
dimenhydrinate
maropitant

37
Q

CTZ

A

SHT3, D2, M1, NK
ondansetron
metoclopramide

38
Q

ESF abx

A

beta-lactams
aminoglycoside

39
Q

Urine abx

A

beta-lactams
aminoglycosides
FQs
sulfas
Vanco

40
Q

Abx that penetrate BBB

A

Chloramphenicol
Doxy
FQs
Metronidazole
Rifampin
Sulfas

41
Q

Abx that cross BBB in presence of inflammation

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
FQs
Vanco

42
Q

Abx that DO NOT cross BBB

A

Aminoglycosides
Barbencillin
Cefazolin
Cefotetan
Clinda
Erythromycin
Tetracycline

43
Q

Total body water (lipid) abx

A

chloramphenicol
Clindamycin
Doxycycline
Erythromycin
FQs
Sulfas

44
Q

Abx in WBC

A

Clindamycin
Macrolides
FQs
Rifampin

45
Q

Antagonistic abx combinations

A

phenol – beta-lactams
tetracycline – FQs
erythromycin – aminoglycocides

46
Q

Adverse effects of salicylates in cats

A
  • Hyperthermia
  • Resp alkalosis
  • Metabolic acidosis
  • Methemoglobinemia
  • HGE
  • Kidney and liver injury
47
Q

Lumbosacral plexus

A
  • Ilioinguinal (L3)
  • Lateral cutaneous femoral (L3-4)
  • Genito-femoral (L3-4)
  • Femoral (L4-6)
  • Obturator (L4-6)
  • Sciatic (L6-L7-S1)
  • Caudal cutaneous femoral (S1-2)
  • Dorsal nerve of penis (S1-2)
  • Superficial fibular nerve (S1-3)
48
Q

Brachial plexus

A

ventral branches C6, C7, C8, T1, T2

  • Brachiocephalic C6-7
  • Suprascapular C6-7
  • Subscapular C6-7
  • Cranial pectoral C6-8
  • Axillary C6-8
  • Musculocutaneous C6-8
  • Radial C6-T2
  • Median C7-T1
  • Ulnar C8-T2
  • Dorsal thoracic C6-8
  • Lateral thoracic C8-T1
  • Caudal pectoral C8-T1
  • Thoracodorsal C8
49
Q

Growth plate closure - humerus

A
  • Proximal = 10-13 mo
  • Distal 6-8 mo
  • Med-lat: 6 wk
  • Med epicondyle: 6 mo
50
Q

Growth plate closure - radius

A
  • Proximal = 6-11 mo
  • Distal = 8-12 mo
51
Q

Growth plate closure - ulna

A
  • Olecranon = 6-10 mo
  • Distal = 8-12 mo
52
Q

Growth plate closure - femur

A
  • Proximal = 7-11 mo
  • Troch major = 6-10 mo
  • Troch minor = 8-13 mo
  • Distal = 8-11 mo
  • Trochlea = 3 mo
53
Q

Growth plate closure - tibia

A
  • Med-lat = 6 wk
  • Proximal = 6-12 mo
  • TT = 6-8 mo to condyle, 6-12 mo to shaft
  • Distal = 8-11 mo
  • MM = 5 mo
54
Q

Nociception pathway

A
  • Dorsal nerve root
  • Lateral funiculi
  • Continue to thalamus
55
Q

Hypertonic saline side effects

A
  • stimulation of pulmonary C-fibers (vagal)
  • hypotension
  • bradycardia
  • bronchoconstriction
56
Q

What is seen best with T2W MRI

A
  • CSF & other fluid
  • Edema
  • Necrosis
  • Cellular infiltration (gliosis, inflammation, neoplasia)
  • Demyelination
57
Q

What is seen best with T1W MRI

A
  • Fat
  • Methemoglobin
  • Protein binding
  • Gadolinium
  • Ion deposition
  • White matter
58
Q

PRP theories

A
  • increases mesenchymal stem cells & fibroblasts
  • increases collagen type I
  • osteopromotive
  • cartilage repair
59
Q

Biologic indicators (pertaining to sterilization)

A
  • Steam = Geobacillus stearothermophilus
  • EtOx = Bacillus atrophaeus
60
Q

Sucralfate

A
  • aid pH = viscous paste
  • binds proteins of ulcer
  • buffers acid
  • absorbs bile salts
  • inhibits pepsin
  • increases PGs