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Minor Sx/Proct Study Set 1 > Minor Sx cards from a quizlet > Flashcards

Minor Sx cards from a quizlet Flashcards

1
Q

define Surgery

A

Branch of medical care which treats injuries, deformities by manual or operative methods.

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2
Q

define laceration

A

The act of tearing OR a torn, ragged wound

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3
Q

define superficial

A

Pertaining to tissue situated near the surface.

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4
Q

define abrasion

A

Wearing away of a substance/structure through some unusual or abnormal mechanical process.

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5
Q

define benign

A

Not malignant, not recurrent; favorable for recovery

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6
Q

define lesion

A

Any pathological or traumatic discontinuity of tissue or loss of function of a part.

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7
Q

define foreign body

A

Any material lodged in human tissue that is foreign (wood, metal, glass, etc.)

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8
Q

define excise

A

cut off

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9
Q

define incise

A

cut into

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10
Q

define ligate

A

tie off

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11
Q

sound (surgical)

A

to probe deeply with a blunt instrument

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12
Q

debride

A

to clean away damaged or necrotic tissue

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13
Q
  • tome (suffix)
A

to cut” as in episiotome

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14
Q

-ectomy

A

to remove” cut out completely as in appendectomy.

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15
Q

Antiseptic

A

A substance that inhibits growth and development of microorganisms without necessarily destroying them

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16
Q

Local anesthetic

A

Agent whose primary affect is to bring about a temporary loss of localized sensory nerve function.

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17
Q

Number 1 Cause of Minor Surgery Complications

A

Patient Anxiety

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18
Q

3 Most common complications from DC Minor Surgery

A

1) Pt. anxiety
2) Adverse reaction to anesthetic.
3) Pre- or Post-operative bleeding.

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19
Q

best age range for minor sx

A

15-65

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20
Q

Body type that is slowest to heal (hint: one of 3 types)

A

Endomorph

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21
Q

Three basic labs required before minor surgery

A

CBC, UA, prothrombin

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22
Q

After minor surgery rest for ___ hours (range)

A

2-3

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23
Q

Follow-up with patient within ___ hours

A

24

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24
Q

Most effective means of instrument sterilization killing both bacteria and spores. Boiling water under pressure (13 mins at 120*C and 750 mmHg pressure). blunts instruments.

A

steam autoclaving

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25
Q

Ethylene oxide used to kill both bacteria and spores but dangerous and expensive.

A

Gas autoclaving

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26
Q

sterilization in oven at 170*C for 1 hour. Kills most bacteria BUT not spores. Emergency sterilization technique.

A

Dry sterilization

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27
Q

Least effective method sterilization but emergency method. Iodine bath (providyne, beta dyne).

A

Cold sterilization

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28
Q

True/false: Shaving hair off patient considered Std Of Care in minor surgery

A

false

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29
Q

Minimum # of times surgical area cleansed with antiseptic (e.g. beta dyne).

A

5

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30
Q

Germicide

A

Material that actually kills bacteria

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31
Q
  • Strength/effectiveness of an antiseptic is measured by this scale
A

Phenol coefficient

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32
Q
  • Powerful antiseptic. Caustic to skin; used to cleanse counters and floors. AKA carbolic acid. Used in concn’s of 2-20% for bacteriostasis.
A

Phenol

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33
Q

Ingredient in lotion of calamine (used for dermatitis).

A

Phenol

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34
Q

Camphorated Phenol

A

A cream consisting of 30% phenol, 60% camphor, and 10% liquid petroleum.

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35
Q
  • Coal tar antiseptic. Has phenol coefficient 3X, brown liquid with tarry odor. Impregnates telephone poles and railroad ties to prevent decay
  • Coal tar antiseptic in 50% concn linseed oil soap making it more soluble. Used to disinfect rooms and equipment. Very dilute concn (.25-0.5%) used as vaginal douche or bladder irrigation.
A

Cresol

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36
Q

AKA Creolin, Cresolin, Lysol

A

cresol

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37
Q

Coal tar antiseptic that is colorless, odorless crystal. Turns pink in light. Phenol coefficient of -1X.

A

Resorcinol

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38
Q

Coal tar antiseptic. Very soluble in water, alcohol, and glycerine. Primarily used as ointment 5-10% concn treating psoriasis, eczema, erysipelas.

A

Resorcinol

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39
Q

Coal tar antiseptic. Colorless, aromatic crystalline solid. Very soluble in alcohol. Primary use as mouth wash/astringent gargle. Useful as fungal antiseptic and hook worm treatment.

A

Thymol

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40
Q

Coal tar antiseptic. AKA picric acid

A

Trinitrophenol

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41
Q
  • Coal tar antiseptic

Yellow crystalline powder with bitter taste and odorless. Stains skin. Phenol coefficient 7X!

A

Trinitrophenol

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42
Q

. Primary use in burn treatment and superficial wounds. Soaked dressing applied directly to burn. Caustic substance generally. Max allowable surface area ~one extremity of entire body.

A

Trinitrophenol

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43
Q

Groups of antiseptics which often contain mercury and most effective as antiseptic or chemotherapeutic agents.

A

Dye Group

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44
Q

Dye antiseptic no longer commonly used. Used in isotonic saline soln with concn 1:1000. Used prior to antibiotics.

A

Proflavine dihydrochloride

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45
Q

Dye antiseptic used frequently prior to antibiotics to saturate gauze, for conjunctival gonorrhea, otitis media, and pack wound cavities. Used for furunculosis and carbunculosis.

A

Proflavine dihydrochloride

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46
Q

Dye antiseptic AKA gentian violet, deep purple soln in 3% water/alcohol concn. Used to treat RING WORM; very effective against gram + bacteria (Staph.). Used as jelly for cystitis, fungus, and burns

A

Methylrosaniline

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47
Q

Dye antiseptic AKA methylene blue. Dark green powder that forms blue solns. Urinary antiseptic, also used diagnostically to locate ano-vaginal fistulas.

A

Methylthionine chloride

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48
Q

Dye antiseptic AKA thymerol and thmersol. Contains up to 50% mercury. Very effective general antiseptic - even spores. Useful for lacerations/abrasions. Antiseptic of choice for final scrub in preoperative skin preparation in 1:2000 concon

A

Merthiolate

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49
Q

Antiseptic group containing chlorine, iodine, or bromine

A

halogen group

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50
Q

Halogen antiseptic. Yellowish irritant gas. Widely used as disinfectant in drinking water.

A

Chlorine

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51
Q
  • Sodium hypochlorite. Dilute chlorine solution contain .45-.5% sodium. Freshly mixed and kept in light-resistant bottle for up to 48 hours. Effective antiseptic for open wounds of all sizes. Dissolves bacteria, pus, necrotic tissue without disturbing clots. Coat unprotected normal skin with petroleum jelly
A

Dakin Solution

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52
Q

Halogen antiseptic. Blue-black crystal with metallic odor. Soluble with potassium in water. Popular surgical scrub/skin prep. Used in wound lavage.

A

Iodine

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53
Q

Halogen antiseptic. AKA beta dyne or providyne in 10% concn. Used for skin prep and cold sterilization methods. 7% used open wounds, 5% external mucosa lining (vaginal packs).

A

Iodine

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54
Q

% iodine vaginal pack is called…

A

Logol solution

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55
Q

Antiseptic. Solid form on wooden stick applicator. Used for warts, excess tissue, ulcers, canker sores, and cauterization. Fast acting and may cause burns.

A

Silver nitrate

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56
Q

Antiseptic. Historically used in .25-1.0% concn for mucus membranes, sinuses, throats, conjunctiva gonorrhea.

A

Silver nitrate

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57
Q

An old school treatment. Silver nitrate placed in eyes of newborns to kill off conjunctival gonorrhea.

A

Crede treatment

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58
Q

Silver antiseptic. Protein precipitate used for chronic/acute sinusitis. Cotton-tipped applicator placed into nasal passages for one hour. Repeated for three consecutive days. Used in many DC offices.

A

Argyrol

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59
Q
  • Poor Antiseptic. Mostly used in 20-70% concns. >80% concn hardens protein coats of bacteria but <80% tends to dehydrate bacteria. NOT recommended as sterilization technique.
A

Alcohol

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60
Q

Antiseptic. Oxidizes bacterial proteins. A gas soluble in water at 40% concn. Extremely powerful; never used on living patients. Commonly used 10% soln for biopsy transfer.

A

Formaldehyde

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61
Q
  • Brand name is formalin. Used to transfer biopsy samples.
A

Formaldehyde

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62
Q

Weak antiseptic. MOA liberates oxygen. On open wounds bubbles and forces debris to surface. Found in 3% solns at most stores. Wash/lavage wound/ulcer. Debrides tissue and removes dirt. Damages tissue while killing bacteria. Used in 1:5 dilution for gingivitis.

A

Hydrogen peroxide

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63
Q

Astringent antiseptic. Mild, soothing antiseptic reduces mucous membrane swelling. 2% soln for conjunctivitis and open wounds and vaginitis. 10% concn for skin irritation.

A

Boric acid

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64
Q

Astringent AKA alum. Skin lotion for irritation treatment. 0.5-1% concn used in solid stick form as hemostatic. Septic pencil for shaving nicks in men.

A

Potassium aluminum sulfate

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65
Q

Astringent soluble salt. Sulfate form strong astringent and topical antiseptic. Oxide form ointment effective burns/skin diseases. Used in sunscreen.

A

Zinc

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66
Q

Wound lavaging agent. 1/4 grain tablets (1 tab per oz water). Good antiseptic and fungicide. Used in cuts, abrasions, animal scratches, insect bites, athlete’s foot. DC’s use this for irrigating ears.

A

Hydroxyquinoline sulfate

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67
Q

General purpose antiseptic and fungicide. From Australian tree. Must be diluted in mineral oil. useful in Staph infections. DO NOT take internally.

A

Tea tree oil

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68
Q

Topical antibiotic/antibacterial ointment of neomycin polymycin. Over-counter topical used post-operative dressing.

A

Bacitracin

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69
Q

Antibiotic ointment. Over-counter purchase w/ neomycin polymycin. Most frequently used topically post-operatively.

A

Neosporin

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70
Q

A Complex of halogen antiseptic w/ carrier molecule. Effective wound lavaging agent for gram +/- bacteria, fungi, and viruses. Stains clothing. AKA Betadine, Operand, Acu-Dyne, Clonidine.

A

Providone-Iodine

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71
Q

Wound lavage agent. Effective gram + bactericidal. Used for hand scrubbing primarily; direct wound contact discouraged. AKA Hibiclens, STERIS tat.

A

Chlorhexidine

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72
Q

Wound lavage agent with hyphenated chemical name. Non-ionic detergent. May be used directly on wounds but has no antibacterial activity. Best for facial wound cleansing. AKA Shur-Clens.

A

Pluronic-F-68

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73
Q

Wound lavage agent. Bacteriostatic agent effective for gram + bacteria. Potential toxicity & teratogenicity. AKA PHisoHex.

A

hexachlorophene

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74
Q

Interruption of sensory nerve conduction without subjecting the patient to unconsciousness.

A

Anesthesia

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75
Q

T/F: All anesthetics are toxic.

A

True

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76
Q

This type of medication interferes with neural depolarization and transmission of impulses along axons.

A

anesthetic

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77
Q

T/F: Anesthesia inhibits nociception before pressure/touch sensation.

A

True

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78
Q

Properties of ___ to consider before application in minor surgery.

1) onset of action
2) effectiveness
3) duration

A

anesthetics

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79
Q
  • Maximum allowable dose of anesthetic used by DC’s is ___ cc’s. (there is one exception
A

30

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80
Q

Maximum allowable dose of 1% lidocaine with epinephrine in adult is ___ cc’s

A

50

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81
Q

T/F: Pregnant females should be given local anesthetics

A

False

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82
Q

T/F: Higher concn anesthetic MORE toxic than increased volume anesthetic

A

True

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83
Q

T/F: Anything greater than 2% anesthetic concn is WRONG for injectable local anesthetic.

A

True

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84
Q

Average dose of Epi-enhanced lidocaine, (___ cc’s).

A

35

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85
Q
  • Lidocaine enhanced with ___
A

epinephrine

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86
Q

Advantage of epi with lidocaine

A

Advantage: vasoconstrictive and decreases bleeding.

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87
Q

Cons of epi with lidocaine

A

Con’s: Increased % infection, cannot use on distal or end organs d/t decrease bloodflow

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88
Q

Always use (larger/smaller) syringe than required for amount anesthetic needed

A

Larger

89
Q

A ___ gauge needle used for venipuncture

A

21

90
Q

An ___ gauge needle is used for joint aspiration.

A

18

91
Q

Needle gauges used for introducing local anesthetic range from ____-____.

A

25-27

92
Q

Superficial topical anesthetic used as refrigerant pre-injectable for squeamish patients. Comes in pressurized bottle and applied by inverting and spraying in area of injection for 5 seconds. Anesthetic effect lasts 15-30 seconds.

A

Ethyl Chloride

93
Q

T/F: Never inject patient in an upright position.

A

True

94
Q

T/F: Acceptable injection positions include supine or prone.

A

True

95
Q

T/F: It is acceptable to perform minor surgery on patients who do not speak your language, have great fear of needles, their own blood, or the elderly

A

False

96
Q

T/F: After placing syringe needle in chosen tissue site, pull back on plunger to test for bloodflow.

A

True

97
Q

T/F: Best to introduce anesthetic ‘on the move.’

A

True

98
Q

Method of introducing anesthetic where a portal of entry has already been established (into a laceration to avoid second puncture of skin).

A

Direct infiltration

99
Q

AKA parallel margin infiltration (method of anesthetic application).

A

Field Block

100
Q

Most frequently used method of anesthesia application. Preferred method when wound is dirty or contaminated. Decreases risk of spreading infection.

A

Field Block

101
Q

This type of conduction anesthesia used for sebacous cystectomy, lipomectomy excision, and foreign body removal.

A

Field Block

102
Q
  • Method of anesthesia whereby sensory nerves are anesthetized by injecting into nerve plexus.
A

nerve block

103
Q

Nerve block uses ___-___ cc’s anesthesia per side.

A

1-2

104
Q

Most common nerve blocks are ___ (AKA volar blocks).

A

digital

105
Q

T/F: Epinephrine is acceptable in digital nerve blocks (fingers).

A

False

106
Q

Facial anesthesia utilizes nerve blocks in the supr/infraorbital and ___ foramen.

A

Mental

107
Q

AKA novocaine

A

Procaine

108
Q

Anesthetic soln used for all methods. comes w/ and w/o epinephrine. Ester-based soln packaged in concn’s of 0.5, 1.0, 1.5, and 2.0%. In minor surgery highest concn needed is 1.0%. Commonly used in dentist offices.

A

novocaine

109
Q

AKA pontocaine

A

Tetracaine

110
Q

Potent and toxic anesthetic. 10X more potent than procaine. Limited to few procedures like spinal blocks. Not used in DC offices.

A

Pontocaine

111
Q

AKA Xylocaine

A

lidocaine

112
Q

Most popular and frequently used local anesthetic. Comes in 0.5, 1.0, 1.5, 2.0% concn w/ and w/o Epi. Has low toxicity compared to novocaine, rapid diffuses, topical activity and chemical stability. Very good stuff.

A

Xylocaine

113
Q

AKA Carbocaine

A

mepivacaine

114
Q

Amide-base anesthetic soln widely used in minor surgery that ISN’T Lidocaine. Used for procedures with longer time frames. Possesses slightly vasoconstrictive properties and CAUTION indicated in distal end organs.

A

carbocaine

115
Q

AKA Marcaine

A

Bupivacaine

116
Q
  • A newer amide-based anesthetic soln. Not widely used in minor surgery but getting there. Con’s: Slow onset of action. Pro’s: Duration of action surpasses lidocaine and mepivacaine.
A

Marcaine

117
Q

Non-injectable topical anesthetic. Useful in pediatric patients for simple lacerations/wound care. Mixture 0.5% tetracaine, Epi 1:2000 concn, 11.8% cocaine. Applied directly via soaked gauze sponge 5-10 mins. No needle stick required!

A

TAC

118
Q

T/F: Can TAC be used on distal organs?

A

False

119
Q
  • AKA proparacaine hydrochloride
A

Ophthaine

120
Q

0.5% soln anesthetic with glycerine for topical eye application. Suitable for foreign body removal of ocular pressure testing. One drop in eye achieves complete anesthesia in 13 seonds and lasts 15-20 minutes.

A

Ophthaine

121
Q

T/F: Ophthaine contraindicated in hyperthyroidism.

A

True

122
Q

AKA Rostra Spray

A

Cetacaine

123
Q

___ spray: Topical anesthetic effective on mucous membranes but not conjunctiva. Anesthesia takes ~1 minute. Useful for overriding gag reflex. Contains tetracaine and benzocaine.

A

Rostra

124
Q

Flammable topical skin refrigerant used as pre-injectable. Useful for lancing furuncles and carbuncles. Anesthesia lasts 15-30 seconds.

A

Ethyl chloride

125
Q
  • T/F: Redness, itching, swelling at inoculation site usually resolves.
A

True

126
Q

Cardiovascular reactions to inoculation include hypotension and ___

A

bradycardia

127
Q

CNS rxn’s to anesthesia can include excitatory phenomena and ___.

A

seizures

128
Q

The most common rxn to anesthetic injection is ___ AKA passing out

A

vasovagal syncope

129
Q

Anesthesia S/E most common because injecting into a ___.

A

vein

130
Q

Supplement with ___ to increase clotting factor ability

A

vitamin K

131
Q

T/F: Acceptable to bring up surgical options with patients, (i.e. I can get that mole removed for you?).

A

False

132
Q

If you expect a procedure to take 15 minutes, tell the patient it will take ___.

A

45

133
Q

T/F: Acceptable to use a bactericide on patient tissue?

A

False

134
Q

Six steps in healing process. Step 1 is

A

Immediate response to injury

135
Q

Six steps in healing process. Step 2 is

A

Inflammatory phase

136
Q

Six steps in healing process. Step 3 is

A

Epithelialization , scab forms

137
Q

Six steps in healing process. Step 4 is

A

Neovascularization

138
Q

Six steps in healing process. Step 5 is

A

Collagen synthesis

139
Q

Six steps in healing process. Step 6 is

A

Wound contraction

140
Q

T/F: Sew them up if wound is primary union.

A

True

141
Q

T/F: Sew them up if wound is secondary union.

A

False

142
Q

Most common cause of primary union wounds (clean with minimal tissue loss).

A

knife

143
Q

Primary union wounds have a ‘golden period’ in which they can be closed with sutures or skin tapes. This period lasts ___ hours

A

6

144
Q
  • T/F: You can sew up a tertiary union wound after observation and lavage greater than 12 hours.
A

True

145
Q

T/F: Antibiotic ointment required in tertiary union wounds.

A

True

146
Q
  • A wound into the muscle tissue that does NOT involve nerve rupture is a (superficial/deep) wound…
A

superficial

147
Q

A wound that involves tendon and vasculature is a (superficial/deep) wound

A

deep

148
Q

A 2nd degree burn is a (simple/complex) wound…

A

complex

149
Q

A puncture wound is a (simple/complex) wound…

A

simple

150
Q

if a wound will probably become infected if closed is considered a ___ wound

A

dirty

151
Q

wounds older than ___ hours are considered ‘dirty’ wounds…

A

5

152
Q

Erythema extending beyond ___ cm from the wound margin is suggestive of infection

A

1

153
Q

Wound redness accompanied by palpable induration greater than ___cm suggests infection

A

0.5

154
Q
  • critical mass of ___ organisms per gram tissue to be considered ‘infection’
A

100,000

155
Q

most common organism to be active in infection

A

staph

156
Q

Other common infective organisms include E coli, Proteus, Enterobacter, Klebsiella, and ___

A

strep

157
Q

___X increase in infection rate with 20% weight loss in chronically ill patient

A

3

158
Q

When required, give tetanus booster shots every ___ hours.

A

5

159
Q

Minimum # dozes tetanus toxoid to be considered ‘fully immunized’.

A

3

160
Q

___x___ size gauze sponge helps ‘maintain hemostasis in wound closures

A

4x4

161
Q

amount of tissue taken when placing a suture needle in skin or fascia.

A

bite

162
Q

Each knot of a suture consists of a series of ___(s).

A

knot

163
Q

___ suture: placed on surface of skin for final closure using nonabsorbable materials.

A

superficial

164
Q

___ suture: made from absorbable material placed in superficail fascia or deris with knot buried in wound.

A

deep

165
Q
  • ___ suture: single sutures tied separately.
A

interrupted

166
Q
  • ___ suture: wound closure effected by taking several bites the full length of the wound without tying individual knots. AKA ‘running’ suture
A

continuous

167
Q

Number __ scalpel used for debriding devitalized (dead/dying) damaged tissue from a wound.

A

15

168
Q

Most common surgical knot technique for clean wounds without complications.

A

simple interrupted

169
Q

Surgical knot technique that uses a shallow first loop, a deep second loop and then ties off. Used in flexed areas or places under regular stress.

A

vertical mattress

170
Q

Surgical knot technique. Used for cuts that have ‘flaps’. Apex of cut must be pointing toward heart.

A

apical suture

171
Q

Suture material. AKA PGA - synthetic polymer, less reactive and resists infection. Primary for superficial and deep fascia and ligatures.

A

Polyglycolic acid

172
Q

PG 910 suture material. Workable but not the best for tight knots. Preferred for deep wound support for prolonged periods

A

Polyglycan-910

173
Q

Suture material. Make from animal tissues. Treated with chromic acid to delay absorption

A

gut

174
Q

Suture material - AKA ethilon - Used for minor wounds/lacerations, resists infections, good tensile strength.

A

monofilament

175
Q
  • Intradermal subcuticular ‘pull out’ sutures are used because they decrease ___.
A

scarring

176
Q

Sutured wounds are vulnerable to infection up to ___ hours post application.

A

72

177
Q

Used during healing to absorb exudates from wound. Small section surgical rubber inserted into inferior aspect of wound

A

penrose drain

178
Q

Occlusive wound dressing type. Transparent polyurethane. Transmits water, O2, and CO2. Can pull up scab once epithelialization begins.

A

flim

179
Q

Occlusive wound dressing type. Nonadherent material taped in place over a wound

A

foam

180
Q

Occlusive wound dressing type. This is an opaque, gas IMpermeable, absorbant material. Over time fluid leaving wound separates dressing from wound itself.

A

hydrocolloids

181
Q

Occlusive wound dressing type. Semitransparent, nonadhesive, absorbent material

A

hydrogel

182
Q

Occlusive wound dressing type. AKA “Doctor Spenko’s Second Skin”

A

hydrogel

183
Q

Coating for dressings used in burns and skin grafts.

A

petrolatum

184
Q

Controlled cell proliferation; ie adapting to stresses (callus).

A

hyperplasia

185
Q
  • Adaptive substitution of cell type (e.g. squamous) for another type. Used in inflammation.
A

metaplasia

186
Q

‘Pre-cancerous’ cell substitution. These cells exhibit pelomorphism (change in nucleus materials).

A

dysplasia

187
Q

__% of all head/neck cancers begin in the oral cavity.

A

75

188
Q

Basal cell carcinomas are caused by exposure to ___.

A

UV light

189
Q

Squamous cell carcinomas are caused by exposure to ___. These are rapid metastasizers.

A

UV light

190
Q

Jet black, most dangerous type of skin cancer (most rare). If it invades Clark’s level 4, prognosis grim.

A

Melanoma

191
Q

T/F: Fractures are often overlooked in open wounds or bleeding injuries.

A

True

192
Q

Used instead of iodine if Pt is allergic to it. AKA Zephiran in a 1:750 concn soln.

A

benzalkonium chloride

193
Q

Patients who have had three Tetanus boosters but none in ___ years still need a booster for preventative care.

A

10

194
Q

Benign skin tumor. Scar hypertrophy d/t collagen deposition. Usually result of improper surgical technique done against natural tension lines in the fascia.

A

keloid

195
Q

Benign skin tumor. Encapsulated fat tissue often d/t blunt force trauma. If there are multiple lesion it’s typicaly from familial predisposition.

A

lipoma

196
Q
  • Benign skin tumor. Caused by duct blockage of oil gland adjacent to hair follicle. DDX from lipoma via small central well @ middle of raised lump (hair follicle).
A

sebaceous cyst

197
Q

Benign skin tumor. AKA verrucae vulgaris. Benign papillae growth. Often on hands and feet; surgical removal rapid and effective.

A

wart

198
Q

Benign skin tumor. AKA skin tag. These have vascular and neurological supply.

A

papilloma

199
Q
  • Benign skin tumor. Hornlike projection extending above skin level. About 12% are MALIGNANT
A

cutaneous horn

200
Q

Benign skin tumor. These are hard, movable, non-inflammatory lesion within the skin layers..

A

fibroma

201
Q

Benign skin tumor. Cystic swelling surrounded by fibrous tissue that occur within vicinity of joint capsules.

A

ganglia

202
Q

Skin lesion treatment. Liquid nitrogen typically used. Minimal scarring, often more than 1 treatment needed.

A

cryosurgery

203
Q

skin lesion treatment. A small cordless instrument with local anesthesia is used.

A

electrocautery

204
Q

Skin lesion treatment type. Great for superficial skin lesion but may cause scars. Requires sterilization

A

hyfrecator

205
Q

Skin lesion treatment type. Minimal thermal damage caused, best for cosmetic treatments, self-sterilizing.

A

radiosurgery

206
Q

Skin lesion treatment. Electrical energy is converted into light energy (used in many DC offices for purposes other than minor surgery).

A

laser

207
Q

Infected sebaceous gland with central necrotic induration most commonly caused by staph infection.

A

pustule

208
Q

A singular furuncle in a large bulbous presentation.

A

boil

209
Q

Takes ___-___ days for a carbuncle to become ‘fully ripened.’

A

4-6

210
Q

Distal phalanx infection that appears along base of nail from Staph. aureus.

A

Paronychia

211
Q
  • Most common organism to infect bite wound from human bite injury. REFER OUT
A

eikenella corrodens

212
Q

Anti-venom used for black widow spider bites.

A

lyovac

213
Q

___% of animal bites presenting at minor surgical offices are from dogs.

A

90

214
Q

Brown spiders with particularly strong venom. Symptoms include anorexia, dehyrdation, apathy. Tissue will begin to necrose within a week of bite.

A

loxoscles

215
Q

Frostbite. Heat loss caused by wet clothing in contact with metal.

A

conduction

216
Q

Frostbite. Heat loss caused by wind chill.

A

convection

217
Q

Which degree burn? Redness, epidermis only. No blisters. Recovers in 1-2 days.

A

1st

218
Q

Which degree burn? Redness and blister. Capillary wall destruction with edema.

A

2nd

219
Q

Which degree burn? Redness, blister, tissue damage. Subsequent scarring; refer to hospital.

A

3rd

Minor Sx/Proct Study Set 1 (2 decks)

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