Minimals Flashcards
(274 cards)
1
Q
What does sterilization mean?
A
Killing procedure of any kind of germs
2
Q
What does disinfection mean?
A
Procedure where the number of the germs are reduced to a safety level
3
Q
Which parameters can influence the effectivity of the sterilisation?
A
The number of the germs, the resistance of the germs, the concentration of the
disinfectants, the presence of the organic materials, the initial time, the presence of the
biofilm.
4
Q
Parameters of the hot-air sterilisation cupboard protocol?
A
180°C; 1 hour, 160°C; 2 hours, 140°C; 3 hours.
5
Q
Parameters of the autoclaving?
A
+ 1 atm overpressure, 121°C, 20-30 minutes or 134°C, +2 atm overpressure 10 minutes
6
Q
Chemical agents used for gas sterilisation?
A
Etilene oxide, formaldehyde, beta-propiolacton
7
Q
The theoretical background of plasma sterilisation?
A
Hydrogen-peroxide in high electric field will form plasma stage. The produced free
radicals will kill the microbes. At the end of the procedure will be produced water, oxygen
and other nontoxic products.
8
Q
Biological method used for checking the effectivity of the sterilisation.
A
By Bacillus/Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores. If the procedure was performed in correct
way, the spores cannot be cultivated.
9
Q
Detection of the presence of pyrogenic material in drugs?
A
LAL test; The blood of the horseshoe crab will coagulate in the presence of the LPS
10
Q
What are the disinfectants?
A
Chemical agents used on inanimate/non-living surfaces.
11
Q
What are the antiseptic agents?
A
Chemical agents used disinfection on animate (tissue, skin, mucous membrane) surfaces
12
Q
What does serological reaction mean?
A
Reaction based on the antigen-antibody reaction performed in vitro.
13
Q
What does agglutination mean?
A
Serological reaction where the antigen is cell mediated.
14
Q
What are the bacterial cell surface antigens?
A
O: cell wall, H: flagella, K: capsule
15
Q
What does antibody titre mean?
A
The highest dilution fold or the lowest antibody concentration where we can see in vitro
antigen-antibody reaction.
16
Q
What does precipitation mean?
A
Serological reaction where the antigen is soluble (enzyme, toxin or virus particle)
17
Q
. What does iatrogenic infection mean?
A
Infection caused by medical staff during the investigation or treatment
18
Q
What does nosocomial infection mean?
A
Infection occurred in hospital after 48 hours of the hospitalisation
19
Q
What are the contents of the vaccines? (3 example)
A
a. Live attenuated microbe; killed microbe, toxoid, antigens of the microbe.
20
Q
- What does native examination of the microbe mean in microbiology?
A
a. The microbe is examined without killing procedure.
21
Q
- What kind of information can we got by light microscopically examination? (3 example)
A
The size of the microbe, the shape of the microbe, the motility, the staining can be
examined.
22
Q
- The solutions of the Gram-stain?
A
a. Sodium oxalate, cristal violet, Iodine solution, 96% of ethanol, fuchsin or safranin.
23
Q
- What kind of devices can be used for anaerobic cultivation?
A
a. Anaerostate, Gas-pack jar, high agar, anaerobic chamber.
24
Q
a. Anaerostate, Gas-pack jar, high agar, anaerobic chamber.
A
bacteriostatic: inhibits bacterial growth
b. bactericide: kills bacteria
25
25. Definition: selective toxicity
a. the antibiotic has an effect only on the bacteria, but not on the human host
26
26. Chemotherapeutic index?
a. dosis tolerata maxima (DTM)/dosis curativa minima (DCM)
27
27. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor antibiotics?
a. Penicillin, Cephalosporin, Carbapenem, Glycopeptide.
28
28. Glycopeptide antibiotics
a. vancomycin, teicoplanin
29
29. Membrane function alternating antibiotics are:
a. Polymyxines
30
30. What are the protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics? (3 example)
a. Aminoglycosides, Tetracycline, Macrolide, Chloramphenicol, Linezolid
31
31. Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors are: (2 example)
a. Quinolones, rifampicin, sulphonamide, trimethoprim.
32
32. Three possible ways of horizontal gene transfer
a. conjugation (plasmid)
b. transduction (bacteriophage)
c. transformation (uptake of naked DNA from the environment)
33
33. Antibiotic resistance mechanism are:
a. Enzymatic degradation or modification of the antibiotics, efflux pump, modifying of the
antibiotic binding site
34
34. What does MRSA mean?
a. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
35
35. What does ESBL mean?
a. Extended spectrum of beta lactamase enzyme.
36
36. What does MIC mean?
a. Minimal bacteriostatic concentration of an antibiotic measured in ug/ml.
37
37. What does MBC mean?
a. Minimal bactericidal concentration of an antibiotic measured in ug/ml.
38
38. Definitions: MBL, MACI, PACI
a. MBL: metallo-beta-lactamase (=carbapenemase)
b. MACI: multi-resistant Acinetobacter
c. PACI: pan-resistant Acinetobacter
39
39. Which 3 vaccines contain capsular polysaccharide?
a. Hib (against Haemophilus influenzae type b)
b. Prevenar / Pneumovax (against 13 / 23 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae)
c. meningococcus vaccines (against serotypes ACWY) – but not B!
40
40. What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiological diagnostic laboratory in the case of
typical pneumonia?
a. Sputum and haemoculture
41
41. What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiology diagnostic laboratory in the case of
atypical pneumonia?
a. Blood, urine, broncho-alveolar lavage.
42
42. What kind of bacterial infection can be treated by antitoxin? (2 example)
a. Infections caused by bacterial exotoxins: tetanus, botulism, diphtheria
43
43. Which bacteria can be differentiated with the catalase test?
a. Staphylococci (+) and Streptococci (-)
44
44. Which bacteria can be differentiated with the coagulase test?
a. Staphylococcus aureus (+) and the other staphylococcus species (-, so called „coagulasenegative staphylococci”)
45
45. Microscopic morphology of Staphylococci
a. Gram-positive cocci, arranged in grape-like structures
46
46. Colony morphology of Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar plate
a. average size, round colonies with butter consistency, golden pigment production and betahaemolysis
47
47. What are the non-toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus? (3 example)
a. Protein A, endocoagulase (clumping factor), exocoagulase, adhezins, teicoic acid,
hialuronidase, protease, lipase, DN-ase
48
48. What are the toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus?
a. Leucocidin, toxic shock syndrome toxin, exfoliative toxin, enterotoxin, haemolysin
49
49. Disease (non toxin mediated) caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
a. Folliculitis, furuncle, carbuncle, impetigo, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, food poisoning.
50
50. Diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus exotoxins? (2 example)
a. Food poisoning, scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome
51
51. List at least 2 coagulase-negative staphylococcus species (from the list provided below)!
a. S. epidermidis,
S. saprophyticus,
S. haemolyticus,
S. lugdunensis
52
52. Diseases caused by coagulase negative staphylococci?
a. Nosocomial infections, biofilm production on the surface of plastic devices.
53
53. Which bacterium can cause „Honeymoon cystitis”?
a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
54
54. Colony morphology of Streptococcus pyogenes on blood agar plate
a. small, pin-point colonies, surrounded by large, strong beta-haemolytic zone
55
55. Which streptococci show beta-haemolysis?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus agalactiae
56
56. Which streptococci show alpha-haemolysis?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae and viridans streptococci (e.g. S. mutans, S. mitis, S. salivarius)
57
57. Which species is the Lancefield group A streptococcus?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
58
58. Which species is the Lancefield group B streptococcus?
a. Streptococcus agalactiae
59
59. What is the causative agent of scarlet fever?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes?
60
60. Which bacterial virulence factor is the causative agent of scarlet fever?
a. Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin or erythrogenic toxin
61
61. What is the capsule of S. pyogenes made of?
a. hyaluronic acid
62
62. Diseases (non toxin mediated) cause by Streptococcus pyogenes? (3 examples)
a. Pharyngitis, tonsillitis, sinusitis, impetigo, erysipelas,
63
63. What kind of post streptococcal infections can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
a. Acute rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis
64
64. Which two streptococcus species show 100% penicillin sensitivity still now?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus agalactiae
65
65. What kind of disease can be caused in new-borns by Streptococcus agalactiae?
a. In new born meningitis, sepsis, pneumonia.
66
66. Which bacterium is the leading cause of neonatal meningitis?
a. Streptococcus agalactiae
67
67. Microscopic morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae
a. Gram-positive diplococci
68
68. How can be prevented the invasive diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
a. By 23 valent polysaccharide capsule vaccine or by 13 valent conjugated vaccine.
69
69. Which two bacteria can be differentiated based on their optochin sensitivity / resistance?
a. S. pneumoniae (S) and viridans streptococci (R)
70
70. What kind of disease can be cause by viridans group streptococci?
a. Dental decay or endocarditis.
71
71. Which are the 2 most frequent human pathogenic Enterococcus species?
a. E. faecalis and E. faecium
72
72. Microscopic morphology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
a. Gram-negative, non capsulated diplococci.
73
73. What kind of culture media can be used to cultivate Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
a. Chocolate agar or Thayer Martin agar.
74
74. Microscopic morphology of Neisseria meningitidis?
a. Gram-negative, capsulated, diplococci.
75
75. How can Neisseria meningitidis spread ?
a. By respiratory droplets and will colonize the nasopharynx.
76
76. What kind of disease can be caused by Neisseria meningitidis?
a. Sepsis, meningitis, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.
77
77. What kind of diseases can be caused by Nesseria gonorrhoeae?
a. Gonorrhoea, blenorrhoea neonatorum, proctitis, orchitis.
78
78. What is the causative agent of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
a. Neisseria meningitidis
79
79. What kind of tests can be performed from liquor in case of Neisseria meningitidis infection?
a. Microscopic examination, Gram-stain, latex agglutination.
80
80. What can be do prophylactic with the contact person who suffering by Neisseria meningitidis
infection?
a. Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin or ciprofloxacin.
81
81. What can cause Nesseria gonorrhoeae in newborns?
a. Ophthalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum
82
82. Which serotype of Haemophilus influenzae can cause invasive infection?
a. The Haemophilus influenzae with capsule „b” serotype.
83
83. How can be prevented the invasive infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae strains?
a. By Hib vaccine
84
84. What kind of disease can be caused by Haemophillus ducreyi?
a. Ulcus molle (chancroid).
85
85. What is the causative agent of whooping cough?
a. Bordetella pertussis.
86
86. What are the virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis? (2 examples)
a. Fimbria, pertactin, pertussis toxin, tracheal cytotoxin, dermatonecrotic toxin.
87
87. What is the causative agent of tularemia?
a. Francisella tularensis
88
88. What are the causative agents of human brucellosis? (2 examples)
a. Brucella abortus, B. melitensis, B. suis, B. canis
89
89. What are the diseases caused by Bacillus anthracis? (2 examples)
a. Cutaneous anthrax, pulmonary anthrax, gastrointestinal anthrax.
90
90. What kind of disease can be caused by Bacillus cereus?
a. Food poisoning (vomiting, diarrhoea), wound infection.
91
91. What is the causative agent of pseudomembranosus colitist?
a. Clostridium difficile
92
92. What kind of bacteria can cause flaccid paralysis?
a. Clostridium botulinum
93
93. What kind of bacteria can cause spastic paralysis?
a. Clostridium tetani
94
94. What is the treatment of Botulism?
a. Giving polyvalent antitoxin.
95
95. What is the treatment of pseudomembranosus colitis?
a. Vancomycin per os, metronidazole, faecal transplantation.
96
96. Which bacteria can cause gas gangrene? (2 example)
a. Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium histolyticum, Clostridium septicum.
97
97. What is the causative agent of diphtheria?
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
98
98. How can be detected the toxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
a. By Elek’s-test, Römer-test (in guinea pig).
99
99. What is the treatment of diphtheria?
a. Passive immunisation, giving antibiotics, artificial ventilation if is necessary.
100
100. Which bacteria belong to diphtheroid group? (2 examples)
a. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum, Corynebacterium ulcerans, Corynebacterium
minutissimum, Corynebacterium urealyticum.
101
101. What are the diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes?
a. Meningitis, sepsis, granulomatosis infantiseptica.
102
102. What are the diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes in adults?
a. Gastrointestinal symptoms, meningitis, sepsis, endocarditis
103
103. What is the treatment of Listeriosis?
a. Ampicillin-gentamicin is the drug of choice.
104
104. Which bacteria can cause dental decay?
a. Lactobacilli and Streptococcus mutans.
105
105. Which bacteria can cause human tuberculosis? (3 examples)
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, mycobacterium bovis, Mycobacterium africanum.
106
106. What kind of staining can be used to stain mycobacteria?
a. Ziehl-Neelsen staining.
107
107. How long can be cultivated the causative agent of human tuberculosis on LowensteinJensen culture media?
a. 6-8 weeks.
108
108. How can be prevented the human tuberculosis?
a. By BCG vaccine.
109
109. What are the facultative pathogenic mycobacteria? (2 examples)
a. Mycobacterium avium komplex, Mycobacterium kansasii, Mycobacterium marinum,
Mycobacterium ulcerans.
110
110. Which mycobacteria is apathogenic?
a. Mycobacterium smegmatis.
111
111. What is the causative agent of leprosy?
a. Mycobacterium leprae.
112
112. What are the types of leprosy?
a. Tuberculoid and lepromatosus leprosy.
113
113. What is the treatment of leprosy?
a. Dapson, clofazamin, rifampicin.
114
114. What are the most important Actinomyces species? (1 example)
a. Actinomyces israelii, Actinomyces naeslundii, Actinomyces odontolyticus.
115
115. Which E. coli can be toxin producer? (3 examples)
a. ETEC, EPEC, EAEC, EIEC, EHEC
116
116. What kind of extra intestinal disease can be caused by Escherichia coli?
a. Urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, sepsis.
117
117. What are the causative agent of typhoid fever? (4 examples)
a. Salmonella Typhi and Salmonella Paratyphi A, B, C.
118
118. Which bacteria can cause salmonellosis?
a. Salmonella Enteritidis, Salmonella Typhimurium, Salmonella Choleraesuis
119
119. What is the causative agent of dysentery? (2 examples)
a. Shigella dysenteriae, Shigella flexneri, Shigella sonnei.
120
120. Which bacterium is the causative agent of plague?
a. Yersinia pestis.
121
121. What is the spreading way of the plague?
a. By the bite of the rat flea, by respiratory droplets.
122
122. What are the diseases caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae?
a. Lobar (Friedländer) pneumonia, wound infection, bloodstream infection, urinary tract
infection.
123
123. What is the causative agent of cholera?
a. Vibrio cholerae
124
124. What kind of Vibrio species can cause human diseases? (3 examples)
a. Vibrio cholera, Vibrio parahaemolyticus, Vibrio vulnificus.
125
125. What are the characteristic biochemical properties of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a. Obligate aerobic, oxidase positive.
126
126. Colony morphology of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a. Bacteria can produce water-soluble pigment that stain the culture media, the colonies have
grape like smells.
127
127. Microscopic morphology of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a. Gram-negative rod.
128
128. What are the most frequent diseases caused by Pseudomas aeruginosa?
a. Nosocomial lung infections, wound and blood stream infections.
129
129. What is the treatment of the diseases cause by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a. Multiresistant, based on antibiogram.
130
130. What is the most common source of the infection caused by Acinetobacter baumanii?
a. Hospital environment.
131
131. What does MACI mean in microbiology?
a. Multiresistant Acinetobacter baumannii
132
132. How can Legionella pneumophila spread?
a. By aerosol.
133
133. What is the diagnosis of Legionellosis?
a. By serology from blood, by immune chromatography from urine.
134
134. Which bacterium can cause chronic gastritis or stomach ulcer?
a. Helicobacter pylori.
135
135. What is the most important cultivable anaerobic member of the normal flora of the large
bowel?
a. Bacteroides fragilis.
136
136. Which genera belongs to the Spirochaetales order?
a. Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira.
137
137. What are the causative agents of Plaut-vincent angina?
a. Treponema vincentii and Fusobacteria.
138
138. What is the causative agent of syphilis?
a. Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum
139
139. How can syphilis spread?
a. By sexual contact, transplacental, by blood transfusion and by organ transplantation.
140
140. What is the first symptom in syphilis?
a. Ulcus durum – painless hard ulcer, enlarged lymph nodes.
141
141. In which stage of the syphilis can appear rush all over the body?
a. 2nd stage.
142
142. In which stages is syphilis contagious?
a. 1st and 2nd stages and in the first 2 years of the latency. At 3rd stage only in utero infections
may occure
143
143. When can develop neurosyphilis during the infection?
a. In all stages of the diseases can develop neuroyphilis.
144
144. What is the specific diagnosis of the syphilis?
a. ELISA, TPHA, TPPA
145
145. When can be used non treponemal serological reactions during the infection?
a. RPR and VDRL is used to determine the stages of syphilis
b. To detect the reinfection
c. To control the effectiveness of the therapy
146
146. What are the non-specific treponemal serological reactions?
a. RPR and VDRL
147
147. What kind of diseases can be caused by Borrelia?
a. Lyme diseases and relapsing fever
148
148. How can the Lyme disease spread?
a. By the bite of thick.
149
149. What are the causative agents of Lyme disease? (2 examples)
a. Borrelia burgdorferi, Borrelia afzelli, Borrelia garini
150
150. What is the causative of epidemic relapsing fever?
a. Borellia recurrentis.
151
151. What is the vector of Lyme diseases?
a. Tick
152
152. What is the vector of Borrelia recurrentis?
a. Body louse
153
153. What is the molecular background of relapsing fever?
a. Bacterial antigen changing.
154
154. What is the first symptom of Lyme diseases?
a. Erythema chronicum migrans
155
155. What is the causative agent of Weil’s diseases?
a. Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae.
156
156. What are the characteristic properties of the meningitis caused by Leptospira?
a. Serosus, non-purulent.
157
157. What is the source of the infection caused by Leptospira?
a. Zoonotic diseases, can spread by the urine of animals.
158
158. How can the Lyme diseases diagnosed?
a. By serology, ELISA screening test and fro confirmation immunoblot is used.
159
159. Which bacteria cannot have cell wall?
a. Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma.
160
160. Which bacteria can cause atypical pneumoniae?
a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophila.
161
161. What is the causative agent of typhus exanthematicus?
a. Rickettsia prowaczekii
162
162. What is the causative agent of Q-fever?
a. Coxiella burnettii
163
163. What is the causative agent of parrot fever?
a. Chlamydophila psittaci.
164
164. What is the causative agent of trachoma?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis, serotype A-C.
165
165. What kind of disease can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serotype L1-L3?
a. Lymphogranuloma venereum.
166
166. What is the effect of the bacterial AB exotoxins?
a. They are: neurotoxins, protein synthesis inhibitors or ion secretion enhancers.
167
167. What is the effect of the cholera toxin?
a. Increasing of the cAMP, enhancing the ion secretion
168
168. What are the causative agents of impetigo contagiosa?
a. S.aureus, S.pyogenes
169
169. What is the causative agent of erysipelas?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
170
170. What is the causative agent of Trachoma?
a. Chlamydia trachomatis A,B,C
171
171. What is the causative agent of Ophtalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum?
a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
172
172. List 4 capsulated bacteria from the list below!
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus pyogenes,
Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Listeria monocytogenes
173
173. How many percentage of the adults are carrier of Staphylococcus. aureus?
a. 20-30%
174
174. How many different kind (serotype) of capsule can be produced by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
a. 94 (accepted answer: 90-100)
175
175. What is the most common causative agent of community acquired pneumonia?
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
176
176. What kind of vaccines can be used to prevent invasive diseases caused by Streptococcus
pneumoniae
a. Prevenar-13: Streptococcus pneumoniae 13 type of capsule conjugated to toxoid –
recommended for new-borns and in elderly
b. Pneumovax: Streptococcus pneumoniae 23 type of capsule – recommended for adults and
teenagers.
177
1. What are the fungal cell components (3example)?
a. Cytoplasmic membrane with ergosterin, cell wall build up by chitin, glucan, or
cellulose.
178
2. Classification the fungi by morphology?
a. Unicellular or yeast, multicellular or mould and dimorphic
179
3. Characterisation of the dimorphic fungus
a. They grow like moulds at room temperature and grow like yeast at body
temperature.
180
4. List at least two asexual spore type.
a. Blastopore, conidia, arthrospore, spherule.
181
5. What is the cultivation temperature of the fungi?
a. 25°C and 37°C to detect the dimorphism.
182
6. What kind of culture media can be used to cultivate fungi?
a. Sabouraud culture media.
183
7. What are the content (2 example) of Sabouraud culture media?
a. Antifungal agents against environmental moulds, carbohydrates, antibiotics.
184
8. What kind of diseases can be caused by fungi?
a. Allergic reactions, intoxications, mycosis (tissue damage of fungi).
185
9. Classification of the mycosis?
a. Superficial, cutaneous, subcutaneous, systemic, and opportunistic mycosis.
186
10. What kind of staining can be used in mycology? (2 example)
a. Gram-, methylene blue-, India ink-, PAS-, Gömöri-Grocott staining.
187
11. Mode of action of the antifungal drugs?
a. Inhibition of ergosterin synthesis, pore formation on membrane, inhibition of
nucleic acid synthesis, inhibition of cell division
188
12. List three causative agent of systemic mycosis.
a. Coccidioides immitis, Histoplasma capsulatum, Blastomyces dermatitidis,
Paracoccidoides immitis
189
13. List two Candida species.
a. Candida albicans, C. tropicalis, C. krusei, C. glabrata, C. parapsilosis.
190
14. List three causative agent of opportunistic mycosis.
a. Candida sp, Cryptococcus neoformans, Pneumocystis jirovecii, Aspergillus sp.,
Penicillium sp., Mucor sp., Rhizopus sp
191
15. List two causative agent of dermatomycosis.
a. Trichopyton sp., Microsporum sp., Epidermophyton sp.
192
16. What kind of diseases can be caused by dermatophytes? (3 example)?
a. Tinea pedis, T. manus, T. capitis, T. corporis, T. faciei, T barbae.
193
17. List two 2 Trichophyton species.
a. Trichphyton rubrum, T. schonleinii, T. tonsurans, T. verrucosum
194
18. What are the source of the infection caused by dermatophytes?
a. Anthropophilic – human, geophilic – soil, zoophilic – animal
195
1. What are the development stages of the protozoa?
a. Trophozoit and cyst
196
2. What are the properties of the trophozoit?
a. Can move, feed, multiply and die
197
3. What are the properties of the cyst?
a. Is responsible for surviving in unfavourable environment, not showing biochemical
activity is a dormant structure
198
4. How can the protozoa be classified?
a. By the type of movement: amoeba, ciliate, flagellate and sporozoa
199
5. List two amoebas.
a. Entamoaeba sp., Acantamoeba sp., Naegleria sp.
200
6. What is the causative agent of amoebic dysentery?
a. Entamoeba histolytica
201
7. What can Entamoeba histolytica cause?
a. amoebic dysentery, liver, lung and brain abscess
202
8. Which protozoon can cause prostatitis?
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
203
9. Which protozoon can spread by sexual contact?
a. Trichomonas vaginalis
204
10. Which protozoa can spread by the bite of sand fly?
a. Leishmania sp.
205
11. What kind of disease can be caused by Leishmania sp.?
a. Cutan, mucocutan and visceral leishmaniosis
206
12. How can leishmaniosis diagnose?
a. Giemsa-staining of biopsied material
207
13. Treatment of leishmaniosis?
a. stibogluconate in combination with g-IFN and amphotericin-B
208
14. What is the final host of Toxoplasma gondii?
a. Cats
209
15. In which population can Toxoplasma cause serious disease?
a. In pregnant women and in immunocompromised population
210
16. What is the treatment of toxoplasmosis?
a. Spiramycin, pyrimethamine combined with sulphonamide
211
17. How can malaria spread?
a. By the bite of Anopheles mosquito, transpalcental and by transfusion
212
18. What are the symptoms of malaria (4 symptoms)?
a. periodic high fever, chills, head ache pain in joints and muscle, anaemia, hepato and
splenomegaly, kidney failure
213
19. How can malaria diagnose?
a. blood: thick droplet, thin film stained by Giemsa, IF, PCR
214
20. What is the treatment of malaria?
a. chloroquine, mefloquine and artemisin, hypnozoites by primaquine
215
21. Prevention of malaria by chemoprophylaxis?
a. chloroquine, mefloquine, doxycycline
216
22. Prevention of malaria by vaccine?
a. Available vaccine since 2018 against Plasmodium falciparum. The content of the vaccine is
a fusion protein
217
1. Classification of the helminths by morphology?
a. Flatworms: flukes and tapeworms; roundworms
218
2. What are the most characteristic properties of the flukes (3 example)?
a. they are short, flat, leaf shaped, hermaphrodites, do developed digestive system
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3. What is the most common intermediate host of the flukes?
a. water snail
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4. What is the causative agent of fascioliasis?
a. Fasciola hepatica
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5. What is the treatment of fascioliasis?
a. bithionol or triclabendazole
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6. What is the intermediate host of Taenia saginata?
a. cattle
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7. What is the intermediate host of Taenia solium?
a. pig
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8. What kind of human diseases cab be caused by Taenia solium? (2 example)
a. tape worm infection and, cysticercus cellulosae
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9. What is the treatment of taeniasis?
a. Niclosamide, mebendazole
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10. Which helminth can cause itchiness in anus?
a. Enterobius vermicularis
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11. How can be treated the infection caused by Enterobius vermicularis?
a. By mebendazole
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12. How can be diagnosed the infection caused by Enterobius vermicularis?
a. by sticky tape or Scotch tape
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13. Which helminth can cause protein deficiency (Kwashiorkor syndrome)?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
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14. What kind of human disease can be caused by Toxocara canis?
a. visceral larva migrans and ocular larva migrans syndrome
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15. What kind of specimen can be used to diagnose the Toxocara infection?
a. Blood for serology
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16. What kind of helminthic infection can spread from carnivore animals to humans?
a. Trichinella spiralis
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17. What is the diagnosis of trichinellosis?
a. Serology from blood
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18. What is the treatment of the Trichinella infection?
a. mebendazole, albendazole and can acts only on intestinal helminths
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1. What kind of disease can be caused by adenoviruses (3 examples)?
a. pharyngitis, pneumonia, pertussis syndrome, pharyngoconjuctival fever, acute haemorrhagic cystitis, gastroenteritis
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2. How can parvoviruses spread?
a. by respiratory droplets
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3. What kind of disease can be caused by parvoviruses (3 examples)?
a. erythema infectiosum, hydrops fetalis, aplastic anaemia
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4. What kind of diseases can be caused by high-risk group papillomaviruses?
a. cervix cancer, tumour in oral cavity
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5. What kind of diseases can be caused by low-risk group papillomaviruses?
a. condyloma acuminatum, warts
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6. What can HHV1 (Herpes simplex virus 1) cause?
a. herpes labialis, herpes simplex dermatitis, eczema herpeticum, herpes gladiatorum,
herpetic whitlow
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7. What can HHV2 (Herpes simplex virus 2) cause?
a. herpes genitalis, neonatal herpes, encephalitis
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8. How can HHV1 and HHV2 infections treated?
a. by acyclovir
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9. What can VZV (Varicella Zooster virus) cause?
a. chickenpox and shingles
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10. How can chickenpox prevented?
a. By vaccine (live attenuated)
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11. What can EBV (Epstein-Barr virus) cause?
a. mononucleosis infectiosa, Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharingeal carcinoma, oral hairy
leucoplakia
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12. What can CMV (Cytomegalovirus) cause?
a. hepatitis, pancreatitis, pneumonitis, nephritis, myocarditis, encephalitis, chorioretinitis,
oesophagitis, colitis, congenital infections
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13. What can HHV-6 cause?
a. encephalitis, pneumonitis, chorioretinitis, exanthema subitum or roseola infantum
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14. What can HHV-7 cause?
a. encephalitis, flaccid paralysis, hepatitis, gastritis, lymphadenopathy, diarrhoea, pityriasis
rosea
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15. What can HHV-8 cause?
a. Kaposi-sarcoma, lymphoma
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16. How can Hepatitis B virus spread?
a. by parenteral way, by sexual contact or perinatal
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17. How can Hepatitis B virus infection treated?
a. by interferon, by nucleotide analogues
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18. How can Molluscum contagiosum virus spread and what can cause?
a. by direct contact and cause benign tumour of the skin
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19. What can Poliovirus cause?
a. aseptic meningitis, poliomyelitis, post-polio syndrome
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20. What can Coxsackie A and B viruses cause?
a. A: herpangina, hand-foot-mouth disease, acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis
B: pleurodynia or Bronholm disease, myocarditis, pancreatitis
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21. What can Rhinoviruses cause?
a. sore throat, running nose, coughing
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22. How can Hepatitis A virus spread?
a. by faecal oral rout, by contaminated food, by contaminated water
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23. How can Caliciviruses spread and what can cause?
a. by faecal oral rout, by contaminated water, by aerosol. Can cause diarrhoea vomiting.
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24. Hon can Rotaviruses spread and what can cause?
a. by faecal oral rout and can cause diarrhoea and vomiting
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25. How can Hepatitis E virus spread and what can cause?
a. by contaminated water, by raw pig and boar meat, rarely by blood transfusion and
transplacental. Can cause acute hepatitis
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26. How can spread the causative agent of yellow fever?
a. by mosquito bite from human to human or from monkey to human.
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27. How can Hepatitis C virus spread?
a. by parenteral way, by blood, by tattooing
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28. Which population is at risk during the Rubella virus infection?
a. pregnant women because can cause in utero infections (congenital rubella syndrome)
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29. How can Influenza viruses spread and what can cause (3 examples)?
a. By respiratory droplets. Symptoms: high fever, fatigue, muscle pain, head ache, sometimesgastrointestinal symptoms.
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30. How can Morbillivirus spread and what can cause?
a. by respiratory droplets and can cause measles with exanthemas and Koplic spots.
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31. What kind of complication may develop during measles?
a. pneumonia, encephalitis and SSPE: subacute sclerotizing panencephalitis
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32. How can Mumpsvirus spread and what are the symptoms?
a. by respiratory droplets. Symptoms are: inflammation of salivary gland, pancreatitis, orchitis,
deafness
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33. What is the causative agent of rabies?
a. Lyssa virus.
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34. How can rabies prevented?
a. by vaccine administered post exposure
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35. What is the treatment of HIV infection?
a. By combination of nucleotide analogue and protease inhibitors
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36. How can HTLV-1 spread?
a. by sexual contact, by blood and transplacental or by breast-feeding
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37. How can Dengue-fever virus spread?
a. by mosquito bite.
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38. List two members of Flaviviruses.
a. Yellow-fever virus, Dengue-fever virus, tick born encephalitis virus, Zika-virus.
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39. What does arbovirus mean?
a. arthropod born viruses.
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40. List two diseases caused by prions
a. kuru, fatal familiar insomnia, Creutzfeldt–Jacob-syndrome, bovine spongiform encephalitis
