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Micro-minimal Qs > Minimals > Flashcards

Minimals Flashcards

1
Q

What does sterilization mean?

A

Killing procedure of any kind of germs

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2
Q

What does disinfection mean?

A

Procedure where the number of the germs are reduced to a safety level

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3
Q

Which parameters can influence the effectivity of the sterilisation?

A

The number of the germs, the resistance of the germs, the concentration of the
disinfectants, the presence of the organic materials, the initial time, the presence of the
biofilm.

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4
Q

Parameters of the hot-air sterilisation cupboard protocol?

A

180°C; 1 hour, 160°C; 2 hours, 140°C; 3 hours.

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5
Q

Parameters of the autoclaving?

A

+ 1 atm overpressure, 121°C, 20-30 minutes or 134°C, +2 atm overpressure 10 minutes

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6
Q

Chemical agents used for gas sterilisation?

A

Etilene oxide, formaldehyde, beta-propiolacton

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7
Q

The theoretical background of plasma sterilisation?

A

Hydrogen-peroxide in high electric field will form plasma stage. The produced free
radicals will kill the microbes. At the end of the procedure will be produced water, oxygen
and other nontoxic products.

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8
Q

Biological method used for checking the effectivity of the sterilisation.

A

By Bacillus/Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores. If the procedure was performed in correct
way, the spores cannot be cultivated.

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9
Q

Detection of the presence of pyrogenic material in drugs?

A

LAL test; The blood of the horseshoe crab will coagulate in the presence of the LPS

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10
Q

What are the disinfectants?

A

Chemical agents used on inanimate/non-living surfaces.

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11
Q

What are the antiseptic agents?

A

Chemical agents used disinfection on animate (tissue, skin, mucous membrane) surfaces

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12
Q

What does serological reaction mean?

A

Reaction based on the antigen-antibody reaction performed in vitro.

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13
Q

What does agglutination mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is cell mediated.

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14
Q

What are the bacterial cell surface antigens?

A

O: cell wall, H: flagella, K: capsule

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15
Q

What does antibody titre mean?

A

The highest dilution fold or the lowest antibody concentration where we can see in vitro
antigen-antibody reaction.

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16
Q

What does precipitation mean?

A

Serological reaction where the antigen is soluble (enzyme, toxin or virus particle)

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17
Q

. What does iatrogenic infection mean?

A

Infection caused by medical staff during the investigation or treatment

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18
Q

What does nosocomial infection mean?

A

Infection occurred in hospital after 48 hours of the hospitalisation

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19
Q

What are the contents of the vaccines? (3 example)

A

a. Live attenuated microbe; killed microbe, toxoid, antigens of the microbe.

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20
Q
  1. What does native examination of the microbe mean in microbiology?
A

a. The microbe is examined without killing procedure.

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21
Q
  1. What kind of information can we got by light microscopically examination? (3 example)
A

The size of the microbe, the shape of the microbe, the motility, the staining can be
examined.

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22
Q
  1. The solutions of the Gram-stain?
A

a. Sodium oxalate, cristal violet, Iodine solution, 96% of ethanol, fuchsin or safranin.

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23
Q
  1. What kind of devices can be used for anaerobic cultivation?
A

a. Anaerostate, Gas-pack jar, high agar, anaerobic chamber.

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24
Q

a. Anaerostate, Gas-pack jar, high agar, anaerobic chamber.

A

bacteriostatic: inhibits bacterial growth

b. bactericide: kills bacteria

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25
Q
  1. Definition: selective toxicity
A

a. the antibiotic has an effect only on the bacteria, but not on the human host

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26
Q
  1. Chemotherapeutic index?
A

a. dosis tolerata maxima (DTM)/dosis curativa minima (DCM)

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27
Q
  1. Cell wall synthesis inhibitor antibiotics?
A

a. Penicillin, Cephalosporin, Carbapenem, Glycopeptide.

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28
Q
  1. Glycopeptide antibiotics
A

a. vancomycin, teicoplanin

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29
Q
  1. Membrane function alternating antibiotics are:
A

a. Polymyxines

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30
Q
  1. What are the protein synthesis inhibitor antibiotics? (3 example)
A

a. Aminoglycosides, Tetracycline, Macrolide, Chloramphenicol, Linezolid

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31
Q
  1. Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors are: (2 example)
A

a. Quinolones, rifampicin, sulphonamide, trimethoprim.

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32
Q
  1. Three possible ways of horizontal gene transfer
A

a. conjugation (plasmid)
b. transduction (bacteriophage)
c. transformation (uptake of naked DNA from the environment)

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33
Q
  1. Antibiotic resistance mechanism are:
A

a. Enzymatic degradation or modification of the antibiotics, efflux pump, modifying of the
antibiotic binding site

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34
Q
  1. What does MRSA mean?
A

a. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

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35
Q
  1. What does ESBL mean?
A

a. Extended spectrum of beta lactamase enzyme.

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36
Q
  1. What does MIC mean?
A

a. Minimal bacteriostatic concentration of an antibiotic measured in ug/ml.

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37
Q
  1. What does MBC mean?
A

a. Minimal bactericidal concentration of an antibiotic measured in ug/ml.

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38
Q
  1. Definitions: MBL, MACI, PACI
A

a. MBL: metallo-beta-lactamase (=carbapenemase)
b. MACI: multi-resistant Acinetobacter
c. PACI: pan-resistant Acinetobacter

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39
Q
  1. Which 3 vaccines contain capsular polysaccharide?
A

a. Hib (against Haemophilus influenzae type b)
b. Prevenar / Pneumovax (against 13 / 23 serotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae)
c. meningococcus vaccines (against serotypes ACWY) – but not B!

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40
Q
  1. What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiological diagnostic laboratory in the case of
    typical pneumonia?
A

a. Sputum and haemoculture

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41
Q
  1. What kind of specimen can be sent to the microbiology diagnostic laboratory in the case of
    atypical pneumonia?
A

a. Blood, urine, broncho-alveolar lavage.

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42
Q
  1. What kind of bacterial infection can be treated by antitoxin? (2 example)
A

a. Infections caused by bacterial exotoxins: tetanus, botulism, diphtheria

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43
Q
  1. Which bacteria can be differentiated with the catalase test?
A

a. Staphylococci (+) and Streptococci (-)

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44
Q
  1. Which bacteria can be differentiated with the coagulase test?
A

a. Staphylococcus aureus (+) and the other staphylococcus species (-, so called „coagulasenegative staphylococci”)

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45
Q
  1. Microscopic morphology of Staphylococci
A

a. Gram-positive cocci, arranged in grape-like structures

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46
Q
  1. Colony morphology of Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar plate
A

a. average size, round colonies with butter consistency, golden pigment production and betahaemolysis

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47
Q
  1. What are the non-toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus? (3 example)
A

a. Protein A, endocoagulase (clumping factor), exocoagulase, adhezins, teicoic acid,
hialuronidase, protease, lipase, DN-ase

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48
Q
  1. What are the toxic virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus?
A

a. Leucocidin, toxic shock syndrome toxin, exfoliative toxin, enterotoxin, haemolysin

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49
Q
  1. Disease (non toxin mediated) caused by Staphylococcus aureus?
A

a. Folliculitis, furuncle, carbuncle, impetigo, pneumonia, osteomyelitis, food poisoning.

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50
Q
  1. Diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus exotoxins? (2 example)
A

a. Food poisoning, scalded skin syndrome, toxic shock syndrome

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51
Q
  1. List at least 2 coagulase-negative staphylococcus species (from the list provided below)!
A

a. S. epidermidis,
S. saprophyticus,
S. haemolyticus,
S. lugdunensis

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52
Q
  1. Diseases caused by coagulase negative staphylococci?
A

a. Nosocomial infections, biofilm production on the surface of plastic devices.

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53
Q
  1. Which bacterium can cause „Honeymoon cystitis”?
A

a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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54
Q
  1. Colony morphology of Streptococcus pyogenes on blood agar plate
A

a. small, pin-point colonies, surrounded by large, strong beta-haemolytic zone

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55
Q
  1. Which streptococci show beta-haemolysis?
A

a. Streptococcus pyogenes, Streptococcus agalactiae

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56
Q
  1. Which streptococci show alpha-haemolysis?
A

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae and viridans streptococci (e.g. S. mutans, S. mitis, S. salivarius)

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57
Q
  1. Which species is the Lancefield group A streptococcus?
A

a. Streptococcus pyogenes

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58
Q
  1. Which species is the Lancefield group B streptococcus?
A

a. Streptococcus agalactiae

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59
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of scarlet fever?
A

a. Streptococcus pyogenes?

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60
Q
  1. Which bacterial virulence factor is the causative agent of scarlet fever?
A

a. Streptococcus pyrogenic exotoxin or erythrogenic toxin

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61
Q
  1. What is the capsule of S. pyogenes made of?
A

a. hyaluronic acid

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62
Q
  1. Diseases (non toxin mediated) cause by Streptococcus pyogenes? (3 examples)
A

a. Pharyngitis, tonsillitis, sinusitis, impetigo, erysipelas,

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63
Q
  1. What kind of post streptococcal infections can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
A

a. Acute rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis

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64
Q
  1. Which two streptococcus species show 100% penicillin sensitivity still now?
A

a. Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus agalactiae

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65
Q
  1. What kind of disease can be caused in new-borns by Streptococcus agalactiae?
A

a. In new born meningitis, sepsis, pneumonia.

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66
Q
  1. Which bacterium is the leading cause of neonatal meningitis?
A

a. Streptococcus agalactiae

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67
Q
  1. Microscopic morphology of Streptococcus pneumoniae
A

a. Gram-positive diplococci

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68
Q
  1. How can be prevented the invasive diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A

a. By 23 valent polysaccharide capsule vaccine or by 13 valent conjugated vaccine.

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69
Q
  1. Which two bacteria can be differentiated based on their optochin sensitivity / resistance?
A

a. S. pneumoniae (S) and viridans streptococci (R)

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70
Q
  1. What kind of disease can be cause by viridans group streptococci?
A

a. Dental decay or endocarditis.

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71
Q
  1. Which are the 2 most frequent human pathogenic Enterococcus species?
A

a. E. faecalis and E. faecium

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72
Q
  1. Microscopic morphology of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A

a. Gram-negative, non capsulated diplococci.

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73
Q
  1. What kind of culture media can be used to cultivate Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
A

a. Chocolate agar or Thayer Martin agar.

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74
Q
  1. Microscopic morphology of Neisseria meningitidis?
A

a. Gram-negative, capsulated, diplococci.

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75
Q
  1. How can Neisseria meningitidis spread ?
A

a. By respiratory droplets and will colonize the nasopharynx.

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76
Q
  1. What kind of disease can be caused by Neisseria meningitidis?
A

a. Sepsis, meningitis, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome.

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77
Q
  1. What kind of diseases can be caused by Nesseria gonorrhoeae?
A

a. Gonorrhoea, blenorrhoea neonatorum, proctitis, orchitis.

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78
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome?
A

a. Neisseria meningitidis

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79
Q
  1. What kind of tests can be performed from liquor in case of Neisseria meningitidis infection?
A

a. Microscopic examination, Gram-stain, latex agglutination.

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80
Q
  1. What can be do prophylactic with the contact person who suffering by Neisseria meningitidis
    infection?
A

a. Chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin or ciprofloxacin.

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81
Q
  1. What can cause Nesseria gonorrhoeae in newborns?
A

a. Ophthalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum

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82
Q
  1. Which serotype of Haemophilus influenzae can cause invasive infection?
A

a. The Haemophilus influenzae with capsule „b” serotype.

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83
Q
  1. How can be prevented the invasive infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae strains?
A

a. By Hib vaccine

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84
Q
  1. What kind of disease can be caused by Haemophillus ducreyi?
A

a. Ulcus molle (chancroid).

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85
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of whooping cough?
A

a. Bordetella pertussis.

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86
Q
  1. What are the virulence factor of Bordetella pertussis? (2 examples)
A

a. Fimbria, pertactin, pertussis toxin, tracheal cytotoxin, dermatonecrotic toxin.

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87
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of tularemia?
A

a. Francisella tularensis

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88
Q
  1. What are the causative agents of human brucellosis? (2 examples)
A

a. Brucella abortus, B. melitensis, B. suis, B. canis

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89
Q
  1. What are the diseases caused by Bacillus anthracis? (2 examples)
A

a. Cutaneous anthrax, pulmonary anthrax, gastrointestinal anthrax.

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90
Q
  1. What kind of disease can be caused by Bacillus cereus?
A

a. Food poisoning (vomiting, diarrhoea), wound infection.

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91
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of pseudomembranosus colitist?
A

a. Clostridium difficile

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92
Q
  1. What kind of bacteria can cause flaccid paralysis?
A

a. Clostridium botulinum

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93
Q
  1. What kind of bacteria can cause spastic paralysis?
A

a. Clostridium tetani

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94
Q
  1. What is the treatment of Botulism?
A

a. Giving polyvalent antitoxin.

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95
Q
  1. What is the treatment of pseudomembranosus colitis?
A

a. Vancomycin per os, metronidazole, faecal transplantation.

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96
Q
  1. Which bacteria can cause gas gangrene? (2 example)
A

a. Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium histolyticum, Clostridium septicum.

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97
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of diphtheria?
A

a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae.

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98
Q
  1. How can be detected the toxin of Corynebacterium diphtheriae?
A

a. By Elek’s-test, Römer-test (in guinea pig).

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99
Q
  1. What is the treatment of diphtheria?
A

a. Passive immunisation, giving antibiotics, artificial ventilation if is necessary.

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100
Q
  1. Which bacteria belong to diphtheroid group? (2 examples)
A

a. Corynebacterium pseudodiphtheriticum, Corynebacterium ulcerans, Corynebacterium
minutissimum, Corynebacterium urealyticum.

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101
Q
  1. What are the diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes?
A

a. Meningitis, sepsis, granulomatosis infantiseptica.

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102
Q
  1. What are the diseases caused by Listeria monocytogenes in adults?
A

a. Gastrointestinal symptoms, meningitis, sepsis, endocarditis

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103
Q
  1. What is the treatment of Listeriosis?
A

a. Ampicillin-gentamicin is the drug of choice.

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104
Q
  1. Which bacteria can cause dental decay?
A

a. Lactobacilli and Streptococcus mutans.

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105
Q
  1. Which bacteria can cause human tuberculosis? (3 examples)
A

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, mycobacterium bovis, Mycobacterium africanum.

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106
Q
  1. What kind of staining can be used to stain mycobacteria?
A

a. Ziehl-Neelsen staining.

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107
Q
  1. How long can be cultivated the causative agent of human tuberculosis on LowensteinJensen culture media?
A

a. 6-8 weeks.

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108
Q
  1. How can be prevented the human tuberculosis?
A

a. By BCG vaccine.

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109
Q
  1. What are the facultative pathogenic mycobacteria? (2 examples)
A

a. Mycobacterium avium komplex, Mycobacterium kansasii, Mycobacterium marinum,
Mycobacterium ulcerans.

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110
Q
  1. Which mycobacteria is apathogenic?
A

a. Mycobacterium smegmatis.

111
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of leprosy?
A

a. Mycobacterium leprae.

112
Q
  1. What are the types of leprosy?
A

a. Tuberculoid and lepromatosus leprosy.

113
Q
  1. What is the treatment of leprosy?
A

a. Dapson, clofazamin, rifampicin.

114
Q
  1. What are the most important Actinomyces species? (1 example)
A

a. Actinomyces israelii, Actinomyces naeslundii, Actinomyces odontolyticus.

115
Q
  1. Which E. coli can be toxin producer? (3 examples)
A

a. ETEC, EPEC, EAEC, EIEC, EHEC

116
Q
  1. What kind of extra intestinal disease can be caused by Escherichia coli?
A

a. Urinary tract infections, neonatal meningitis, sepsis.

117
Q
  1. What are the causative agent of typhoid fever? (4 examples)
A

a. Salmonella Typhi and Salmonella Paratyphi A, B, C.

118
Q
  1. Which bacteria can cause salmonellosis?
A

a. Salmonella Enteritidis, Salmonella Typhimurium, Salmonella Choleraesuis

119
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of dysentery? (2 examples)
A

a. Shigella dysenteriae, Shigella flexneri, Shigella sonnei.

120
Q
  1. Which bacterium is the causative agent of plague?
A

a. Yersinia pestis.

121
Q
  1. What is the spreading way of the plague?
A

a. By the bite of the rat flea, by respiratory droplets.

122
Q
  1. What are the diseases caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae?
A

a. Lobar (Friedländer) pneumonia, wound infection, bloodstream infection, urinary tract
infection.

123
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of cholera?
A

a. Vibrio cholerae

124
Q
  1. What kind of Vibrio species can cause human diseases? (3 examples)
A

a. Vibrio cholera, Vibrio parahaemolyticus, Vibrio vulnificus.

125
Q
  1. What are the characteristic biochemical properties of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A

a. Obligate aerobic, oxidase positive.

126
Q
  1. Colony morphology of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A

a. Bacteria can produce water-soluble pigment that stain the culture media, the colonies have
grape like smells.

127
Q
  1. Microscopic morphology of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A

a. Gram-negative rod.

128
Q
  1. What are the most frequent diseases caused by Pseudomas aeruginosa?
A

a. Nosocomial lung infections, wound and blood stream infections.

129
Q
  1. What is the treatment of the diseases cause by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A

a. Multiresistant, based on antibiogram.

130
Q
  1. What is the most common source of the infection caused by Acinetobacter baumanii?
A

a. Hospital environment.

131
Q
  1. What does MACI mean in microbiology?
A

a. Multiresistant Acinetobacter baumannii

132
Q
  1. How can Legionella pneumophila spread?
A

a. By aerosol.

133
Q
  1. What is the diagnosis of Legionellosis?
A

a. By serology from blood, by immune chromatography from urine.

134
Q
  1. Which bacterium can cause chronic gastritis or stomach ulcer?
A

a. Helicobacter pylori.

135
Q
  1. What is the most important cultivable anaerobic member of the normal flora of the large
    bowel?
A

a. Bacteroides fragilis.

136
Q
  1. Which genera belongs to the Spirochaetales order?
A

a. Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira.

137
Q
  1. What are the causative agents of Plaut-vincent angina?
A

a. Treponema vincentii and Fusobacteria.

138
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of syphilis?
A

a. Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum

139
Q
  1. How can syphilis spread?
A

a. By sexual contact, transplacental, by blood transfusion and by organ transplantation.

140
Q
  1. What is the first symptom in syphilis?
A

a. Ulcus durum – painless hard ulcer, enlarged lymph nodes.

141
Q
  1. In which stage of the syphilis can appear rush all over the body?
A

a. 2nd stage.

142
Q
  1. In which stages is syphilis contagious?
A

a. 1st and 2nd stages and in the first 2 years of the latency. At 3rd stage only in utero infections
may occure

143
Q
  1. When can develop neurosyphilis during the infection?
A

a. In all stages of the diseases can develop neuroyphilis.

144
Q
  1. What is the specific diagnosis of the syphilis?
A

a. ELISA, TPHA, TPPA

145
Q
  1. When can be used non treponemal serological reactions during the infection?
A

a. RPR and VDRL is used to determine the stages of syphilis
b. To detect the reinfection
c. To control the effectiveness of the therapy

146
Q
  1. What are the non-specific treponemal serological reactions?
A

a. RPR and VDRL

147
Q
  1. What kind of diseases can be caused by Borrelia?
A

a. Lyme diseases and relapsing fever

148
Q
  1. How can the Lyme disease spread?
A

a. By the bite of thick.

149
Q
  1. What are the causative agents of Lyme disease? (2 examples)
A

a. Borrelia burgdorferi, Borrelia afzelli, Borrelia garini

150
Q
  1. What is the causative of epidemic relapsing fever?
A

a. Borellia recurrentis.

151
Q
  1. What is the vector of Lyme diseases?
A

a. Tick

152
Q
  1. What is the vector of Borrelia recurrentis?
A

a. Body louse

153
Q
  1. What is the molecular background of relapsing fever?
A

a. Bacterial antigen changing.

154
Q
  1. What is the first symptom of Lyme diseases?
A

a. Erythema chronicum migrans

155
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of Weil’s diseases?
A

a. Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae.

156
Q
  1. What are the characteristic properties of the meningitis caused by Leptospira?
A

a. Serosus, non-purulent.

157
Q
  1. What is the source of the infection caused by Leptospira?
A

a. Zoonotic diseases, can spread by the urine of animals.

158
Q
  1. How can the Lyme diseases diagnosed?
A

a. By serology, ELISA screening test and fro confirmation immunoblot is used.

159
Q
  1. Which bacteria cannot have cell wall?
A

a. Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma.

160
Q
  1. Which bacteria can cause atypical pneumoniae?
A

a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophila.

161
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of typhus exanthematicus?
A

a. Rickettsia prowaczekii

162
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of Q-fever?
A

a. Coxiella burnettii

163
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of parrot fever?
A

a. Chlamydophila psittaci.

164
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of trachoma?
A

a. Chlamydia trachomatis, serotype A-C.

165
Q
  1. What kind of disease can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis serotype L1-L3?
A

a. Lymphogranuloma venereum.

166
Q
  1. What is the effect of the bacterial AB exotoxins?
A

a. They are: neurotoxins, protein synthesis inhibitors or ion secretion enhancers.

167
Q
  1. What is the effect of the cholera toxin?
A

a. Increasing of the cAMP, enhancing the ion secretion

168
Q
  1. What are the causative agents of impetigo contagiosa?
A

a. S.aureus, S.pyogenes

169
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of erysipelas?
A

a. Streptococcus pyogenes

170
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of Trachoma?
A

a. Chlamydia trachomatis A,B,C

171
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of Ophtalmoblenorrhoea neonatorum?
A

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

172
Q
  1. List 4 capsulated bacteria from the list below!
A

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Streptococcus agalactiae, Streptococcus pyogenes,
Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria meningitidis, Listeria monocytogenes

173
Q
  1. How many percentage of the adults are carrier of Staphylococcus. aureus?
A

a. 20-30%

174
Q
  1. How many different kind (serotype) of capsule can be produced by Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A

a. 94 (accepted answer: 90-100)

175
Q
  1. What is the most common causative agent of community acquired pneumonia?
A

a. Streptococcus pneumoniae

176
Q
  1. What kind of vaccines can be used to prevent invasive diseases caused by Streptococcus
    pneumoniae
A

a. Prevenar-13: Streptococcus pneumoniae 13 type of capsule conjugated to toxoid –
recommended for new-borns and in elderly
b. Pneumovax: Streptococcus pneumoniae 23 type of capsule – recommended for adults and
teenagers.

177
Q
  1. What are the fungal cell components (3example)?
A

a. Cytoplasmic membrane with ergosterin, cell wall build up by chitin, glucan, or
cellulose.

178
Q
  1. Classification the fungi by morphology?
A

a. Unicellular or yeast, multicellular or mould and dimorphic

179
Q
  1. Characterisation of the dimorphic fungus
A

a. They grow like moulds at room temperature and grow like yeast at body
temperature.

180
Q
  1. List at least two asexual spore type.
A

a. Blastopore, conidia, arthrospore, spherule.

181
Q
  1. What is the cultivation temperature of the fungi?
A

a. 25°C and 37°C to detect the dimorphism.

182
Q
  1. What kind of culture media can be used to cultivate fungi?
A

a. Sabouraud culture media.

183
Q
  1. What are the content (2 example) of Sabouraud culture media?
A

a. Antifungal agents against environmental moulds, carbohydrates, antibiotics.

184
Q
  1. What kind of diseases can be caused by fungi?
A

a. Allergic reactions, intoxications, mycosis (tissue damage of fungi).

185
Q
  1. Classification of the mycosis?
A

a. Superficial, cutaneous, subcutaneous, systemic, and opportunistic mycosis.

186
Q
  1. What kind of staining can be used in mycology? (2 example)
A

a. Gram-, methylene blue-, India ink-, PAS-, Gömöri-Grocott staining.

187
Q
  1. Mode of action of the antifungal drugs?
A

a. Inhibition of ergosterin synthesis, pore formation on membrane, inhibition of
nucleic acid synthesis, inhibition of cell division

188
Q
  1. List three causative agent of systemic mycosis.
A

a. Coccidioides immitis, Histoplasma capsulatum, Blastomyces dermatitidis,
Paracoccidoides immitis

189
Q
  1. List two Candida species.
A

a. Candida albicans, C. tropicalis, C. krusei, C. glabrata, C. parapsilosis.

190
Q
  1. List three causative agent of opportunistic mycosis.
A

a. Candida sp, Cryptococcus neoformans, Pneumocystis jirovecii, Aspergillus sp.,
Penicillium sp., Mucor sp., Rhizopus sp

191
Q
  1. List two causative agent of dermatomycosis.
A

a. Trichopyton sp., Microsporum sp., Epidermophyton sp.

192
Q
  1. What kind of diseases can be caused by dermatophytes? (3 example)?
A

a. Tinea pedis, T. manus, T. capitis, T. corporis, T. faciei, T barbae.

193
Q
  1. List two 2 Trichophyton species.
A

a. Trichphyton rubrum, T. schonleinii, T. tonsurans, T. verrucosum

194
Q
  1. What are the source of the infection caused by dermatophytes?
A

a. Anthropophilic – human, geophilic – soil, zoophilic – animal

195
Q
  1. What are the development stages of the protozoa?
A

a. Trophozoit and cyst

196
Q
  1. What are the properties of the trophozoit?
A

a. Can move, feed, multiply and die

197
Q
  1. What are the properties of the cyst?
A

a. Is responsible for surviving in unfavourable environment, not showing biochemical
activity is a dormant structure

198
Q
  1. How can the protozoa be classified?
A

a. By the type of movement: amoeba, ciliate, flagellate and sporozoa

199
Q
  1. List two amoebas.
A

a. Entamoaeba sp., Acantamoeba sp., Naegleria sp.

200
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of amoebic dysentery?
A

a. Entamoeba histolytica

201
Q
  1. What can Entamoeba histolytica cause?
A

a. amoebic dysentery, liver, lung and brain abscess

202
Q
  1. Which protozoon can cause prostatitis?
A

a. Trichomonas vaginalis

203
Q
  1. Which protozoon can spread by sexual contact?
A

a. Trichomonas vaginalis

204
Q
  1. Which protozoa can spread by the bite of sand fly?
A

a. Leishmania sp.

205
Q
  1. What kind of disease can be caused by Leishmania sp.?
A

a. Cutan, mucocutan and visceral leishmaniosis

206
Q
  1. How can leishmaniosis diagnose?
A

a. Giemsa-staining of biopsied material

207
Q
  1. Treatment of leishmaniosis?
A

a. stibogluconate in combination with g-IFN and amphotericin-B

208
Q
  1. What is the final host of Toxoplasma gondii?
A

a. Cats

209
Q
  1. In which population can Toxoplasma cause serious disease?
A

a. In pregnant women and in immunocompromised population

210
Q
  1. What is the treatment of toxoplasmosis?
A

a. Spiramycin, pyrimethamine combined with sulphonamide

211
Q
  1. How can malaria spread?
A

a. By the bite of Anopheles mosquito, transpalcental and by transfusion

212
Q
  1. What are the symptoms of malaria (4 symptoms)?
A

a. periodic high fever, chills, head ache pain in joints and muscle, anaemia, hepato and
splenomegaly, kidney failure

213
Q
  1. How can malaria diagnose?
A

a. blood: thick droplet, thin film stained by Giemsa, IF, PCR

214
Q
  1. What is the treatment of malaria?
A

a. chloroquine, mefloquine and artemisin, hypnozoites by primaquine

215
Q
  1. Prevention of malaria by chemoprophylaxis?
A

a. chloroquine, mefloquine, doxycycline

216
Q
  1. Prevention of malaria by vaccine?
A

a. Available vaccine since 2018 against Plasmodium falciparum. The content of the vaccine is
a fusion protein

217
Q
  1. Classification of the helminths by morphology?
A

a. Flatworms: flukes and tapeworms; roundworms

218
Q
  1. What are the most characteristic properties of the flukes (3 example)?
A

a. they are short, flat, leaf shaped, hermaphrodites, do developed digestive system

219
Q
  1. What is the most common intermediate host of the flukes?
A

a. water snail

220
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of fascioliasis?
A

a. Fasciola hepatica

221
Q
  1. What is the treatment of fascioliasis?
A

a. bithionol or triclabendazole

222
Q
  1. What is the intermediate host of Taenia saginata?
A

a. cattle

223
Q
  1. What is the intermediate host of Taenia solium?
A

a. pig

224
Q
  1. What kind of human diseases cab be caused by Taenia solium? (2 example)
A

a. tape worm infection and, cysticercus cellulosae

225
Q
  1. What is the treatment of taeniasis?
A

a. Niclosamide, mebendazole

226
Q
  1. Which helminth can cause itchiness in anus?
A

a. Enterobius vermicularis

227
Q
  1. How can be treated the infection caused by Enterobius vermicularis?
A

a. By mebendazole

228
Q
  1. How can be diagnosed the infection caused by Enterobius vermicularis?
A

a. by sticky tape or Scotch tape

229
Q
  1. Which helminth can cause protein deficiency (Kwashiorkor syndrome)?
A

a. Ascaris lumbricoides

230
Q
  1. What kind of human disease can be caused by Toxocara canis?
A

a. visceral larva migrans and ocular larva migrans syndrome

231
Q
  1. What kind of specimen can be used to diagnose the Toxocara infection?
A

a. Blood for serology

232
Q
  1. What kind of helminthic infection can spread from carnivore animals to humans?
A

a. Trichinella spiralis

233
Q
  1. What is the diagnosis of trichinellosis?
A

a. Serology from blood

234
Q
  1. What is the treatment of the Trichinella infection?
A

a. mebendazole, albendazole and can acts only on intestinal helminths

235
Q
  1. What kind of disease can be caused by adenoviruses (3 examples)?
A

a. pharyngitis, pneumonia, pertussis syndrome, pharyngoconjuctival fever, acute haemorrhagic cystitis, gastroenteritis

236
Q
  1. How can parvoviruses spread?
A

a. by respiratory droplets

237
Q
  1. What kind of disease can be caused by parvoviruses (3 examples)?
A

a. erythema infectiosum, hydrops fetalis, aplastic anaemia

238
Q
  1. What kind of diseases can be caused by high-risk group papillomaviruses?
A

a. cervix cancer, tumour in oral cavity

239
Q
  1. What kind of diseases can be caused by low-risk group papillomaviruses?
A

a. condyloma acuminatum, warts

240
Q
  1. What can HHV1 (Herpes simplex virus 1) cause?
A

a. herpes labialis, herpes simplex dermatitis, eczema herpeticum, herpes gladiatorum,
herpetic whitlow

241
Q
  1. What can HHV2 (Herpes simplex virus 2) cause?
A

a. herpes genitalis, neonatal herpes, encephalitis

242
Q
  1. How can HHV1 and HHV2 infections treated?
A

a. by acyclovir

243
Q
  1. What can VZV (Varicella Zooster virus) cause?
A

a. chickenpox and shingles

244
Q
  1. How can chickenpox prevented?
A

a. By vaccine (live attenuated)

245
Q
  1. What can EBV (Epstein-Barr virus) cause?
A

a. mononucleosis infectiosa, Burkitt lymphoma, nasopharingeal carcinoma, oral hairy
leucoplakia

246
Q
  1. What can CMV (Cytomegalovirus) cause?
A

a. hepatitis, pancreatitis, pneumonitis, nephritis, myocarditis, encephalitis, chorioretinitis,
oesophagitis, colitis, congenital infections

247
Q
  1. What can HHV-6 cause?
A

a. encephalitis, pneumonitis, chorioretinitis, exanthema subitum or roseola infantum

248
Q
  1. What can HHV-7 cause?
A

a. encephalitis, flaccid paralysis, hepatitis, gastritis, lymphadenopathy, diarrhoea, pityriasis
rosea

249
Q
  1. What can HHV-8 cause?
A

a. Kaposi-sarcoma, lymphoma

250
Q
  1. How can Hepatitis B virus spread?
A

a. by parenteral way, by sexual contact or perinatal

251
Q
  1. How can Hepatitis B virus infection treated?
A

a. by interferon, by nucleotide analogues

252
Q
  1. How can Molluscum contagiosum virus spread and what can cause?
A

a. by direct contact and cause benign tumour of the skin

253
Q
  1. What can Poliovirus cause?
A

a. aseptic meningitis, poliomyelitis, post-polio syndrome

254
Q
  1. What can Coxsackie A and B viruses cause?
A

a. A: herpangina, hand-foot-mouth disease, acute haemorrhagic conjunctivitis
B: pleurodynia or Bronholm disease, myocarditis, pancreatitis

255
Q
  1. What can Rhinoviruses cause?
A

a. sore throat, running nose, coughing

256
Q
  1. How can Hepatitis A virus spread?
A

a. by faecal oral rout, by contaminated food, by contaminated water

257
Q
  1. How can Caliciviruses spread and what can cause?
A

a. by faecal oral rout, by contaminated water, by aerosol. Can cause diarrhoea vomiting.

258
Q
  1. Hon can Rotaviruses spread and what can cause?
A

a. by faecal oral rout and can cause diarrhoea and vomiting

259
Q
  1. How can Hepatitis E virus spread and what can cause?
A

a. by contaminated water, by raw pig and boar meat, rarely by blood transfusion and
transplacental. Can cause acute hepatitis

260
Q
  1. How can spread the causative agent of yellow fever?
A

a. by mosquito bite from human to human or from monkey to human.

261
Q
  1. How can Hepatitis C virus spread?
A

a. by parenteral way, by blood, by tattooing

262
Q
  1. Which population is at risk during the Rubella virus infection?
A

a. pregnant women because can cause in utero infections (congenital rubella syndrome)

263
Q
  1. How can Influenza viruses spread and what can cause (3 examples)?
A

a. By respiratory droplets. Symptoms: high fever, fatigue, muscle pain, head ache, sometimesgastrointestinal symptoms.

264
Q
  1. How can Morbillivirus spread and what can cause?
A

a. by respiratory droplets and can cause measles with exanthemas and Koplic spots.

265
Q
  1. What kind of complication may develop during measles?
A

a. pneumonia, encephalitis and SSPE: subacute sclerotizing panencephalitis

266
Q
  1. How can Mumpsvirus spread and what are the symptoms?
A

a. by respiratory droplets. Symptoms are: inflammation of salivary gland, pancreatitis, orchitis,
deafness

267
Q
  1. What is the causative agent of rabies?
A

a. Lyssa virus.

268
Q
  1. How can rabies prevented?
A

a. by vaccine administered post exposure

269
Q
  1. What is the treatment of HIV infection?
A

a. By combination of nucleotide analogue and protease inhibitors

270
Q
  1. How can HTLV-1 spread?
A

a. by sexual contact, by blood and transplacental or by breast-feeding

271
Q
  1. How can Dengue-fever virus spread?
A

a. by mosquito bite.

272
Q
  1. List two members of Flaviviruses.
A

a. Yellow-fever virus, Dengue-fever virus, tick born encephalitis virus, Zika-virus.

273
Q
  1. What does arbovirus mean?
A

a. arthropod born viruses.

274
Q
  1. List two diseases caused by prions
A

a. kuru, fatal familiar insomnia, Creutzfeldt–Jacob-syndrome, bovine spongiform encephalitis

Micro-minimal Qs (1 decks)

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