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Mini CPE #2 > Mini CPE #2/Big CPE > Flashcards

Mini CPE #2/Big CPE Flashcards

1
Q

Steroidal drug family

A

Prednisolone Sodium Succinate (Solu-Delta Cortef)

Methylprednisolone Acetate (Depo-Medrol)

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2
Q

NSAID family

A

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Deracoxib (Deramaxx)

Meloxicam (Metacam)

Carprofen (Rimadyl)

Ibuprofen (Advil/Motrin)

Flunixin Meglumine (Banamine)

Phenylbutazone (Butazolidin)

Firocoxib (Previcox) “Bute”

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3
Q

Sulfonamide Family

A

Sulfadimethoxine (Bactrovet, Albon)

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4
Q

Fluoroquinolone Family

A

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

Entrofloxacin (Baytril)

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5
Q

Penicillin Family

A

Amoxicillin Trihydrate and Clavulate K (Clavamox)

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6
Q

Diuretic

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

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7
Q

Antiparasitic Family

A

Ivermectine (Heartguard)

Mibemycin Oxime (Interceptor)

Fenbendazole (Panacur)

Praziquantel (Droncit)

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8
Q

Antibacterial Family

A

Abtirobe (Clindamycin Hydrochloride)

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9
Q

GI Tract Inhibitors

A

Cimetidine (Tagament)

Famotidine (Pepcid)

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

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10
Q

Antibacterial, Antiparasitic, Antiprotozoal Family

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl)

Ampicillin + Sulbactin (Unasyn)

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11
Q

Antiulcer agent

A

Carafate (Sulcralfate)

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12
Q

Antithyroid agent

A

Methimazole (Tapazole)

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13
Q

Nutritional Supplement

A

Glucosamine + Chondroitin Sulfate (Cosequin, Glycoflex)

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14
Q

What are the 2 drugs found in Telezol?

A

Tiletamine HCL + Zolazepam HCL

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15
Q

What 2 things are you listening for with an esophageal stethoscope? How do you measure how far you insert it?

A
  1. Take heart rate and listen for murmurs

2. Measure from the tip of the nose to mid-sternum

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16
Q

What are the steps for making a urinary sediment slide?

A
  1. Fill cinical tube with urine sample
  2. Centrifuge sample at 1500rpm for 3-5 minutes
  3. Pour off supernatent
  4. Re-suspend sediment
  5. Tap onto slide
  6. Scan 10x, examine with 40x and low light
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17
Q

What objective is used for fecal cytology?

A

100x

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18
Q

What objective is used for urinary sediment final analysis?

A

40x

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19
Q

What objective is used for fecal direct to ID Giardia?

A

40x

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20
Q

What objective is used for Gram stained slides?

A

100x

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21
Q

What objective is used for WBC diff?

A

40x

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22
Q

What objective is used for RBC morphology and platelet estimate?

A

100x

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23
Q

Preventing pain before onset is called?

A

Pre-emptive analgesia

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24
Q

A neuroleptanalgesic is a combo of a tranquilizer, sedative and

A

Opioid

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25
Q

Soda lime granuales absorb?

A

CO2

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26
Q

NRB system does not use CO2 absorber?

A

True

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27
Q

Pop - off valve should always remain open during anesthesia?

A

True

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28
Q

The O2 fills the reservior bag with pure O2 on a RB system?

A

True

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29
Q

Passive scavenge canisters contain?

A

Charcoal and last for 12 hours or added weight of 50 grams

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30
Q

How many steps are there for a NRB system?

A

Three steps:

  1. Hook up fresh gas hose to outlet port on precision vaporizer
  2. Attach the scavenge hose directly to the passive scavenge canister
  3. Ensure pop-off valve is open on the end of the reservior bag
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31
Q

How many steps are there for a RB system?

A

Four steps:

  1. Attach Y-tubing to inhalation and exhalation ports
  2. Attach the reservior bag to the reservior port
  3. Attach the scavenge tubing to the scavenge port
  4. Ensure the pop-off valve is open
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32
Q

Captive turtles require sunlight or what type of light? In order to synthesize vitamin?

A
  1. UVB light

2. Vitamin D

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33
Q

Snuffles is a respiratory infection in what animal? And what is it caused by?

A
  1. Rabbit

2. Pasteurella multocida

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34
Q

What is the cranial landmark for determining the cranial limit of an abdominal film?

A

Xiphoid process

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35
Q

What are the characteristics of Anticholinergics?

A
  1. Decrease secretions
  2. Prevents bradycardia
  3. Causes mydriasis
  4. Decreases vagal nerve stimulation
  5. Decrease GI motility
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36
Q

What are the characteristics of Acepromazine?

A
  1. Anti-emetic
  2. Lowers seizure thresh hold
  3. Is NOT a controlled substance
  4. NOT analgesic
  5. Causes hypotension
  6. Phenothiazine tranqualizer
  7. NOT reversible
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37
Q

The acetabulum is a part of what joint?

A

Coxofemoral joint

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38
Q

An underexposed film is too?

A

Light

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39
Q

An over exposed film is too?

A

Dark

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40
Q

A thoracic radiograph should be taken?

A

Inspiration

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41
Q

1/40 of a second is (slower or faster) than 1/100 of a second?

A

Slower

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42
Q

Air appears what color on a radiograph?

A

Black

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43
Q

Extremity radiographs should be taken?

A

On the table

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44
Q

The olecranon is located?

A

The proximal end of the ulna

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45
Q

Barium is radiopaque and will appear how on a radiograph?

A

White

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46
Q

KVP settings have an impact on?

A

Radiograph contrast

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47
Q

MAS is a measure of?

A

Total amount of x-ray produced

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48
Q

If your radiograph turns out overexposed, the image is too dark. How should you correct this?

A

Decrease MAS or KVP

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49
Q

Hyperglycemis and glucosuria are indicative of?

A

DM

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50
Q

Elevated cortisol is indicative of?

A
  1. Hyperadrenocortism (Cushing’s) common in dogs
  2. Due to increase in amounts of circulating cortisol

Four common causes:

  1. PDH most common (Benign pituitary tumor - secretes excessive ACTH
  2. AT adrenal tumor - secretes cortisol autonomonusly, regardless of levels in the body
  3. Iatrogenic
  4. Hypothalmic dz - tumor on hypothalmus
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51
Q

What are the clinical signs of Hyperadrenocorticim?

A
  1. PU/PD
  2. Haircoat changes
    - alopecia
    - dermatitis
    - thin skin
    - plugged follicles
    - panting
    - lethargy
    - muscle weakness
  3. Abdominal distension due to hepatomegaly and relaxation of abdominal muscles
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52
Q

Decreased Na+ and decreased K+ are indicative of?

A
  1. Hypoadrenocorticism (Addison’s)
    - Adrenal failure
    - Primary hypoadrenocorticism (most common)
  2. Due to deficiency of glucocorticoids
    - Cortisol and mineralocorticoids (Aldosterone)
  3. Adrenal glands have atrophied
  4. Iatrogenic due to not weaning off of steroids properly
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53
Q

What are the clinical signs of Hypoadrenocorticism?

A
  1. ADR
  2. GI signs
  3. Decreased Na+ and increased K+
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54
Q

Increased TSH/higher T4 is indicative of?

A

Hypothyroidism primarily seen in dogs

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55
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

A
  1. Alopecia
  2. Poor hair coat, coarse, brittle, rat tail
  3. Appearence lethargy obesity due to cholesterol not breaking down
  4. May develop secondary megaesophagus
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56
Q

Increased ACTH is indicative of what?

A

PDH - Pituitary Dependant Hyperadrenocorticism

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57
Q

Increased serum bile acids are indicative of?

A

Hepatic dysfunction

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58
Q

Increased T3/T4 is indicative of?

A

Hyperthyroidism

- common in cats >9 years

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59
Q

What are the clinical signs for hyperthroidism?

A
  1. Weight lossdespite PU/PD
  2. Hyperactivity
  3. Tachycardia
  4. Vocalization changes
  5. Cardiac dz
  6. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  7. Palpable thyroid gland
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60
Q

Cats tend to have hyperthyroidism caused by? Dogs tend to have it caused by?

A
  1. Thyroid adenoma

2. A benign tumor thyroid adenocarcinoma (malignant tumor)

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61
Q

ALT is a liver specific enzyme in dogs and cats?

A

True

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62
Q

ALP, (Alkaline phosphatase is produced by oeteoblasts, and chondroblasts and can be normally elevated in?

A

Young growing animals

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63
Q

An elevated ALK Phos in a mature animal could indicate?

A

HBO/Cholestasis

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64
Q

What are 3 things that can cause a relative increase in BUN and Creatine? What kind of azotemia would this be classified as?

A

3 things:

  1. Dehydration
  2. Shock
  3. Hypotension

Pre-renal azotemia

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65
Q

Azotemia is an increase in?

A

Non-protein nitrogenous wastes in the blood, specifically BUN and Creatinine

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66
Q

What will you see with Pre-renal azotemia?

A
  1. Increased BUN. increased Creat, increased USG
  2. Concentrated urine can be due to poor renal perfusion:
    - dehydration
    - Shock
    - hypovolemia
    - CHF
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67
Q

What will you see with Post-renal azotemia?

A
  1. Increased BUN. increased Creat, increased USG
  2. Concentrated urine (kidney’s are functioning)
  3. Urinary obstruction
  4. Urinary tract rupture = EMERGENCY
    - can go back to Pre-renal if left untreated
    - icreased PCV, and V/D when it does
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68
Q

An animal with eclampsia will have decreased Ca+. This tends to occur in nursing females

A

True

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69
Q

Liver dz cause elevated?

A 
ALT
AST
GGT
ALP
Dbili
Chol
decreased BUN, ALB, GLOB
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70
Q

An elevated amalase and lipase indicates?

A

Pancreatitis

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71
Q

ACTH stimulation tets can be used to diagnose?

A

Hyperadrenocorticism and hypoadrenocorticism

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72
Q

An animal with DM produces decreased insulin, which results in hypergylcemia?

A

True

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73
Q

An anethetized patient who is hyperventilating would develop increased ETCO2 and respiratory acidosis?

A

True

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74
Q

A patient with metabolic acidosis would have an decreased pH and a decreased TCO2?

A

True

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75
Q

List Halothane, Isoflorane and Sevoflurane in order of most soluable to least soluable.

A
  1. Halothane
  2. Isoflorane
  3. Sevoflorane
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76
Q

List Halothane, Isoflorane and Sevoflurane in order of fastest to slowest in regards to solubility.

A
  1. Sevoflorane
  2. Isoflorane
  3. Halothane
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77
Q

List Halothane, Isoflorane and Sevoflurane in order of highest MAC value.

A
  1. Sevoflorane
  2. Isoflorane
  3. Halothane
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78
Q

What does the ABCD’s of resuscitation stand for?

A
  1. Airway
  2. Breathing
  3. Circulation
  4. Drugs
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79
Q

Is vomiting is a side effect of Morphine?

A

True

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80
Q

What are some side effects of Alpha-2-agonist?

A
  1. Peripheral vasoconstriction which causes pale mm and increased CRT
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Arrythmias
    - Especially heart blocks
  4. Hypotension
  5. Respiratory depression
  6. Hypothermia
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81
Q

Acepromazine is a Phenothiazine tranquilizer that is not a controlled substance what is some of its effects?

A
  1. Not reversable
  2. EPILEPTOGENIC
  3. Anti-emetic
  4. Depresses thermoregulation center
  5. Lowers seizure threshold
  6. Hypotension
82
Q

What are the general effects of Benzodiazepine tranquilizers?

A
  1. Cause minimal CNS depression
  2. Skeletal muscle relaxation
    - used to counteract muscle rigidity
  3. ANTICONVULSANT
  4. Appetite stimulant in cats
  5. Ataxia
  6. Can cause skin sloughing if given outside the vein
83
Q

The best route of giving Diazepam is?

A

IV, Slowley

84
Q

What are 3 classes of Barbiturates?

A
  1. Thiopental (short - acting)
    • Methohexital (ultra - short acting)
  2. Pentobarbital (Intermediate acting)
  3. Phenobarbital (long - acting)
85
Q

What are some side effects of Barbiturates when using them as an induction agent?

A
  1. Anti - convulsant
  2. Excitation during induction and recovary
  3. Respiratory depression
  4. Apnea
  5. Can significantly depress CVS if given rapidly or in high doses
  6. Hypothermia
86
Q

Cyclohexamines are?

A

Dissociatives

87
Q

General characteristics of Cyclohexamines?

A
  1. Provide significant analgesia to skin and limbs
  2. Viceral analgesia is poor
  3. Metabolized by the liver and excreted by the kidney’s
  4. Cannot be reversed
  5. Tissue irritation
  6. Ptyalism
  7. Increased CSF pressure
  8. Eyes remain open, central and dilated pupils
88
Q

What are 2 Cyclohexamine drugs?

A
  1. Ketamine

2. Tiletamine

89
Q

What are the 2 toxic substances in chocolate? What chocolate has more of it?

A
  1. Caffeine and theobromine

2. Unsweetened bakers chocolate

90
Q

Heinz bodies can be caused by ingestion of what?

A
  1. Onions

2. Pennies (zinc)

91
Q

Ingestion of onions, pennies (zinc) can cause what type of anemia?

A

Hemolytic anemia

92
Q

Developing times

A

Develop for 3 min at 68 degrees
- decrease time by 30 sec for every degree below
- increase time by 30 sec for every degree above
(never greater than 5 min)

93
Q

Fixing time

A

2 times the developing time

94
Q

Clearing time

A

Minimum of 20 sec

95
Q

Rinsing times

A
  1. Between developing and fixing 30 sec

2. Final rinse (approx. 10 min)

96
Q

Caliper

A
  1. Measures in cm
  2. Measure at the thickest point
  3. Abdomen - measure at the 13th rib
  4. Thorax - measure at the 9th rib
  5. Rear extremity - measure distal femur
  6. Front extremity - measure the distal humerus
97
Q

Large animal IM injection sites

A
  1. Neck
    - Dorsal: Nuchal ligament (origination or the mane)
    - Caudal: Scapula
    - Ventral: Cervical verterbrae
  2. Hind limb/hamstrings
    - Semimembranosus
    - Semitendinosus
98
Q

Pulse sites in a horse

A
  1. Transverse facial artery
  2. Facial/submandibular artery
  3. Lateral dorsal metatarsal artery
99
Q

Poll/nuchal crest

A

Knot between the ears to occiput

100
Q

Withers

A

Point of scapula, were the neck and back meet

- dorsal spinous process

101
Q

Carpus

A

Knee

102
Q

Metacarpals

A

Medial splint (M2), Cannon (M3), Lateral splint (M4)

103
Q

Fetlock joint

A

Metacarpophalangeal joint

104
Q

Pastern joint

A

Proximal Interphlanageal joint

105
Q

Coffin joint

A

Distal Interphlanageal joint

106
Q

Hoof

A
  1. Hoof wall
  2. White line
  3. Sole
  4. Frog
  5. Sulci
  6. Bulb of heel
107
Q

Frog

A

Triangle shaped fleshy part underneath the hoof

108
Q

Sole

A

White are around the frog

109
Q

Wing of Ilium

A

Point of the hip

110
Q

Stifle

A

True knee, femorotibial joint

111
Q

Tarsus “hock”

A

Between tibia and metatrsals

- Calcanean tuberosity

112
Q

Metatarsals

A

Medial and lateral splints (M2 & M4) & Cannon (M3)

113
Q

Splint bones

A

Metacarpal/tarsal bones II & IV

114
Q

Proximal sesamoid bones

A

Distal end of cannon bone (fore and hindlimbs)

115
Q

P1/Long pastern

A

Proximal phalanx

116
Q

P2/Short pastern

A

Middle phalanx

117
Q

P3/Coffin bone

A

Distal phalanx

118
Q

Navicular bone

A

Distal sesamoid bone

119
Q

Croup

A

Rump

120
Q

Zygomatic arch

A

Above eye

121
Q

Facial crest

A

Below eye

122
Q

TPR in the equine

A

Temp: 99.5 - 100.5 degrees F
Pulse: 35-45 BPM
Resp: 10-12 RPM

123
Q

Equine formulas

A

Dental: 2(I 3/3, C 0-1/0-1, PM 4/3, M 3/3) = 36-42 teeth
Vertebral: C7, T 18. L 5-6, Ca 15-21
Gestation: 11 months (335 days)

124
Q

Balling gun

A

Administer a bolus in cattle

125
Q

Dose syringe

A

Rinse out mouth, give liquid medication

126
Q

Elastrator

A

Used for closed casteration (has the ‘‘X’’ at the jaw)

127
Q

Emasculator

A

Used for open casteration (has sharp blades)

128
Q

Back pour cup

A

Administer topical medications

129
Q

Mouth speculums

A

Hold the mouth open during dental examinations

130
Q

Dental float

A

To smooth teeth that have rough edges or are overgrown

131
Q

Speculum

A

Open the vaginal vault to pass swabs or tubes into the uterus or bladder

132
Q

Hoof rasp

A

To smooth the rough edges of the hoof wall after trimming

133
Q

Hog snare

A

Capture and hold a hog for venipuncture, injections or other procedures

134
Q

Hoof trimmer for Sheep and Goats

A

To trim excess hoof material. Pointed and sharp

135
Q

Barnes Dehorner

A

Remove small horns from calves, goats, and sheep

136
Q

Electric dehorner

A

Remove horn buds by killing the cells that produce horns or to cauterize blood vessels after dehorning

137
Q

Hoof Tester

A

To check through a hoof wall for abscesses or sore spots

138
Q

Obstetrical chains and handles

A

Assist with delivery of a calf

139
Q

Nose lead

A

To control the head by applying pressure to the nasal septum

140
Q

Strongylus vulgaris

A

Blood worm

141
Q

Oxyuris equi

A

Pin worm - scotch tape prep

142
Q

Habronema spp.

A

Summer sores

143
Q

The Coggins test is used to diagnose?

A

Equine Infectious Anemia

144
Q

Give the 3 most common most distal joints in an equine front leg

A
  1. Fetlock joint
  2. Pastern joint
  3. Coffin joint
145
Q

Which lab animal requires supplementary vitamin C in there diet?

A

Guinea pigs and non-human primates

146
Q

Streptococcus equi

A
  1. Beta hemolytic
  2. Lancefield group C
  3. Equine strangles
  4. Immunization (stangles bacterin)
147
Q

Streptococcus dysgalactiae

A

Minor cause of bovine mastitis

148
Q

Streptococcus suis

A
  1. Alpha hemolytic
  2. Lancefield group D.R.S
  3. Pathyogenic for young pigs
    - Meningitis
    - Septicemia
    - Pneumonia
    - Arthritis
149
Q

Streptococcus pnuemoniae

A

Important cause of pneumonia in guinea pigs

150
Q

Streptococcus aureus

A

MRSA, Most common Bovine mastitis

151
Q

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A
  1. Caseous lymphadenitis (CLA) - sheep, goats
  2. Ulcerative lymphangitis - horses, mules (common name “dryland distemper”, “pigeon fever”
    • Swollen chest
    • Can cause lameness
152
Q

Corynebacterium renale

A
  1. Cattle: bovine pyelonephritis, cystitis

2. Sheep: “Pizzle rot”

153
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

A

Circling dz - cattle, sheep

154
Q

Clostridium chauvoei

A

Black leg dz

155
Q

Clostridium haemolyticum

A

Red water dz

156
Q

Actinomyces bovis

A

Lumpy jaw

157
Q

Brucella abortus

A

Bangs dz in cattle

158
Q

Moraxella bovis

A

IBK (Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis) “Pink eye”

159
Q

Fusobacterium spp.

A

Thrush in horses

160
Q

What are some viral infections in horses?

A
  1. EEE
  2. EIA
  3. West Nile
  4. Vesticular stomatitis
161
Q

Enteropathogenic E. coli K99 most common cause

A

Calf Scours

162
Q

Immunization Bovine brucellosis

A
  1. RB51 immunization
  2. Female calves 4-12 mos
  3. Right ear tattoo, tagged with orange tag
163
Q

Campylobacter jejuni/coli

A
  1. Wet tail hamsters

2. Winter dysentery in cattle, sheep

164
Q

Mycobacterium bovis

A

Pulmonary TB

165
Q

Chlamydophilia psittaci

A

Parrot fever

166
Q

Ehrlichia risticii

A
  1. New name Neorickettsia risticii
  2. Potomac horse fever - 1st discovered in Maryland
  3. Most common vector flies
167
Q

Canine distemper virus “Hard pad dz”

A
  1. Highly contagious affects all canids also ferrets,minks,skunks,raccoons and pandas
  2. Paramyxovirus-family, Morbilli virus-Genus
  3. Transmission
    - Aerosol main source
    - Transplacental
  4. DHLLP
168
Q

Infectious Canine Hepatitis (CAV-1)

A
  1. Multisystemic viral dz
  2. Affects dogs and foxes
  3. Virus: Canine Adenovirus (CAV-1)
  4. DHLLP or DA2LPP (A2 = CAV-2)
169
Q

Canine Parvo Virus

A
  1. Viral infection that causes an acute gastroenteritis
  2. CVP-2 Parvovirus
  3. DHLPP
170
Q

Canine infectious Tracheobronchitis (Kennel cough)

A
  1. Contagious respiratory dz “cold like”
  2. Bacterial: Bordetella bronchiseptica
  3. Viral: Parainfluenza, CAV-2 and Herpes virus
  4. Aerosol #1 in dogs, Fomites #2 in cats
  5. VX
    - Bacterial: Bordetella bronciseptica bactrin
    - Viral: Parainfluenza DHLPP (CAV-2)
    - Herpes no
171
Q

Canine Leptospirosis

A
  1. Bacterial dz of humans and other animals
  2. Affects kidneys and liver
  3. Spirochete
  4. Leptospira interrogans, Grippotyphosa (Colorado)
  5. Zoonotic
  6. DHLPP
172
Q

What are the three stages of Leptospirosis?

A
  1. Acute: Non-specific
  2. Convalescent: Bacteria in liver. Kidneys and eyes
  3. Chronic/carrier
173
Q

Canine Influenza Virus (CIV)

A
  1. Highly contagious respiratory infection in dogs only
  2. Noval virus
  3. Vaccine on the market is Intervet
174
Q

Feline Panleukopenia

A
  1. Viral dz causing severe gastroenteritis
  2. Virus: Parvo virus
  3. FVRCP
175
Q

Feline upper respiratory tract disease

A
  1. Contagious occulonasal discharge and sneezing
  2. Viral: Feline viral
    Rhinotracheitis: Herpes virus (FHV-1) Feline Calicivirus
    Bacteria: Chlamydia (Chlamydoplia felis)
  3. Direct contact, FOMITES
  4. FVRCCP
176
Q

Feline Leukemia Virus

A
  1. Viral dz of cats that causes bone marrow and immune system suppression
  2. Retrovirus, an oncorna virus
  3. FeLV
177
Q

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus

A
  1. Viral dz of cats that causes bone marrow suppression and immunodeficiency
  2. Retrovirus, Lentivirus (slow virus)
178
Q

What are the 3 stages of FIV?

A
  1. Acute: Generalized lymphadenomegaly, bacterial infections of the skin or GI tract
  2. Latent: Non-systomatic
  3. Chronis: Stomatitis, gingivitis, diarrhea, resp. infections, FUO
179
Q

Feline Infectious Peritonitis

A
  1. Highly fatal viral dz in cats
  2. Fatal corona virus
  3. FIP
180
Q

What are the 2 types of FIP?

A
  1. Effusive (wet) form produces fluid in abdomen or chest

2. Non-Effusive (dry) form is more chronic. Granulomas form in GI tract

181
Q

DHLPP+C

A
  1. 3 Shot series (8, 12, 16 wks)

2. Distemper, Hepatitis(adenovirus), Leptospirosis, Parvovirus Parainfluenza, Corona virus

182
Q

FVRCP+C

A
  1. 3 Shot series (8, 12, 16 wks)

2. Feline Viral Rhinotracheitis, Calci virus, Panleukopenia, Chlamydia

183
Q

Megaesophagus

A

Paralysis/dilation of esophagus, regurgitation, secondary to trauma or other pathology

184
Q

Vascular ring abnormality

A

Retention of embryonic right aortic arch, esophagus is trapped between aorta, base of heart, ligamentum arteriosis, plum artery

185
Q

Spirocerca Lupi neoplasia

A

Esophageal worm-causing regurgitation +/- vomiting

186
Q

Gastro-esophageal reflex

A

Caused by incomplete closure of cardiac sphincter, hiatal hernia; regurgitation of stomach and duodenal contents(bile). Early morning late night after sleeping

187
Q

Gingivitis

A

Inflammation of gingiva

188
Q

Periodontal dz

A

Bacterial infection in periodontal pocket affects gums and alveolar bone

189
Q

Papillomatosis

A

Benign tumor of dogs, poliferative, cauliflower mass

190
Q

Epulis

A

Benign tumor of dogs, pedunculated stalk

191
Q

Malignant melanoma

A

1 in dogs ulcerated proliferative mass on lip or gingiva

192
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

1 in cats, #2 in dogs raised ulcer

193
Q

Fibroscarcoma

A

2 in cats, #3 in dogs, large breed young dogs, other breed old dogs and old cats

194
Q

Sialocele (salivary gland cyst)

A

Salivary gland, sub lingual gland and duct

195
Q

Dental Hoe

A

Removes supragingival plague

196
Q

Periodontal elevator

A

Brakes down periodontal ligaments to aid in tooth removal

197
Q

Periodontal Probe

A

To determine gingival sulcus depth

198
Q

Curette

A

To help remove subgingival tartar

199
Q

Extraction forcepts

A

To extract teeth

200
Q

Tartar forcepts

A

To chip off big pieces of tarter

Mini CPE #2 (1 decks)

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