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A-level Geography Year 2 > Migration, Identity and Sovereignty > Flashcards

Migration, Identity and Sovereignty Flashcards

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1
Q

1: What % of the UK’s population is migrants?

A

17% as of the 2021 census

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2
Q

What is the most common type of migrant in the UK?

A

Economic migrants

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3
Q

How has globalisation and global shift altered patterns of migration?

A
  • China and SE Asia have become manufacturers of the world so a lot of rural->urban migration
  • New global hubs have developed so international migration increases
  • Deindustrialisation has led to depopulation and internal migration
  • Transport and communication developments make it quicker, easier and more affordable to migrate
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4
Q

Describe the pattern of internal migration in China?

A
  • Rural to urban
  • Flows towards the east
  • Flows towards coastal cities
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5
Q

What are 3 pull factors to cities?

A
  • Employment
  • Higher wages
  • Quality of life
  • Better life expectancy
  • Low infant mortality
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6
Q

What are 3 push factors from the countryside?

A
  • Low incomes
  • Reduced need for rural farming labour
  • Poor QoL
  • Few opportunities
  • Child malnutrition
  • Poverty
  • Poor education
  • High unemployment
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7
Q

What is the Hukou system?

A

A registration system that allowed people to access services such as healthcare and education.

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8
Q

What are the pros of the Hukou system?

A
  • Reduces pressure on cities
  • Fewer/no informal settlements
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9
Q

What are the cons of the Hukou system?

A
  • Limits where people are allowed to live
  • Some rural people are denied healthcare, education and housing
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10
Q

Why is the government proposing reforms to the Hukou system?

A

To boost economic growth and encourage people to settle and spend in cities.

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11
Q

What are some differences in living standards between rural and urban China?

A
  • Life expectancy higher in cities
  • 34% of rural children under one die compared to 14% of urban children
  • 14% of rural children malnourished vs 3% urban
  • Annual household income in rural areas is half of city households
  • Illiteracy is much higher in countryside
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12
Q

How has the Chinese government encouraged people to move?

A

Campaigns to move to newly built urban areas

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13
Q

What is the Maastricht Treaty?

A

Allows for free movement of labour

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14
Q

What is the Schengen Agreement?

A

Allows people and goods to cross borders without showing passport

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15
Q

Did the UK become a member of the Schengen agreement?

A

No

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16
Q

How many EU citizens now live in another member state?

A

14 million

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17
Q

When did the A8 accession countries join the EU?

A

2004

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18
Q

Name two A8 countries.

A
  • Poland
  • Czech Republic
  • Estonia
  • Hungary
  • Latvia
  • Lithuania
  • Slovakia
  • Slovenia
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19
Q

What is the largest EU migrant group in the UK?

A

Poland

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20
Q

Where are migrants concentrated in the UK?

A

London

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21
Q

How many British people live in other EU nations?

A

1.3 million

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22
Q

Why are a large proportion of UK migrants older while Eastern European migrants are younger?

A

British migrants are retirees while Eastern Europeans are economic migrants.

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23
Q

What are 3 negative consequences of British migration to Spain?

A
  • Cheap labour depresses wages
  • Easy movement for criminals and terrorists
  • Conflict arises from anti-immigrant groups and far-right groups
  • Pressure on Spanish healthcare system
  • Enclaves mean little interaction with locals
  • Environmental damages on Costa Del Sol
  • Increased property prices
  • British fail to integrate
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24
Q

What are 3 positive consequences of British migration to Spain?

A
  • Fills labour shortages
  • Reduces unemployment in source countries
  • Increased taxes
  • Increased spending leads to multiplier effect
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25
Q
  1. What are the different types of and reasons for migration?
A
  • Voluntary vs forced
  • Long vs short term
  • Economic vs social vs environmental
  • Refugees/ asylum seekers/ internally displaced people
  • Regular vs irregular (illegal)
  • International vs internal
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26
Q
  1. What factors effect peoples ability to migrate?
A
  • Wealth
  • Skill level
  • Opportunity e.g. proximity to borders or language barriers
  • Presence/absence of border controls
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27
Q

How does wealth effect peoples ability to migrate?

A

Income is a key factor as high earners can migrate easier than low earners.
E.g. The UK points based system where Tier 1 is called High-Value Migrants and is for entrepreneurs and investors + people with exceptional talent like athletes, sports stars and celebrities

It is also very expensive to be illegally brought into a country by smugglers
E.g. Some people pay $4,000-10,000 to cross the US Mexico border

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28
Q

How does opportunity effect peoples ability to migrate?

A
  • Proximity to host country e.g. Mexico -> USA
  • Language barriers e.g. English-speakers to English speaking countries or ex-British empire countries moving to UK
  • Physical geography or isolation e.g. Japan is remote and has little migration while Greece has a a long coast with many islands so struggles to deal with illegal migration
  • Form of transport e.g. over land or a dangerous crossing like across the Mediterranean to the EU from North Africa

-Presence of settled family members

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29
Q

What is an example of a homogenous country?

A

Japan and Iceland

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30
Q

What is ethnicity?

A

The shared identity of an ethnic group which may be based on common cultural characteristics such as language, religion, diet or clothing.

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31
Q

What is an example of a heterogenous country?

A

Singapore, Australia, UK

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32
Q

What was Australia’s immigration policy?

A

The Assisted Passenger Migration scheme (AKA Ten Pound Poms) was created in 1945 and subsidised migrants from Britain so they could move to Australia for £10. 1 million+ Brits immigrated to Australia in under 30 yrs.

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33
Q

What was the aim of Australia’s Ten Pound Poms scheme?

A

Increase size of workforce to support industry and development.

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34
Q

What was Australia’s Immigration Restriction Act of 1901?

A

It was a policy that gave immigration priority to white Europeans. It became unlawful to have racially-based selection criteria in the 1970s.

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35
Q

What proportion of Australia’s population are either 1st or 2nd generation migrants?

A

45%

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36
Q

What is the fastest growing immigration sector?

A

Asian skilled workers

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37
Q

What are the 4 main criteria that are considered under the Australian points-based system

A
  • Age – prioritise 25-32 years
  • Education – prioritise those with a degree
  • Work experience – to fill skills shortages
  • Proficiency in English – to facilitate integration
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38
Q

Which group of migrants is Australia less tolerant of and what is their policy towards them?

A

Asylum seekers / irregular migrants arriving by boat – they are detained in offshore camps

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39
Q

What is Australia’s solution to illegal migrants?

A

Offshore Processing Centres
Ships patrol Australian waters and intercept migrant boats, towing or sending them back.
Asylum seekers are not held in Australia while their claims are processed. Instead, they are sent to offshore processing centres.
This idea was first used between 2001 and 2004 and was reintroduced in 2012.
Australia has one on the Pacific island nation of Nauru and another on Manus Island in Papua New Guinea (now closed).

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40
Q

What happens if a migrant genuinely requires refugee status in Australia?

A

Even if asylum seekers are found to be legitimate refugees, they are not allowed to settle in Australia. They may be settled in Nauru or Papua New Guinea.

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41
Q

What are / were conditions like in the offshore detention centres?

A

Very poor, criticised by UN and Amnesty International – same as in Darfur (Sudan), only no bullets, they’re being killed mentally. Like a prison. Reports of riots, hunger strikes, murders, assaults, deaths through medical negligence etc.

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42
Q

How does the Australian government defend their policy?

A

They say they’re protecting the vulnerable by discouraging illegal people trafficking and that they’re trying to reduce drownings at sea.

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43
Q

How long are people kept in these offshore detention centres?

A

Some been there 6+ years

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44
Q

How many people were held in the Manus Island centre at the peak?

A

1,500

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45
Q

Why did the centre on Manus Island close?

A

A PNG Supreme Court declared the centre illegal under their constitution

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46
Q

Has the situation improved for the refugees in Australia’s offshore detention centres since Manu Islands centre closed ?

A

They were moved to accommodation centres in PNG and given more freedom, but stuck in limbo. People self-harming, attempted suicides, lack of hope

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47
Q
  1. What are the positive and negative consequences o
A
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48
Q

7: Why do border conflicts happen?

A
  • One state may desire to absorb another
  • One state may want to unite culturally and ethnically similar groups together
  • A state may try to take over a country for natural resources
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49
Q

What is a natural border? Give example.

A

When physical geography like mountain ranges or rivers make up the border between two countries.
E.G. France and Spain are divided by the Pyrenees Mountain Range

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50
Q

What are the two case studies for border conflict we study?

A
  • Rwanda
  • Taiwan
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51
Q

Describe Rwandas geography.

A

It is a landlocked African country and is very small.

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52
Q

Who are the two main ethnic groups involved in the Rwandan genocide?

A
  • Tutsi
  • Hutu
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53
Q

When did Rwanda get colonised and who by?

A

In 1884-85 by Germany.

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54
Q

Who took over Germanys control of Rwanda after the First World War.

A

Belguim

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55
Q

What % of population was Tutsi and what % was Hutu?

A

14% Tutsi and 85% Hutu

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56
Q

Which group did the Belgians prefer, Tutsi or Hutu?

A

Tutsi

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57
Q

What did the Belgian colonisers do in 1926 to make ethnic tensions worse?

A

They implemented ethnic identity cards.

58
Q

When did Rwanda gain independence from Belgium?

A

1962

59
Q

When did the killing of Tutsis occur?

A

1960s to 1970s

60
Q

When and how was the Rwandan president killed?

A

In April 1994, his plane was shot down.

61
Q

Define genocide.

A

The intentional murder of a people based in ethnicity, religion or race.

62
Q

How many Tutsis were killed in 100 days?

A

800,000

63
Q

What did the UNSC do after the genocide?

A

Set up a tribunal to prosecute those responsible.

64
Q

What was the Rwandan government like between 1970 and 1980?

A

It was contested and not seen as legitimate as Hutus had rebelled and taken control. Hutus were given preferential jobs in public services and military, making Rwanda a one party state controlled by a Hutu president.

65
Q

How many refugees fled with the Hutu government in 1994 and where to?

A

2 million to Zaire/DR Congo

66
Q

8: Define nationalism.

A

The shared belief, feeling or belonging for a nation, including common identity, language and history.

67
Q

How many people express their national identity?

A
  • Flags
  • National Anthems
  • Pledge of Allegiance
  • Clothing
  • Food
  • Festivals/celebrations
  • Language
  • Sports teams
68
Q

How were communities divided in the 1500s?

A
  • Small communities
  • Run by local lords
  • People rarely travelled anywhere
69
Q

How did European nation states emerge?

A

Lords and monarchs wanted increased power so took over other territory, with monarchs centralising their power by creating countries.
Leaders of neighbouring countries would meet up to decide borders and treaties would help recognise their sovereignty.

70
Q

What events increased French nationalism?

A

French Revolution (1789) and Napoleonic Wars (1803-1815)
- France was having economic problems and normal people were angry with monarchy
- People united & overthrew the monarchy to create a new equal nation
- This created a sense of loyalty and national identity

  • In 1804 Napoléon became Emperor of France, working to establish cultural and linguistic unity to bring stability into France (via education & laws)
  • He expanded the French Empire
  • Military success boosted French Nationalism
71
Q

Why did the increase in French nationalism increase nationalism in Europe overall?

A
  • Countries became jealous
  • Countries wanted to defend against France
  • Countries wanted to compete with France to become more powerful and influential
72
Q

What is an example of nationalism creating conflict in Europe?

A

WW1 (1914-1918)
- Bosnian Serb nationalists assassinated Franz Ferdinand because they wanted independence. This started WW1
- Countries formed alliances for mutual defence. Alliances is also why when Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia, other countries were drawn into the conflict.

73
Q

How did nationalism contribute to the start of World War Two?

A
  • After WW1, Germans were humiliated by the harsh conditions imposed by the Treaty of Versailles
  • This fueled resentment and nationalism which bred extremist ideologies.
  • Hitler promised to overturn the treaty and restore Germanys greatness
  • Nazism appealed to nationalism and superiority complexes
  • Hitler also wanted to expand Germany, which lead to them invading Poland (which started the war)
74
Q

Why was 19th century nationalism important in the development of empires?

A

Nationalism fuelled the age of imperialism and colonialism which allowed European nations to acquire colonies.
By 1900, most of the world was ruled by European empires.

75
Q

How did European nations justify expanding their empires?

A
  • “Locals will benefit from our culture”
  • “God has made our country mighty”
  • “It is our Christian duty to civilise these natives and bring the word of God”
  • “Natives are subhuman and inferior, we deserve to rule over them”
  • “Empires are good business -> trade”
  • “If we don’t claim it, someone else will”
76
Q

How did European conflict help increase Indian nationalism and independence?

A
  • In WW1, India supported Britain and was promised more self government
  • Mahatma Gandhi’s resistance also increased Indian nationalism
  • Massacres (Amritsar 1919) by British troops also increased nationalism
77
Q
  1. What happened in Africa to end colonial rule and create new nation states?
A
  • Ideals of nationalism had been exported by European empires via education
  • By 1945 independence movements were rising in two forms:
    • Non-violent e.g. Indian against Britain
    • Violent e.g. Angola against Portugal
  • Decolonisation
78
Q

What was the “Wind of Change” speech?

A

Wind of change 1960 speech by PM Harold Macmillan. Had spent a month visiting the colonies and his speech signalled that the UK government was willing to grant independence to these countries

79
Q

What happened to India after gaining independence? Why?

A

The country was partitioned to create two new states – India and Pakistan Due to religious differences (Hindu and Muslim)

80
Q

What were the consequences of the partition of India?

A

Conflicts led to 1 million people dying

81
Q

What eventually happened to East Pakistan?

A

East Pakistan became Bangladesh after a war of independence in 1971.

82
Q

How has the relationship between Pakistan and India been since partition?

A

Hostile, with 4 wars being fought since the partition

83
Q

What was the Berlin Conference of 1884-5?

A

It was a meeting where European colonial powers divided up Africa

84
Q

How did the north of Sudan differ from the south after modernisation by Britain and Egypt?

A

The north became more prosperous than the south.

85
Q

What was the result of ‘indirect’ rule by Britain in southern Sudan?

A

It created hundreds of tribal chiefdoms that felt left out of northern developments.

86
Q

When did Sudan gain independence from Britain?

A

In 1956.

87
Q

What happened in Sudan throughout the 20th century?

A

Numerous civil wars were fought

88
Q

What were the social costs of the Sudanese decolonisation?

A

Social costs included ethnic and cultural divisions, prolonged civil wars, displacement of millions, human rights abuses, destruction of social infrastructure, deep psychological trauma, and fragmentation of communities, weakening social cohesion and support networks.

89
Q

What were the economic & political costs of the Sudanese decolonisation?

A

Sudan faced severe economic disparities between the north and the south, disruption of agricultural production, loss of infrastructure, and limited access to markets. The prolonged conflicts and ongoing political instability and governance challenges drained resources and hindered economic development.

90
Q

What were the environmental costs of the Sudanese decolonisation?

A

The civil wars and conflicts led to environmental degradation, including deforestation, destruction of farmland, and loss of biodiversity. Displacement of people also put pressure on natural resources in less affected areas.

91
Q
  1. How did the foreign-born population in the UK change between 2011 and 2021?
A

It increased from 7.5 million to 10.0 million

92
Q

Which UK city has the greatest number of migrants as of 2021?

A

London, with 41% of its population being foreign-born.

93
Q

How many of the UK’s non-UK born residents in 2021 were born in the EU?

A

3.6 million, which is 36% of all non-UK born residents.

94
Q

What did the British Nationality Act 1948 grant?

A

It granted the subjects of the British Empire the right to live and work in the UK.

95
Q

How did the British Nationality Act 1948 impact UK employers?

A

It allowed UK employers to recruit workers from Commonwealth countries.

96
Q

What happened to immigration controls from the Commonwealth starting in 1962?

A

Successively tighter immigration controls were placed on immigration from the Commonwealth.

97
Q

How did the number of New Commonwealth citizens arriving in the UK change in the 1990s and early 2000s?

A

Numbers began to increase again to over 150,000 per year in the early 2000s.

98
Q

When did the Windrush dock in the UK, and how many passengers did it carry?

A

It docked on 22 June 1948, carrying around 500 passengers.

99
Q

Who were the passengers on the Windrush?

A

They were the first large group of Caribbean immigrants after the Second World War.

100
Q

How were the migrants from the Windrush educated and qualified?

A

They had been educated as though they were British citizens, were usually well qualified, and spoke good English.

101
Q

How did UK employers recruit workers from Jamaica?

A

UK employers actively recruited there, such as London Underground holding interviews for bus drivers in Kingston, Jamaica.

102
Q

When did migrants from India and Pakistan start arriving in the UK, and why?

A

Migrants from India and Pakistan started arriving soon after India gained independence from Britain in 1947.

103
Q

What major event caused many people to migrate from British India?

A

The Partition of British India into two separate nations – India and Pakistan – caused many to migrate.

104
Q

How many people were displaced by the Partition of British India, and along what lines?

A

Over 14 million people were displaced along religious lines.

105
Q

What industries attracted many migrants from India and Pakistan to the UK?

A

Manufacturing industries, such as textile mills in Lancashire and Yorkshire, which were short of labour.

106
Q

How did the NHS influence migration from the Commonwealth?

A

There was active recruitment across the Commonwealth for skilled labour to fill gaps in the newly formed NHS, which began in 1948.

107
Q

What prompted the flow of Ugandan Asians to the UK in 1972?
How many Ugandan Asians emigrated to the UK?

A

Ugandan dictator Idi Amin’s sudden decision to expel all 50,000 Indians from Uganda.
30,000 Ugandan Asians emigrated to the UK.

108
Q

How many Vietnamese boat people fled Vietnam following the Vietnam War?
Where did they initially head to?

A

800,000 Vietnamese boat people fled Vietnam in the two decades following the Vietnam War.
They initially headed to other countries in southeast Asia, such as British Hong Kong.

109
Q

How many Vietnamese refugees were resettled into the UK in the late 1970s and early 1980s?

A

20,000 refugees were resettled into the UK in the late 1970s and early 1980s.

110
Q

Why is Notting Hill Carnival significant to show the impacts of increasing heterogeneity?

A

It celebrates the UK’s Caribbean communities, bringing together people from different cultures and backgrounds in a vibrant and diverse event. It is renowned as the second largest carnival in the world after Rio, attracting over a million attendees over two days. The carnival features cultural performances, music, dancing, and diverse culinary experiences, showcasing the rich heritage and contributions of Caribbean culture to the UK.

111
Q
  1. What is a tax haven?
A

A nation state with no or low rate of tax

112
Q

How do tax havens work?

A

Tax havens are jurisdictions that offer lower tax rates and favorable financial regulations, attracting individuals and businesses to register entities or hold assets there to reduce their tax liabilities. Common techniques include corporate profit shifting, where businesses book profits in low-tax countries, and individuals establishing residency or using trusts to manage assets in tax havens.

113
Q

What are the pros of tax havens?

A
  • They attract financial activities
  • Provide a form of financial services industry
  • Generating revenue, especially for smaller economies with limited industries like tourism.
  • Lower tax rates also encourage job and business creation.
114
Q

What are the cons of tax havens?

A

-They facilitate tax avoidance and evasion, leading to significant revenue losses for governments worldwide.
- Undermines public services and infrastructure funded by taxes, contributing to global income inequality and economic instability.
- Secrecy and lack of transparency in tax havens can facilitate illicit financial activities, such as money laundering and corruption.

115
Q

Describe the global distribution of tax havens.

A
  • Mostly in the Caribbean and Central America
  • Mostly islands
  • At least one found in every continent
116
Q

What is corporate migration?

A

When a TNC relocates its headquarters to a different country.

117
Q

How has globalisation led to the development of tax havens?

A
  • Better transport & technology -> companies able to operate in multiple countries
  • Money has become digital -> bringing physical money to a tax haven is illogical
  • Increased amount of TNCs -> more companies that would want to use them
  • Trade liberalisation -> money can be transferred freely and quickly
118
Q

Define transfer pricing

A

When one division of a TNC charges another division of the same company (which is based in a different country), for the supply of a product or service.

119
Q

How did Petrochemical company Ineos benefit from relocating its headquarters from the UK to Switzerland?

A

Petrochemical company Ineos saved £0.5 billion over 5 years by halving its corporate taxes through the relocation.

120
Q

What strategy do most Transnational Corporations (TNCs) employ instead of relocating to low-tax states?

A

Instead of relocating, most TNCs use transfer pricing to reduce their tax burden by routing profits to subsidiary companies in low-tax states.

121
Q

What are the primary uses of tax haven locations?

A
  1. To avoid or evade their obligation to pay tax -> tax avoidance is legal but tax evasion isnt
  2. To hide criminal activities -> may be tax evasion, money laundering or to hide cash from crimes
  3. To keep activities anonymous -> like hiding wealth from a spouse
  4. To make it cheaper to do business and increase profits
122
Q

What are the views on tax havens?

A

Most governments and IGOs accept the growth of tax havens, acknowledging the role of TNCs in growing economies and the principle that profits should not be taxed multiple times in different countries. However, the use of tax havens is becoming increasingly controversial, as deliberate tax avoidance by TNCs can significantly impact the tax income of countries, affecting their spending power for services.

123
Q

Who is NGO UK Uncut?

A

an anti-avoidance tax campaigner in the UK

124
Q

How much tax has the company Associated British Foods dodged in Zambia, and what could this money have funded?

A

Associated British Foods has dodged at least £17 million in taxes in Zambia, which could have funded the education of 48,000 Zambian children every year.

125
Q

Which consumer industries have been targeted by citizen-led protest movements, and what was the response?

A

Industries such as Starbucks have been targeted. UK Uncut organized high-street demonstrations to pressurize the government to clamp down on tax avoidance by TNCs. As a result, Starbucks and Google volunteered to pay additional taxes to the UK government, although campaigners argued that the amounts paid were still too little.

126
Q

Which IGOs want to see stricter regulations on tax havens?

A

The OECD and G20 groups

127
Q

What agreement was reached by the G20 in 2015 regarding tax evasion?

A

In 2015, a G20 project culminated in 60 governments agreeing to get tougher on tax evasion and ‘profit shifting’ by TNCs.

128
Q

How have TNCs responded to increased OECD scrutiny of tax havens like the Cayman Islands and Bermuda?

A

Many TNCs have become uncomfortable being seen to operate in places like the Cayman Islands and Bermuda due to increased OECD scrutiny, becoming more aware of the brand risk associated with being seen to avoid taxes.

129
Q

What action did the EU take in 2017 regarding tax havens and why was it critizised?

A

In 2017, the EU published its first black and greylist of tax havens, naming 17 territories like Barbados and issued a “watchlist” of 47 countries promising to change their tax rules to meet EU standards.
Both lists have been criticized for omitting the most notorious tax havens.

130
Q

Why do corporations go to the Cayman Islands if not primarily to avoid tax?

A

Corporations, particularly hedge funds, are based in the Cayman Islands for reasons such as the quality of the legislation, stability, and absence of intrusive regulation.

131
Q

Is it illegal for companies to use tax havens?

A

No, using tax havens is not illegal; it is considered prudent financial planning, not tax evasion. It is the obligation of a TNC to maximize its profits and return dividends to shareholders.

132
Q
A
133
Q
  1. Environmental issues are transboundary, what does this mean?
A

Means that it effects countries regardless of boundaries so global cooperation is needed to manage them.

134
Q

What is the Montreal Protocol?

A

Scientists discovered that the Earth’s ozone layer at the poles was thinning, and that CFCs were responsible.
Due to the health risk of UV light getting through the ozone, a protocol was signed.
It was an agreement to phase out the production of CFCs and came to effect Jan 1st, 1989
It was ratified by 197 countries, making it the first universally agreed upon treaty.

135
Q

What was CITIES?

A

It was an intergovernmental agreement to manage international trade in wild animals and plants so that their survival is not threatened.
It had a list of voluntary rules and all exports and imports had to be registered through a licensing system.
35,000+ species now given varying degrees of protection.

136
Q

Why is CITIES criticised?

A

People argue it is influenced by commercial interests e.g. Atlantic Blue tuna not protected despite concerns.

137
Q

What is UNCLOS?

A

It defined the rights and responsibilities of countries over use of the oceans.
It came into force in 1994, but by 20016, 166 countries have ratified it.
It defines the boundaries of coastal zones where countries have exclusive used of marine and mineral resources and the responsibility of safeguarding the area.
Landlocked countries also given access to the sea.

138
Q

What was MEA?

A

It was launched in 2001 and aimed to assess how ecosystem changes have affected human well-being and how to conserve and use ecosystems effectively.

139
Q

What was the Antarctic Treaty System?

A

It is a treaty signed by more than 53 countries that makes the Antarctic a scientific reserve and bans all military activity.
Due to there being no government, a treaty system including this treaty is used. All parties meet annually to discuss issues and manage the continent.
It protects the environment, plants and animals, historic sites, managing protected areas and tourism.
Due to modern transport making it easier to get to the continent, tourism needs to be regulated.

140
Q

What were the 4 conclusions of the MEA?

A

1 - Humans have rapidly and extensively changed ecosystems, causing huge and often irreversible biodiversity loss.

2 - Ecosystems have been degraded, diminishing their ability to benefit future generations.

3 - Ecosystem degradation could get worse and prevent the achievement of SDGs

4 - Reversing degradation is possible but we need significant change to policies, institutions and practices

A-level Geography Year 2 (4 decks)

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