MIDTERMS Flashcards

1
Q

The process in which a healthcare provider educates a patient about the risks, benefits, and alternatives of a given procedure or intervention.

A

Informed Consent

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2
Q

Maintaining a professional relationship between patient and health professional

A

Patient Relation with Health Professional

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3
Q

Ensuring that patient information and data are kept safe.

A

Patient Confidentiality

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4
Q

Providing medical services equally

A

Access to quality healthcare

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5
Q

when a professional fails to meet the expected care standards in their job.

A

malpractice

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6
Q

A dereliction of professional duty or a failure to exercise an ordinary degree of professional skill or learning by one (such as a physician) rendering professional services which results in injury, loss, or damage.

A

Malpractice

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7
Q

Common types of malpractice

A

Cancer misdiagnosis
Medication errors
Bedsores
Anesthesia errors
Dental mistakes
Failure to prevent infections

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8
Q

Failing to behave with the level of that someone of ordinary prudence would have exercised under the same circumstances.

A

Negligence

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9
Q

Failing to take proper care

A

Negligence

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10
Q

Extreme carelessness that shows reckless disregard for others’ safety.

A

Gross negligence

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11
Q

Fault is shared between parties, and any compensation is reduced based on each party’s percentage of fault.

A

Comparative Negligence

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12
Q

If the injured person contributed to their own injury, they may receive reduced or no compensation

A

Contributory negligence

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13
Q

An employer or organization is held responsible for the negligent actions of its employees.

A

Vicarious Negligence

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14
Q

4 types of negligence

A
  1. Gross negligence
  2. Comparative negligence
  3. Contributory negligence
  4. vicarious negligence
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15
Q

Being legally responsible for breaking the law

A

Criminal Liability

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16
Q

Pertaining to actions or behavior that violate the law

A

Criminal

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17
Q

Being legally responsible for something, which can result in legal or financial consequences.

A

Liability

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18
Q

The physical act or conduct that is prohibited by law.

A

Actus Reus

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19
Q

The guilty mind; the mental intent or knowledge of wrongdoing that accompanies the act, which can vary in level (purposefully, knowingly, recklessly, or negligently).

A

Mens Rea

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20
Q

The requirement that both the wrongful act (actus reus) and the wrongful intent (mens rea) occurred together.

A

Concurrence

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21
Q

The need to establish a direct link between the defendant’s actions and the harm or consequences caused.

A

Causation

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22
Q

Elements of Criminal Liability

A

Actus Reus
Mens Rea
Concurrence
Causation

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23
Q

Circumstances which affect criminal liabilities

A
  1. Justifying
  2. Exempting
  3. Mitigating
  4. Aggravating
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24
Q

Unforeseen situations; inevitable; Act of God

A

Doctrine of Force Majeure

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25
Q

Master answers for the subordinate

A

Doctrine of Respondent Superior

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26
Q

Ignorance of the law excuses no one

A

Ignorantia Juris non Excusat

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27
Q

The law is harsh but it is the law

A

Dura lex Sed Lex

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28
Q

No crime no punishment without the law

A

Nullum Crimen, Nulla Poena Sine Lege

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29
Q

Most superior criminal offense

A

Felonies

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30
Q

Two classifications of felonies

A

Intentional Felonies (Dolo)
Culpable Felonies (Culpa)

31
Q

Chairman of the first board of Radiologic Technologists

A

Fortunato C. Gabon Jr.

32
Q

Members of the first board of radiologic technologists

A

Jose T. Gaffud,
Editha C. Mora,
Dexter R. Rodelas,
Dr. Eulinia M. Valdezco

33
Q

A civil wrong that causes harm or loss to someone, giving the injured party the right to seek compensation through the legal system.

34
Q

sellers can be held liable for defective products

A

Product liability

35
Q

a person or entity that commits a tort, which is a wrongful act or omission that causes harm or injury to another.

A

Tortfeasor

36
Q

A branch of civil law that deals with situations where one party’s wrongful actions cause harm or loss to another.

37
Q

Knew or should have known that certain consequences would result from an act

A

Intentional Tort

38
Q

Torts that intentionally cause harm or injury to an individual’s body, reputation, or emotional well-being.

A

Against Persons

39
Q

Act intended to cause an apprehension of harmful or offensive contact

40
Q

The unwanted harmful physical contact

41
Q

Intent to wrongly confine or restraint a person

A

False imprisonment

42
Q

Severe emotional distress suffered by the plaintiff with the emotional distress being caused by the defendant’s conduct

A

Intentional infliction of emotional distress

43
Q

Wrongfully harming a person’s good reputation

A

Defamation

44
Q

Breaching this duty orally

45
Q

Breaching this duty in writing

46
Q

Intrusion into person’s affairs or seclusion

A

Invasion of the right to privacy

47
Q

Use by one person of another person’s name, likeness, or other identifying characteristic without permission and for the benefit of the user.

A

Appropriation

48
Q

Intentional deceit for personal gain

A

Misrepresentation or Fraud

49
Q

Torts that intentionally interfere with or damage someone’s property

A

Against Property

50
Q

Illegally accessing a private property that is off-limits

A

Trespassing

51
Q

Refers to an act that is unintended but causes injury, losses, and damages to the victim.

A

Unintentional Tort

52
Q

The most common unintentional tort

A

Negligence

53
Q

Failure to exercise reasonable care, resulting in harm or damage to another person.

A

Negligence

54
Q

When a healthcare professional fails to provide the accepted standard of care, resulting in patient harm.

A

Medical Malpractice

55
Q

When a property owner fails to maintain a safe environment, leading to injury.

A

Premises Liability

56
Q

a set of practices, ethics, and behaviors that members of a particular professional group must adhere to.

A

Professional Standard

57
Q

A legal document providing a chronicle of a patient’s medical history and care

A

Medical Record

58
Q

Serve as the identity of the patient who owns the record

A

Identification Information

59
Q

Previous history of the patient (surgeries, medication, illnesses)

A

Medical History

60
Q

Medicines a patient is ingesting need to be documented in their medical record as it could affect their course of treatment.

A

Medication Information

61
Q

Some health problems of family members may not be worrisome, however, some hereditary diseases and cancers that may be passed down should be documented.

A

Family History

62
Q

Encompasses all treatments they have ever undergone and their results

A

Treatment History

63
Q

crucial documents to outline directions by the patient regarding what they want or do not want in case they cannot communicate their medical care.

A

Medical directives

64
Q

Different lab results that the patient has received.

A

Lab History

65
Q

Patients should be able to make informed decisions about their care; thus, the physician should let the patient know all important information about all medical procedures.

A

Consent Form

66
Q

Noted by the physicians if changes or new information come up during the course of the treatment.

A

Progress notes

67
Q

Cards, insurance (ex: PhilHealth)

A

Financial Information

68
Q

If operation has been performed, were there any eventful happenings during the operation

A

Operation Report

69
Q

Was introduced to help prevent access to confidential information of patients by unauthorized people.

A

Health Insurance Portability Act and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

70
Q

When a healthcare provider - like a doctor, nurse, or other health professional - explains a medical treatment to a patient before the patient agrees to it.

A

Informed Consent

71
Q

minimum penalty for HIPAA violation where the individual did not know he violated HIPAA

A

$100 per violation

72
Q

annual maximum penalty amount for HIPAA violation

A

$25,000 for repeat violations

73
Q

Are those who store healthcare records in electronic form, healthcare clearing houses handle the billing needs of the providers.

A

Health Care Providers

74
Q

A disclosure of information to a third party, without patient consent or court order, of private information that the physician has learned within the patient-physician relationship.

A

Breach of Confidentiality