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midterms Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the weight of the human brain?
A) 2.5 kilograms
B) 1.3 kilograms
C) 0.5 kilograms
D) 3.7 kilograms

A

B

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2
Q

What are neurons?
A) Blood cells
B) Bone cells
C) Skin cells
D) Cells that receive and transmit electrochemical signals

A

D

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3
Q

Which statement best describes the relationship between creativity and science?
A) Creativity is irrelevant to science.
B) Creativity is essential in conventional thinking.
C) Creative thinking is the foundation of science.
D) Science discourages creativity.

A

C

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4
Q

Who made significant contributions to the study of human behavior during ancient times?
A) Freud
B) Wundt
C) Socratic philosophers
D) Hippocrates

A

C

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5
Q

What did Hippocrates believe was the cause of abnormal behavior?
A) Supernaturalism
B) Imbalances in body liquids
C) Dualism
D) Des Cartes’ theory

A

B

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6
Q

Who proposed the concept of dualism during the Renaissance?
A) Freud
B) Wundt
C) Hippocrates
D) Des Cartes

A

D

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7
Q

Which example best illustrates psychosomatic illness?
A) Headache due to dehydration
B) Rashes on the face due to stress from oral reporting
C) Allergic reaction to food
D) Broken bone due to a fall

A

B

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8
Q

What aspects of our biology does the study of the biology of behavior analyze, according to Rice (2020)?
A) Only the brain
B) Only neurotransmitters
C) The brain, neurotransmitters, and other aspects of our biology
D) None of the above

A

C

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9
Q

What does biological psychology focus on?
A) Social interactions
B) Environmental factors
C) The nervous system, hormones, and genetics
D) Cultural influences

A

C

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10
Q

Which discipline of neuroscience focuses on the structure of the nervous system?
A) Neurochemistry
B) Neuroanatomy
C) Neuroendocrinology
D) Neuropathology

A

B

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11
Q

What does neurochemistry study?
A) Functions and activities of the nervous system
B) Chemical bases of neural activity
C) Interactions between the nervous system and the endocrine system
D) Nervous system disorders

A

B

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12
Q

Which discipline of neuroscience investigates the interactions between the nervous system and the endocrine system?
A) Neurochemistry
B) Neuroendocrinology
C) Neuropharmacology
D) Neurophysiology

A

B

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13
Q

. What is the focus of neuropathology?
A) Functions and activities of the nervous system
B) Chemical bases of neural activity
C) Structure of the nervous system
D) Nervous system disorders

A

D

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14
Q

Which discipline of neuroscience examines the effects of drugs on neural activity?
A) Neurochemistry
B) Neuropharmacology
C) Neurophysiology
D) Neuroanatomy

A

B

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15
Q

What does neurophysiology study?
A) Structure of the nervous system
B) Chemical bases of neural activity
C) Functions and activities of the nervous system
D) Nervous system disorders

A

C

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16
Q

Which method is used when studying human subjects for ethical reasons?
A) Invasive method
B) Contrast X-rays
C) Non-invasive method
D) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

A

C

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17
Q

Which technique involves injecting a substance into the body that absorbs X-rays to produce a contrast for imaging?
A) Computed Tomography (CT)
B) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
C) Contrast X-rays
D) Positron Emission Tomography (PET)

A

C

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18
Q

What does Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) primarily provide visualization of?
A) Blood supply to the brain
B) Brain structure
C) Neural impulses
D) Lesions in the brain

A

B

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19
Q

Which technique provides information on both brain structure and function?
A) Computed Tomography (CT)
B) Contrast X-rays
C) Functional MRI (fMRI)
D) Radio-Frequency Lesion

A

C

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20
Q

What does Positron Emission Tomography (PET) primarily provide information about?
A) Blood supply to the brain
B) Brain structure
C) Neural impulses
D) Brain function

A

D

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21
Q

Which method involves cutting or sectioning of nerves to block neural impulses?
A) Aspirational method
B) Knife cut
C) Radio-frequency lesion
D) Cryogenic blockade

A

B

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22
Q

How is the brain tissue destroyed in the Aspirational method?
A) Heating or burning
B) Cooling until frozen
C) Suction with a glass pipette
D) Cutting or sectioning

A

C

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23
Q

What is the purpose of Radio-frequency Lesion?
A) Cooling the brain tissue
B) Cutting or sectioning nerves
C) Destroying brain tissue by heating or burning
D) Sucking brain tissue with a glass pipette

A

C

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24
Q

Which division of biopsychology studies the neural mechanisms of behavior through direct manipulation and recording of the brain in controlled experiments?
A) Psychopharmacology
B) Physiological Psychology
C) Neuropsychology
D) Psychophysiology

A

B

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25
Q

Why are laboratory animals primarily used as subjects in physiological psychology research?
A) Due to ethical concerns
B) To avoid human participants
C) To focus on direct brain manipulation
D) All of the above

A

D

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26
Q

What is the focus of psychopharmacology?
A) Direct manipulation of the brain
B) Study of brain damage in human patients
C) Manipulation of neural activity with drugs
D) Noninvasive recording procedures

A

C

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27
Q

What is a common purpose of psychopharmacological experiments?
A) Developing therapeutic drugs
B) Conducting case studies
C) Reducing drug abuse
D) All of the above

A

A

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28
Q

What does neuropsychology primarily study?
A) The psychological effects of brain damage
B) Direct manipulation of the brain
C) Neural bases of cognition
D) Relationship between physiological activity and psychological processes

A

A

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29
Q

What does psychophysiology study?
A) Neural mechanisms of behavior
B) Physiological effects of brain damage
C) Relation between physiological activity and psychological processes
D) Neural bases of cognition

A

C

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30
Q

What recording procedures are typically used in psychophysiology?
A) Invasive procedures
B) Noninvasive procedures
C) Case studies
D) Both A and C

A

B

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31
Q

What do cognitive neuroscientists study?
A) Neural mechanisms of behavior
B) Direct manipulation of the brain
C) Neural bases of cognition
D) Relation between physiological activity and psychological processes

A

C

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32
Q

Which individual was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physiology and Medicine in 1949 for the development of prefrontal lobotomy?
A) Dr. Carl Jung
B) Dr. Sigmund Freud
C) Dr. Egas Moniz
D) Dr. Ivan Pavlov

A

c

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33
Q

What is the primary purpose of prefrontal lobotomy as a surgical procedure?
A) To enhance executive functions
B) To treat mental illness
C) To increase brain connectivity
D) To stimulate neural activity

A

B

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34
Q

Which brain area is targeted in prefrontal lobotomy?
A) Occipital lobes
B) Temporal lobes
C) Prefrontal lobes
D) Parietal lobes

A

C

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35
Q

What is disrupted by prefrontal lobotomy?
A) Connections between the occipital lobes
B) Connections between the parietal lobes
C) Connections between the prefrontal lobes and the rest of the brain
D) Connections between the temporal lobes

A

C

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36
Q

What are the prefrontal lobes commonly associated with?
A) Visual processing
B) Auditory processing
C) Executive functions
D) Motor coordination

A

C

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37
Q

Which lobes of the brain are at the very front and are associated with executive functions?
A) Occipital lobes
B) Temporal lobes
C) Parietal lobes
D) Prefrontal lobes

A

D

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38
Q

What is considered physical matter according to the text?
A) Human mind
B) Human body, including the brain, and nonhuman animals
C) Human behavior
D) Abstract concepts

A

B

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39
Q

How is the human mind described in the text?
A) It obeys natural laws
B) It lacks physical substance
C) It is the purview of science
D) It is inherited

A

B

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40
Q

Which term describes behaviors that occur in all like members of a species, even when there seems to have been no opportunity for them to have been learned?
A) Nature
B) Nurture
C) Instinctive behaviors
D) Ethology

A

C

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41
Q

What condition was the patient in Oliver Sacks’s case suffering from?
A) Amnesia
B) Aphasia
C) Asomatognosia
D) Agnosia

A

C

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42
Q

Which part of the brain is typically damaged in cases of asomatognosia?
A) Left parietal lobe
B) Right parietal lobe
C) Frontal lobe
D) Temporal lobe

A

B

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43
Q

What does G. G. Gallup’s research on self-awareness in chimpanzees demonstrate?
A) Chimpanzees have no mind
B) Chimpanzees are incapable of psychological complexity
C) Even nonhumans are capable of self-awareness
D) Chimpanzees have more complex brains than humans

A

C

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44
Q

According to the statement, what are the three factors that contribute to all behavior?
A) Genetics, learning, and environment
B) Genetic endowment, experience, and perception of the current situation
C) Nature, nurture, and socialization
D) Instinct, conditioning, and culture

A

B

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45
Q

What process leads to the evolution of species that are better adapted to surviving and reproducing in their environmental niche?
A) Artificial selection
B) Natural selection
C) Social dominance
D) Courtship and display

A

B

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46
Q

What is fitness in the context of evolution?
A) The ability of an organism to contribute its genes to the next generation
B) The physical strength of an organism
C) The speed of an organism
D) The size of an organism

A

A

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47
Q

How do dominant males in many species increase their fitness?
A) By avoiding combative encounters with other males
B) By producing fewer offspring
C) By copulating more than non-dominant males
D) By being less effective in passing on their characteristics

A

C

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48
Q

What is the significance of courtship and display in the evolution of new species?
A) It increases social dominance
B) It promotes the evolution of new behaviors
C) It forms reproductive barriers between species
D) It ensures the survival of the fittest

A

C

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49
Q

How do scientists study the course of human evolution?
A) By studying fossil records and comparing current species
B) By conducting experiments in laboratories
C) By observing human behavior in modern society
D) By analyzing genetic sequences of living organisms

A

A

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50
Q

What defines vertebrates as a subgroup of chordates?
A) Presence of dorsal nerve cords
B) Presence of primitive bony fishes
C) Presence of spinal bones protecting dorsal nerve cords
D) Presence of complex multicellular structures

A

C

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51
Q

Which of the following is not one of the “Big Three” human attributes?
A) Large brain
B) Upright posture
C) Free hands with an opposable thumb
D) Large feet

A

D

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52
Q

What term is used to describe structures that are similar but do not have a common evolutionary origin?
A) Homologous
B) Analogous
C) Convergent
D) Divergent

A

B

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53
Q

What is convergent evolution?
A) Evolution of similar structures in unrelated species
B) Evolution of different structures in related species
C) Evolution of similar structures in closely related species
D) Evolution of a common ancestor

A

A

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54
Q

What is a characteristic of homologous structures?
A) They have similar functions
B) They do not have a common evolutionary origin
C) They are found in unrelated species
D) They have a common evolutionary origin and may have different functions

A

D

55
Q

Which type of evolution involves structures in unrelated species evolving to serve the same function?
A) Homologous
B) Analogous
C) Convergent
D) Divergent

A

C

56
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for more complex adaptive processes like learning and perception?
A) Brain stem
B) Cerebellum
C) Cerebrum
D) Hypothalamus

A

C

57
Q

What functions are primarily regulated by the brain stem?
A) Learning, perception, and motivation
B) Reflex activities critical for survival such as heart rate, respiration, and blood glucose level
C) Cognitive processes
D) Motor skills and coordination

A

B

58
Q

What is polygyny?
A) Mating arrangement in which one female forms mating bonds with more than one male
B) Mating arrangement in which one male forms mating bonds with more than one female
C) Enduring bonds formed between one male and one female
D) Enduring bonds formed between one female and one male

A

B

59
Q

Why did polygyny evolve in many mammalian species?
A) Because males make a greater contribution to rearing offspring
B) Because females produce fewer offspring during their lifetime compared to males
C) Because males provide more resources for offspring survival
D) Because females make a far greater contribution to rearing offspring than males

A

D

60
Q

What is polyandry?
A) Mating arrangement in which one female forms mating bonds with more than one male
B) Mating arrangement in which one male forms mating bonds with more than one female
C) Enduring bonds formed between one male and one female
D) Enduring bonds formed between one female and one male

A

A

61
Q

Which mating pattern involves enduring bonds formed between one male and one female?
A) Polygyny
B) Polyandry
C) Monogamy
D) Promiscuity

A

C

62
Q

Why do many human cultures not practice monogamy according to the text?
A) Because humans cannot compete with other species in living up to the ideal of monogamy
B) Because females contribute more to offspring rearing than males
C) Because males provide more resources for offspring survival
D) Because monogamy is not beneficial for passing on heritable characteristics

A

A

63
Q

According to the information provided, what do men typically value in their mates?
A) Power and earning capacity
B) Youth and attractiveness
C) Physical attractiveness
D) Intelligence and personality

A

B

64
Q

Who is credited with the study of inheritance in pea plants and the establishment of Mendelian genetics?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Gregor Mendel
C) Augustinian Monk
D) None of the above

A

B

65
Q

What are dichotomous traits according to Mendel’s studies?
A) Traits that occur in combination with each other
B) Traits that are observed in only one form
C) Traits that occur in both forms simultaneously
D) Traits that are passed down from parents to offspring

A

B

66
Q

In Mendel’s experiments with pea plants, what was the result of the first cross between offspring of true-breeding lines with brown and white seeds?
A) All offspring had white seeds
B) All offspring had brown seeds
C) Some offspring had brown seeds, and some had white seeds
D) The offspring had a combination of brown and white seeds

A

B

67
Q

What term describes an organism’s observable traits?
A) Genotype
B) Phenotype
C) Allele
D) Homozygous

A

B

68
Q

What do alleles represent in Mendelian genetics?
A) Inherited factors for each dichotomous trait
B) Observable traits of an organism
C) Genes that can pass to offspring
D) Two identical genes possessed by an organism for a trait

A

C

69
Q

What does it mean for an organism to be homozygous for a trait?
A) It possesses two identical genes for a trait
B) It possesses two different genes for a trait
C) It expresses both forms of a dichotomous trait
D) It exhibits a combination of traits

A

A

70
Q

What is the definition of a dominant trait according to the provided information?
A) Appears in about one-quarter of the second-generation offspring
B) Manifests only in homozygous condition
C) Appears in all first-generation offspring and has a strong effect in heterozygous individuals
D) Appears in only one parent but not in the other

A

C

71
Q

What is the process that produces gametes such as egg and sperm cells called?
A) Meiosis
B) Mitosis
C) Fertilization
D) Replication

A

A

72
Q

What is the role of sex chromosomes in determining an individual’s sex?
A) They determine an individual’s height and hair color
B) They influence traits controlled by genes on the autosomes
C) They carry genes that determine whether an individual is male or female
D) They control traits unrelated to an individual’s sex

A

C

73
Q

Which chromosome pair determines an individual’s sex in mammals?
A) 22
B) X and Y
C) 21
D) X and Z

A

B

74
Q

What term describes traits influenced by genes on the sex chromosomes?
A) Recessive traits
B) Sex-linked traits
C) Dominant traits
D) Homozygous traits

A

B

75
Q

Which of the following describes a dominant trait according to the provided information?
A) Manifests only in homozygous condition
B) Appears in about one-quarter of the second-generation offspring
C) Appears in all first-generation offspring and has a strong effect in heterozygous individuals
D) Occurs randomly in offspring regardless of parental traits

A

C

76
Q

What is the result of the process of genetic recombination?
A) Chromosomes divide into matched pairs
B) Each gamete contains unique combinations of chromosomes from both parents
C) The number of chromosomes in gametes doubles
D) The genetic code on chromosomes is rearranged

A

B

77
Q

Which type of cell division occurs in the body to produce daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell?
A) Meiosis
B) Fertilization
C) Mitosis
D) Recombination

A

C

78
Q

Where is the Central Nervous System (CNS) located?
A) Outside the skull and spine
B) Within the skull and spine
C) In the limbs and skin
D) In the organs and joints

A

B

79
Q

Which part of the CNS is responsible for problem-solving, emotions, and controlling physical movements?
A) Brain
B) Spinal Cord
C) Peripheral nerves
D) Autonomic nervous system

A

A

80
Q

Which division of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) interacts with the external environment?
A) Somatic Nervous System (SNS)
B) Autonomic Nervous System
C) Afferent Nerves
D) Efferent Nerves

A

A

81
Q

What type of nerves carry sensory signals from the skin, muscles, joints, eyes, and ears to the CNS?
A) Afferent nerves
B) Efferent nerves
C) Motor nerves
D) Autonomic nerves

A

A

82
Q

Which division of the PNS regulates involuntary body processes like heartbeat and breathing?
A) Somatic Nervous System (SNS)
B) Afferent Nerves
C) Autonomic Nervous System
D) Efferent Nerves

A

C

83
Q

Which region of the spinal cord do sympathetic nerves project from?
A) Cervical
B) Lumbar and thoracic
C) Sacral
D) Coccygeal

A

B

84
Q

What is the primary function of sympathetic nerves?
A) Slowing down heart rate
B) Relaxing the bladder
C) Expending energy to respond to environmental threats
D) Conserving physical resources

A

C

85
Q

Which region of the spinal cord do parasympathetic nerves project from?
A) Cervical
B) Lumbar and thoracic
C) Sacral
D) Coccygeal

A

C

86
Q

What is the primary function of parasympathetic nerves?
A) Speeding up heart rate
B) Controlling the bladder
C) Mobilizing energy resources
D) Dilating eye pupils

A

B

87
Q

Which system stimulates, organizes, and mobilizes energy resources in threatening situations?
A) Sympathetic Nerves
B) Parasympathetic Nerves
C) Somatic Nervous System
D) Autonomic Nervous System

A

A

88
Q

Which nerve controls eye movements up and down, as well as turning the eyes up and away from the nose?
A) Oculomotor nerve
B) Trochlear nerve
C) Trigeminal nerve
D) Abducens nerve

A

A

89
Q

What condition can affect the trochlear nerve, resulting in double vision or blurred vision?
A) Papilledema
B) Trigeminal neuralgia
C) Bell’s palsy
D) Impairment of the trochlear nerve

A

D

90
Q

Which nerve mediates sensations of the face and eye, as well as controls some muscle movements involved in chewing and swallowing?
A) Oculomotor nerve
B) Trochlear nerve
C) Trigeminal nerve
D) Abducens nerve

A

C

91
Q

What condition is associated with damage to the facial nerve?
A) Papilledema
B) Trigeminal neuralgia
C) Bell’s palsy
D) Tinnitus

A

C

92
Q

What does the hypoglossal nerve control?
A) Shoulder movement
B) Tongue movement
C) Breathing and heart function
D) Sense of taste

A

B

93
Q

What function does the vagus nerve control?
A) Shoulder movement
B) Tongue movement
C) Breathing and heart function
D) Sense of taste

A

C

94
Q

Which nerve helps control sense of hearing and balance?
A) Vestibulocochlear nerve
B) Glossopharyngeal nerve
C) Vagus nerve
D) Accessory nerve

A

A

95
Q

What is the characteristic feature of the arachnoid membrane?

A) Contains nerves and blood vessels
B) Tough and durable
C) Spider-web-like with no blood vessels
D) Filled with cerebrospinal fluid

A

C

96
Q

Which layer of the meninges serves as the outermost protective covering for the brain and spinal cord?

A) Arachnoid Membrane
B) Dura Mater
C) Pia Mater
D) Subarachnoid Space

A

B

97
Q

Which space contains cerebrospinal fluid and numerous large blood vessels?

A) Dura Mater
B) Pia Mater
C) Subarachnoid Space
D) Arachnoid Membrane

A

C

98
Q

What layer of the meninges is characterized by its role in sustaining the cells with nerves and blood vessels?

A) Arachnoid Membrane
B) Dura Mater
C) Pia Mater
D) Subarachnoid Space

A

C

99
Q

What is the role of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in protecting the central nervous system?

A) Providing structural support to the brain
B) Cushioning the brain and spinal cord
C) Nourishing the neurons
D) All of the above

A

B

100
Q

What symptoms might patients experience if they have had some of their cerebrospinal fluid drained away?

A) Nausea and vomiting
B) Dizziness and blurred vision
C) Raging headaches and stabbing pain upon head movements
D) Muscle weakness and numbness

A

C

101
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A) Production of neurotransmitters
B) Transport of nutrients to the spinal cord
C) Removal of metabolic waste products
D) Maintaining stable intracranial pressure

A

A

102
Q

What is the main function of glial cells in the nervous system?

A) Producing electrical impulses
B) Providing support and protection for neurons
C) Forming neural circuits
D) Secreting neurotransmitters

A

B

103
Q

Which type of glial cell produces the myelin sheath in the central nervous system?

A) Oligodendrocytes
B) Schwann cells
C) Astrocytes
D) Microglia

A

A

104
Q

In which part of the nervous system do Schwann cells primarily function?

A) Central nervous system
B) Peripheral nervous system
C) Autonomic nervous system
D) Enteric nervous system

A

B

105
Q

How many myelin segments does each Schwann cell typically produce?

A) One
B) Several
C) Two
D) None

A

A

106
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of oligodendrocytes compared to Schwann cells regarding myelin production?

A) They produce fewer myelin segments
B) They produce myelin segments only in the peripheral nervous system
C) They produce myelin segments on more than one axon
D) They produce myelin segments faster

A

C

107
Q

What is the primary function of myelination in the nervous system?

A) Decreasing the efficiency of electrical transmission
B) Increasing the speed of electrical transmission
C) Providing structural support to neurons
D) Initiating inflammatory responses

A

B

108
Q

How do microglia respond to injury or disease?

A) By decreasing in size
B) By triggering inflammatory responses
C) By forming myelin sheaths
D) By reducing synapse formation

A

B

109
Q

What is a characteristic feature of astrocytes?

A) They are the smallest glial cells
B) They are named for their round shape
C) They control the blood-brain barrier and blood flow
D) They primarily regulate cell death

A

C

110
Q

How do astrocytes contribute to the regulation of the blood-brain barrier?

A) By forming myelin sheaths around neuronal fibers
B) By producing electrical impulses
C) By contracting or relaxing blood vessels
D) By triggering inflammatory responses

A

C

111
Q

What is the function of the extensions of some astrocytes that cover the outer surfaces of blood vessels in the brain?

A) Initiating synapse formation
B) Contacting neurons
C) Allowing passage of chemicals from blood into CNS neurons
D) Responding to brain injury

A

C

112
Q

How do astrocytes contribute to synapse formation and maintenance?

A) By producing myelin
B) By exchanging chemical signals with neurons and other astrocytes
C) By triggering inflammatory responses
D) By regulating cell death

A

B

113
Q

What are the three axes used to describe directions in the vertebrate nervous system?

A) Anterior–posterior, dorsal–ventral, and medial–lateral
B) Superior–inferior, proximal–distal, and medial–lateral
C) Rostral–caudal, dorsal–ventral, and lateral–medial
D) Frontal–sagittal, horizontal–coronal, and proximal–distal

A

A

114
Q

How is the direction rostral (anterior) described in relation to the midbrain?

A) Toward the tail
B) Toward the top of the head
C) Toward the beak or nose
D) Toward the bottom of the head

A

C

115
Q

What does the term “caudal” mean in Latin?

A) Tail
B) Head
C) Middle
D) Chest

A

A

116
Q

How is the direction dorsal described in relation to the midbrain?

A) Toward the surface of the back or top of the head
B) Toward the surface of the chest or bottom of the head
C) Toward the midline of the body
D) Away from the midline toward the body’s lateral surfaces

A

A

117
Q

What does the term “ventral” mean?

A) Toward the surface of the back
B) Toward the surface of the chest
C) Toward the midline of the body
D) Away from the midline toward the body’s lateral surfaces

A

B

118
Q

In what direction is a structure described as “proximal”?

A) Close
B) Far
C) Top
D) Bottom

A

A

119
Q

What type of section divides the brain into right and left halves?

A) Horizontal section
B) Frontal section
C) Sagittal section
D) Midsagittal section

A

D

120
Q

What type of section is cut at a right angle to any long, narrow structure, such as the spinal cord?

A) Horizontal section
B) Frontal section
C) Sagittal section
D) Cross section

A

D

121
Q

What primarily composes the gray matter of the spinal cord?

A) Myelinated axons
B) Interneurons and cell bodies
C) Glossy white sheen
D) Dorsal and ventral horns

A

B

122
Q

What is the distinguishing feature of white matter in the spinal cord?

A) Presence of myelin sheath
B) Absence of axons
C) Location near the surface of the cord
D) Glossy white sheen

A

A

123
Q

What gives the white matter its glossy white appearance?

A) Presence of axons
B) Myelin sheath surrounding the axons
C) Location near the dorsal horns
D) Ventral arms of the spinal gray matter

A

B

124
Q

What are the two arms of the spinal gray matter called?

A) Dorsal and ventral roots
B) Dorsal and ventral horns
C) Spinal nerves and interneurons
D) Gray matter and white matter

A

B

125
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are attached to the spinal cord?

A) 12
B) 31
C) 62
D) 124

A

C

126
Q

What does “encephalon” mean?

A) Behind the head
B) Within the head
C) Outside the head
D) On top of the head

A

B

127
Q

What are the first indications of the developing brain in the vertebrate embryo?

A) Five swellings
B) Three swellings
C) Two swellings
D) Fluid-filled tubes

A

B

128
Q

What does the telencephalon mainly consist of?

A) Regulation of autonomic functions
B) Processing sensory information
C) Growth during development
D) Left and right cerebral hemispheres

A

D

129
Q

What is the order of the brain divisions below the telencephalon, as memorized by students?

A) Mesencephalon, prosencephalon, rhombencephalon
B) Mesencephalon, myelencephalon, prosencephalon
C) Myelencephalon, mesencephalon, rhombencephalon
D) Myelencephalon, prosencephalon, rhombencephalon

A

C

130
Q

What functions are associated with the prosencephalon?

A) Regulating movement and processing auditory and visual information
B) Processing sensory information and regulating autonomic functions
C) Regulating autonomic, endocrine, and motor functions, and processing sensory information
D) Regulating autonomic functions and maintaining balance and equilibrium

A

C

131
Q

What does the rhombencephalon primarily regulate?

A) Heart rate and breathing
B) Movement and balance
C) Sensory information and reasoning
D) Auditory and visual information

A

B

132
Q

What are the components of the brain stem?

A) Pons, cerebellum, and medulla
B) Telencephalon, diencephalon, and midbrain
C) Midbrain, pons, and medulla
D) Cerebrum, thalamus, and hypothalamus

A

C

133
Q

What is the main composition of the myelencephalon?

A) Tracts carrying signals between the brain and body
B) Sensory processing areas
C) Auditory and visual processing centers
D) Regulation of autonomic functions

A

A

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