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Biology 101 > Midterm: Topics 1 - 6 > Flashcards

Midterm: Topics 1 - 6 Flashcards

1
Q

A suggested explanation for a problem that can be tested such as a microorganism was causing significant fish kills in a lake would be called a

A

Hypothesis

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2
Q

What is the smallest, basic unit of life?

A

Cell

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3
Q

Homeostasis provides what kind of environment?

A

Constant

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4
Q

Organizing known species of organisms according to their evolutionary relatedness is known as

A

Taxonomy

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5
Q

What is a form of logical thinking that uses related observations to come to a general conclusion?

A

Inductive reasoning

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6
Q

A collection of tissues involved in a common function are known as

A

Organs

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7
Q

The study of the structure and function of single-celled organisms is known as

A

Microbiology

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8
Q

The type of science that is done in order to understand living things without regard to an ability to directly use that knowledge is known as

A

Basic science

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9
Q

Which is a group of the same species living in a geographical area?

A

Population

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10
Q

The idea that organisms are able to “fit” their environment due to their characteristics is known as

A

Adaptation

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11
Q

Which is the smallest portion of a substance that retains the properties of an element?

A

Atom

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12
Q

The negative subatomic particles that orbit the nucleus are

A

Electrons

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13
Q

Water is an example of a(n)

a. atom
b. ion
c. compound
d. mixture
e. element

A

Compound

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14
Q

How do hydrophobic molecules react with water?

A

Repelled by

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15
Q

Starch is

a. a polypeptide
b. a polysaccharide
c. a lipid
d. a nucleic acid

A

b. a polysaccharide

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16
Q

Carbon usually forms how many bonds with other atoms?

A

4

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17
Q

Which are NOT macromolecules (also known as polymers)?

a. proteins
b. cellulose
c. amino acids
d. nucleic acids

A

c. amino acids

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18
Q

Which of the following includes all the others?

a. sucrose
b. glucose
c. cellulose
d. starch
e. carbohydrate

A

e. carbohydrate

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19
Q

What kind of bond exists between two amino acids in a protein?

A

peptide

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20
Q

A chemical buffer

a. makes things shiny
b. equalizes ions
c. provides hydrogen ions or removes them to maintain pH
d. puts up a sphere of hydration between ions

A

c. provides hydrogen ions or removes them to maintain pH

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21
Q

The idea that mitochondria and chloroplasts likely came from a larger prokaryotic cell engulfing and enslaving a smaller prokaryotic cell is known as the _____ theory.

A

Endosymbiotic

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22
Q

Which of the following has a cell wall made up of peptidoglycan?

a. bacteria
b. plants
c. animals
d. archaea
e. all of these

A

bacteria

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23
Q

________ is responsible for making lipids (and membrane vesicles).

A

Smooth ER

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24
Q

________ are specialized storage structures in plants (can hold water for rigidity).

A

Central vacuole

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25
Q

_________ is (are) primarily responsible for moving things from one part of the cell to another.

A

Vesicles

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26
Q

_______ is the “powerhouse” of the cell, known for making ATP.

A

Mitochondria

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27
Q

_______ is the “post office” of the cell, known for sorting and sending proteins and lipids to their final destination.

A

Golgi

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28
Q

Prokaryotes do NOT have _____.

A

Membrane bound nuclei

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29
Q

_____ is a cell part responsible for maintaining cell shape, internal organization, and cell movement.

A

Cytoskeleton

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30
Q

Which type of junctions allows small molecules to pass between cells?

A

Gap

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31
Q

All of the following are associated with endocytosis EXCEPT

a. secretion of cell products
b. endocytic vesicles
c. phagocytosis
d. plasma membrane going in
e. bulk-phase uptake of materials

A

a. secretion of cell products

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32
Q

To be able to invade host cells, viruses need something to attach to, usually a cell membrane

A

Receptor

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33
Q

The concentration of glucose inside of a cell is higher than the concentration outside of that cell, yet glucose continues to enter the cell. This is an example of

A

Active transport

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34
Q

A charge difference across a membrane, like what happens with K+ and Na+, is known as the

A

Electrochemical gradient

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35
Q

Which of the following accounts for the cell membrane keeping out polar substances from the cell?

a. the hydrophilic phospholipid heads
b. the integral membrane proteins
c. the hydrophobic fatty acid tails of the phospholipids
d. the cytoskeleton

A

C. The hydrophobic fatty acid tails of the phospholipids

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36
Q

The carrier molecules (transporters) used in active transport are

A

Proteins

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37
Q

A single-celled freshwater organism is transferred to salt water. Which of the following is likely to happen?

a. the cell bursts
b. salt is pumped out of the cell
c. shrinking
d. enzymes flow out of the cell
e. all of these

A

c. shrinking

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38
Q

Which of the following is NOT likely to diffuse through a membrane?

a. glucose
b. oxygen
c. water
d. carbon dioxide

A

a. glucose

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39
Q

Which statement is NOT true?

a. membranes are often perforated by proteins that extend through both sides of the membrane.
b. some membranes have proteins with channels or pores that allow for the passage of hydrophilic molecules.
c. polar substances have an easier time passing directly through membranes than nonpolar substances do.
d. the current concept of a membrane can be best summarized by the fluid mosaic model.

E)
The lipid bilayer serves as a hydrophobic barrier between two fluid regions.

A

c. polar substances have an easier time passing directly through membranes than nonpolar substances do.

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40
Q

Which of the following would not affect diffusion?

a. molecular weight
b. concentration
c. color
d. temperature

A

c. color

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41
Q

In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction such as X + Y = Z, Z is the

A

Product

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42
Q

Intermediates are associated with which of the following?

a. antioxidants
b. dead cells
c. free energy
d. metabolic pathways

A

d. metabolic pathways

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43
Q

_______ reactions use energy to build complex molecules.

A

Anabolic

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44
Q

Which of the following binds to an allosteric site in order to change the shape of enzyme so that the substrate won’t bind to the active site?

a. cofactor
b. suppressor
c. activator
d. inhibitor

A

d. inhibitor

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45
Q

Typically, what molecule is causing feedback inhibition in a metabolic pathway?

A

The end product of the pathway

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46
Q

Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by lowering what kind of energy?

A

Activation

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47
Q

Essentially, the first law of thermodynamics says that

A

energy can neither be created nor destroyed

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48
Q

The second law of thermodynamics states that

A

energy tends to become increasingly disorganized

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49
Q

A reaction that releases free energy is known as a(n) _____ reaction.

A

exergonic

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50
Q

When a substrate binds to the active site of an enzyme, it changes the shape of the enzyme to help the reaction proceed. What is this model called?

A

induced fit

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51
Q

Plants need which of the following to directly carry out photosynthesis?

a. H2O
b. CO2
c. O2
d. lipid
e. both H2O AND CO2

A

e. both H2O and CO2

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52
Q

The final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration is

A

O2

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53
Q

Pyruvate is regarded as the end product of

A

glycolysis

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54
Q

Glycolysis typically takes place in the

A

cytoplasm

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55
Q

The oxygen released in photosynthesis comes from

A

water

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56
Q

Which of the following conditions is NOT required for Calvin Cycle?

a. carbon dioxide is present
b. the plant is exposed to light
c. RuBP is present
d. enough ATP
e. enough NADPH

A

b. the plant is exposed to light

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57
Q

The correct sequence of the three processes listed below is:

I – glycolysis II – oxidative phosphorylation III – citric acid cycle

A

I – III – II or glycolysis - citric acid cycle - oxidative phosphorylation

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58
Q

An organism that can produce its own food is called a(n)

A

autotroph

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59
Q

The citric acid cycle takes place in the

A

mitochondria

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60
Q

Four of the five answers listed below are catabolic processes for carbon compounds. Select the EXCEPTION.

a. Calvin cycle
b. citric acid cycle
c. fermentation
d. cellular respiration
e. glycolysis

A

Calvin cycle

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61
Q

Define biology

A

the study of life

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62
Q

Properties of life (8 characteristics that define life)

A

order, sensitivity or response to stimuli, reproduction, adaptation, growth and development, regulation, homeostasis, and energy processing.

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63
Q

Order

A

consists of one or more cells

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64
Q

Positive response to stimuli

A

movement towards a stimulus

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65
Q

Negative response to stimuli

A

movement away from a stimulus

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66
Q

Reproduction in single-celled organisms

A

duplicate DNA and divide it equally, divides to form two new cells

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67
Q

Reproduction in multi-cellular organisms

A

produce specialized reproductive cells that form new individuals,genes containing DNA are passed to offspring

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68
Q

What is adaptation?

A

“fit” to the environment, consequence of evolution by natural selection

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69
Q

What do adaptations enhance of individuals exhibiting them?

A

reproductive potential

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70
Q

Are adaptations constant or do they vary?

A

adaptations vary

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71
Q

What do gene instructions direct?

A

cellular growth and development

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72
Q

Why do offspring exhibits characteristics of their parents?

A

From the DNA or genes that get passed on during reproduction

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73
Q

What is regulation as a property of life?

A

complex organisms requiring multiple regulatory mechanisms to coordinate internal functions

Example: circulatory system carries oxygen throughout the body, delivers nutrients to cells

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74
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

the ability of an organism to maintain constant internal conditions

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75
Q

What is energy processing as a property of life?

A

All organisms use a source of energy for their metabolic activities.

Example: plants capturing light energy from the Sung and converting it into chemical energy in food

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76
Q

What is the smallest and most fundamental unit of matter?

A

atom

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77
Q

What is an atom?

A

nucleus surrounded by electrons

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78
Q

What do atoms combine to form?

A

a molecule

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79
Q

What is a molecule?

A

chemical structure consisting of at least two atoms held together by a chemical bond

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80
Q

What are macromolecules?

A

large molecules formed by combining monomers, biologically important

Example: DNA

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81
Q

What are monomers?

A

molecules, smaller units

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82
Q

What are organelles?

A

small structures in cells that perform specialized functions

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83
Q

What is the smallest fundamental unit of structure and function in living organisms?

A

cell

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84
Q

Why aren’t viruses considered living?

A

they are not made of cells; they have to invade and hijack a living cell

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85
Q

What are prokaryotic cells?

A

single-celled organisms lacking organelles surrounded by a membrane and do not have nuclei surrounded by nuclear membranes

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86
Q

What are eukaryotes?

A

organisms with membrane-bound organelles and nuclei

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87
Q

What are organs?

A

collections of tissues grouped together based on a common function

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88
Q

Are organs found in:

a. plants only
b. plants and animals
c. animals only

A

b. plants and animals

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89
Q

What is an organ system?

A

functionally related organs

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90
Q

What are organisms?

A

individual living entities

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91
Q

What are microorganisms?

A

single-celled prokaryotes and single-celled eukaryotes

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92
Q

What is a basic unit of matter consisting of a dense central nucleus surrounded by a loud of negatively charged electrons?

A

atom

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93
Q

What is a molecule?

A

a phospholipid, composed of many atoms

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94
Q

What is an organelle?

A

structures that perform functions within a cell

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95
Q

Differentiate between organisms, populations, and communities

A

in a park, each person is an organism. together all the people make up a population. all the plant and animal species in the park compromise a community

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96
Q

Describe the levels of organization from smallest to largest

A

atom - molecule - organelles - cells - tissues - organs - organ systems - organisms - populations - communities - ecosystem - biosphere

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97
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a. tissues exist within organs which exist within organ systems
b. communities exist within populations which exist within ecosystems
c. organelles exist within cells which exist within tissues
d. communities exist within ecosystems which exist in the biosphere

A

b. communities exist within populations which exist within ecosystems

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98
Q

What is applied science?

A

a form of science that solves real-world problems

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99
Q

what is basic science?

A

science that seeks to expand knowledge regardless of the short-term application of that knowledge

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100
Q

What is a control?

A

a part of an experiment that does not change during the experiment

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101
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A

a form of logical thinking that uses a general statement to forecast specific results

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102
Q

What is descriptive science?

A

A form of science that aims to observe, explore and find things out

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103
Q

Define falsifiable

A

able to be disproven by experimental results

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104
Q

What is a population?

A

collectively, all the individuals of a species living within a specific area

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105
Q

What is a community?

A

set of populations inhabiting a particular area

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106
Q

What is an ecosystem?

A

all the living things in a particular area together with abiotic, or non-living, parts of that environment

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107
Q

What is the biosphere?

A

collection of all ecosystems, represents zones of life on earth include land, water and portions of he atmosphere

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108
Q

What is evolution?

A

the process of gradual change during with new species arise from older species

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109
Q

How many levels are in the current taxonomic system?

A

8 levels

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110
Q

What are the 8 levels of the current taxonomic system?

A

species, genus, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain

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111
Q

What are the 3 domains of life?

A

Eukarya, Archae, and the Bacteria

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112
Q

What organisms are in the domain eukarya?

A

fungi, plants, animals, and protists

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113
Q

What are archae?

A

single-celled organisms without nuclei, includes many extremophiles living in harsh environments

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114
Q

What are bacteria?

A

single-celled organisms without nuclei

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115
Q

Are classifications permanent?

A

No, they will change when new information becomes available

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116
Q

What are bionomial names?

A

consists of genus name (capitalized) and the species name (lowercase)

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117
Q

What is a phylogenetic tree?

A

diagram showing evolutionary relationships among biological species based on similarities and differences in genetic or physical traits or both

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118
Q

What do the internal nodes of the phylogenetic tree represent?

A

represent ancestors and points of evolution when an ancestor diverged to form two new species

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119
Q

What does the length of the branch on a phylogenetic tree represent?

A

estimate of relative time

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120
Q

define neurobiology

A

study of the nervous system

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121
Q

define paleontology

A

study of life’s history by fossils

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122
Q

define zoology

A

study of animals

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123
Q

define botany

A

study of plants

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124
Q

define ecologist

A

specialist studying the interactions of organisms in their environments

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125
Q

define physiologists

A

specialist studying the workings of cells, tissues, and organs

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126
Q

define science

A

knowledge about the natural world

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127
Q

What is the scientific method?

A

method of research with defined steps that include experiments and careful observation

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128
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

suggested explanation for an event, which can be tested

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129
Q

What is a scientific theory?

A

generally accepted, thoroughly tested and confirmed explanation for a set of observations or phenomena

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130
Q

What are scientific laws?

A

describe how elements of nature will behave under certain specific conditions

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131
Q

What are natural sciences?

A

fields of science related to the physical world and its phenomena and processes

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132
Q

What are life sciences?

A

study living things

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133
Q

What are physical sciences?

A

study non-living matter

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134
Q

What is inductive reasoning?

A

form of logical thinking that uses related observations to arrive at a general conclusion

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135
Q

What is qualitative data?

A

descriptive

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136
Q

What is quantitative data?

A

consisting of numbers

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137
Q

What is deductive reasoning?

A

form of logical thinking that uses a general principle or law to forecast specific results

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138
Q

What does descriptive science aim to do?

A

to observe, explore, and discover

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139
Q

Hypothesis-based science

A

begins with a specific question or problem and a potential answer or solution to be tested

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140
Q

What are the steps of the scientific methods?

A

make an observation, ask a question, form a hypothesis , make a prediction, do an experiment, analyze results, determine if data supports hypothesis, report results or try again

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141
Q

What is a variable?

A

any part of the experiment that can vary or change during the experiment

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142
Q

What is a control?

A

part of the experiment that does not change

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143
Q

Define soluble

A

dissolves in water

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144
Q

Define insoluble

A

does not dissolve in water

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145
Q

key building blocks of the chemicals found in living things

A

carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, sulfur, and phosphorus

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146
Q

Matter

A

occupies space and has mass

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147
Q

What are elements?

A

substances that cannot be broken down or transformed chemically into other substances

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148
Q

Smallest component of an element that retains all of the chemical properties of that element

A

atom

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149
Q

All atoms contain protons, electrons, and neutrons except:

A

Hydrogen which only has one proton and one electron

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150
Q

What is a proton?

A

positively charged particle that resides in the nucleus

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151
Q

What is the nucleus?

A

the core of an atom

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152
Q

What is the mass and charge of a proton?

A

mass of 1 charge of +1

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153
Q

What is an electron?

A

negatively charged particle that travels in the space around the nucleus

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154
Q

What is the mass and charge of an electron?

A

no mass, charge of -1

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155
Q

What is a neutron?

A

reside in the nucleus on atom

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156
Q

What is the mass and charge of a neutron?

A

mass of 1, no charge

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157
Q

What is the mass of an atom equal to?

A

the number of protons and neutrons of that atom

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158
Q

What is the atomic number of an element?

A

equal to the number of protons that the element contains

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159
Q

What is the mass number?

A

number of protons plus the number of neutrons in that element

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160
Q

What is the periodic table of elements?

A

chart of elements including atomic number and relative atomic mass of each element

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161
Q

What are isotopes?

A

different forms of the same element with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons

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162
Q

What elements have naturally occurring elements

A

carbon, potassium and uranium

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163
Q

Most common isotope of carbon

A

Carbon-12

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164
Q

What are radioactive isotopes?

A

an isotope that spontaneously emits particles or energy to form a more stable element

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165
Q

What is the half-life of an isotope?

A

the time it takes for half of the original concentration of an isotope to decay to its more stable form

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166
Q

How many electrons can be hold in the closest shell

A

2 electrons

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167
Q

What shell is filled first with electrons?

A

the closest shell to the nucleus

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168
Q

How many electrons can the second shell hold?

A

8 electrons

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169
Q

How many electrons can the third shell hold?

A

8 electrons

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170
Q

How are electrons arranged in the 2nd and 3rd shells?

A

arranged in four pairs

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171
Q

How are electron shells filled?

A

one position in each pair is filled with an electron before any pairs are completed

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172
Q

What do the rows of the periodic table represent?

A

rows correspond to the number of shells that the elements within that row have

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173
Q

What do the columns of the periodic table represent?

A

Increasing numbers of electrons from left to right

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174
Q

When is an atom most stable?

A

When its outermost shell is full

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175
Q

What are chemical bonds?

A

interactions between two or more of the same or different elements that result in the formation of molecules

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176
Q

What is the octet rule?

A

states that the outermost shell of an element with a low atomic number can hold eight electrons

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177
Q

What can an element do to satisfy the octet rule?

A

donate, accept, or share electrons

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178
Q

what is an ion?

A

an atom or compound that does not contain equal number of protons and electrons, and therefore has a net charge

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179
Q

What are cations?

A

positive ions that are formed by losing electrons

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180
Q

What are anions?

A

negative ions that are formed by gaining electrons

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181
Q

What is an electron transfer?

A

movement of electrons from one element to another

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182
Q

Name 4 types of bonds

A

ionic, covalent, hydrogen bonds, and van der Waals interations.

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183
Q

Which bonds have strong interactions?

A

ionic and covalent bonds

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184
Q

What kind of charge will an element have if it accepts an electron?

A

negative charge

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185
Q

What is an ionic bond?

A

a chemical bond that forms between ions of opposite charges

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186
Q

What are covalent bonds?

A

a type of strong bond between two or more of the same or different elements; forms when electrons are shared between elements

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187
Q

Which bond(s) dissociate in water?

a. ionic bonds
b. covalent bonds
c. both

A

a. ionic bonds

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188
Q

What type of bonds are used to form water?

A

covalent bonds

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189
Q

What are the two types of covalent bonds?

A

polar and non-polar

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190
Q

What are non-polar covalent bonds?

A

bonds formed between two atoms of the same element or between different elements that share the electrons equally

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191
Q

What are polar covalent bonds?

A

a type of covalent bond in which electrons are pulled toward one atom and away from another, resulting in a slightly positive and slightly negative charged regions of the molecule

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192
Q

Does oxygen have a slightly positive or negative charge in water?

A

slightly negative because the electrons spend more time near the oxygen nucleus

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193
Q

Does hydrogen have a slightly positive or negative charge in water?

A

slightly positive charge because electrons spend more time near oxygen than hydrogen nuclei

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194
Q

What are two frequently occurring weak bonds?

A

hydrogen and van der Waals interactions

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195
Q

What is a hydrogen bond?

A

A weak bond between partially positively charged hydrogen atoms and partially negatively charged elements or molecules

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196
Q

What are van der Waals interactions?

A

a weak attraction or interaction between molecules caused by slightly positively charge or slightly negatively charged atoms

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197
Q

Where do van der Waals interactions occur?

A

between polar, covalently bound, atoms in different molecules

198
Q

How does MRI imaging works?

A

by subjecting hydrogen nuclei to fluctuating magnetic fields which cause them to emit their own magnetic field

199
Q

How much of the body is made up of water?

A

approx. 60-70%

200
Q

Define hydrophilic

A

a substance that dissolves in water; water-loving

201
Q

Define hydrophobic

A

a substance that does not dissolve in water; water-fearing

202
Q

What is temperature?

A

a measure of the motion (kinetic energy) of molecules

203
Q

Define evaporation

A

the release of water molecules from liquid water to form water vapor

204
Q

Example of a solvent

205
Q

What is a solvent?

A

a substance capable of dissolving another substance

206
Q

What are spheres of hydration?

A

charged particles form hydrogen bonds with a surrounding layer of water molecules, also known as hydration shells

207
Q

Why is water an effective solvent

A

due to its polarity

208
Q

What is cohesion?

A

the intermolecular fores between water molecules caused by the polar nature of water, creates surface tension

209
Q

What is surface tension?

A

the cohesive force at the surface of a body of liquid that prevents the molecules from seperating, capacity of a substance to withstand rupture when placed under tension or stress

210
Q

What is adhesion?

A

the attraction between water molecules and other molecules

211
Q

What is the pH of a solution?

A

a measure of its acidity or alkalinity

212
Q

What is litmus paper?

A

paper treated with natural water-soluble dye so it can be used as a pH indicator

213
Q

What does the pH test measure

A

the amount of hydrogen ions that exists in a given solution

high concentration = low pH
low concentration = high pH

214
Q

What does a change of one unit on the pH scale represent

A

a change in the concentration of hydrogen ions by a factor of 10

215
Q

What is the pH of pure water

A

neutral (7)

216
Q

What pH levels are acidic?

A

anything below 7

217
Q

What pH levels are alkaline?

A

anything above 7

218
Q

What is the pH of blood?

A

7.4 slightly alkaline

219
Q

What is the pH of the stomach?

A

1 - 2 highly acidic

220
Q

What are acids?

A

substances that provide hydrogen ions (H+) and lower pH

221
Q

What are bases?

A

substances that provide hydroxide ions (OH-) and raise pH

222
Q

Window of the pH scale of cells in the body

223
Q

What do buffers readily absorb?

A

excess H+ or OH-, this allows for the body to maintain pH levels

224
Q

Buffer system of the human body

A

carbonic acid (H2CO3) and bicarbonate (HCO3-) anion

225
Q

What are large molecules necessary for life that are built from smaller organic molecules?

A

biological macromolecules

226
Q

What are the 4 major classes of biological macromolecules?

A

carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids

227
Q

Are biological macromolecules organic or inorganic?

A

organic because they contain carbon

228
Q

“foundation” element for molecules in living things

229
Q

how many covalent bonds can carbon form

230
Q

natural sources of carbohydrates

A

grains, fruits, and vegetables

231
Q

what is the formula representing carbohydrates

A

(CH2O)n, where n = number of carbon atoms in the molecule

232
Q

Define monosaccharides

A

simple sugars

Example: glucose

233
Q

form of monosaccharides

A

exist as linear chain or as ring-shaped molecules

234
Q

formula for glucose

235
Q

glucose, galactose, and fructose are all found in

A

carbohydrates

236
Q

galactose and fructose are

a. monosaccharides
b. polysaccharides
c. disaccharides

A

a. monosaccharides

237
Q

What are disaccharides?

A

form when two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration reaction

238
Q

Lactose maltose and sucrose are

a. monosaccharieds
b. polysaccharides
c. disaccharides

A

c. disaccharides

239
Q

Most common disaccharide

240
Q

What is a polysaccharide

A

a long chain of monosaccharides linked by covalent bonds

241
Q

starch, glycogen, cellulose, and chitin are

a. monosaccharieds
b. polysaccharides
c. disaccharides

A

b. polysaccharides

242
Q

What is starch

A

stored form of sugars in plants made up of amylose and amylopectin

243
Q

What is glycogen?

A

storage form of glucose in humans and other vertebrates, made up of monomers of glucose

244
Q

What is cellulose?

A

makes up cell walls of plants, abundant natural biopolymer

245
Q

define dietary fiber

A

cellulose passing through our digestive system

246
Q

What breaks down cellulose into glucose monomers

247
Q

What is chitin?

A

nitrogenous carbohydrate

248
Q

Are lipids polar or non-polar molecules?

A

non-polar molecules

249
Q

Where do cells store energy for long-term use

250
Q

What are fats, oils, waxes, phospholipids, and steroids?

251
Q

What does a fat molecule consist of?

A

two main components - glycerol and fatty acids

252
Q

What are fatty acids composed of?

A

long chain of hydrocarbons to which an acidic carboxyl group is attached

253
Q

How many fatty acids are in a triglyceride?

254
Q

What are saturated fatty acids

A

fatty acids saturated with hydrogen; hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon skeleton is maximized

255
Q

What are unsaturated fatty acids

A

fatty acids containing a double bond in the hydrocarbon chain

256
Q

What are oils

A

unsaturated fats at room temperature

257
Q

What is a monounsaturated fat

A

one double bond in the molecule

258
Q

what is a polyunsaturated fat

A

more than one double bond in the molecule

259
Q

How are saturated fats packed?

A

tightly, solid at room temperature

260
Q

Are unsaturated or saturated fats better for you?

A

unsaturated fats because the improve blood cholesterol while saturated fats contribute to plaque formation in the arteries

261
Q

What type of fats are made through artifical hydrogenation

A

trans-fats

262
Q

What are essential fatty acids?

A

fatty acids required but not synthesized by the human body such as omega-3 fatty acids

263
Q

What are omega-3 fatty acids important for in the body?

A

brain function and normal growth and development

264
Q

What are phospholipids?

A

a major constituent of the membranes of cells; composed of two fatty acids and a phosphate group attached to the glycerol backbone

265
Q

Which layer of the phospholipid faces the water?

A

phosphate group

266
Q

which layer of the phospholipid faces away from the water?

A

the fatty acid side

267
Q

What kind of structure do steroids have?

A

four, linked carbon rings - several with short tails

268
Q

Are steroids hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

hydrophobic

269
Q

Cholesterol is a

a. protein
b. steroid
c. lipid
d. carbohydrate

A

b. steroid

270
Q

What is a protein?

A

a biological macromolecule composed of one or more chains of amino acids

271
Q

How many different types of amino acids are there?

272
Q

What are enzymes?

A

catalysts in biochemical reactions, usually proteins

273
Q

Function of enzymes

A

to break molecular bonds, to rearrange bonds, or to form new bonds

274
Q

What are hormones?

A

chemical signaling molecules, usually proteins or steroids, secreted by an endocrine gland or group of endocrine cells that act to control or regulate specific physiolgical processes

275
Q

Define denaturation

A

the loss of shape in a protein as a result of changes in temperature, pH, or exposure to chemicals

276
Q

What are amino acids

A

monomers that make up proteins

277
Q

What is the composition of an amino acid

A

central carbon atom bonded to an amino group (-NH2), a carboxyl group (-COOH), and a hydrogen atom. + a variable R group

278
Q

What is the difference in structure of different amino acids?

279
Q

What determines the chemical nature of an amino acid

280
Q

What kind of bonds do amino acids use to bond to one another?

A

peptide bonds

281
Q

What is a polypeptide?

A

polymer of amino acids, long chain of amino acids linked by peptide bonds

282
Q

When polypeptide or polypeptides have combined together, have a distinct shape, and have a function we refer to them as:

283
Q

What are the 4 levels of protein structure

A

primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary

284
Q

What is the primary protein structure?

A

sequence of a chain of amino acids - determined by gene that encodes the protein

285
Q

What is the secondary protein structure?

A

hydrogen bonding of the peptide backbone causes the amino acids to fold into a repeating pattern

286
Q

Most common structures of secondary protein structures

A

alpha - helix, and beta - pleated

287
Q

describe the structure of the alpha helix

A

bonds form between every fourth amino acid and cause a twist in the amino acid chain

288
Q

describe the structure of the beta - pleated

A

pleats are formed by hydrogen bonding and align parallel to each other, and hydrogen bonds form between the same pairs of atoms on each of the aligned amino acids

289
Q

What types of proteins are alpha-helix and beta-pleated commonly found in?

A

globular and fibrous proteins

290
Q

What is the tertiary protein structure?

A

three-dimensional folding pattern of a protein due to side chain interactions

291
Q

What is the quaternary protein structure?

A

protein consisting of more than one amino acid chain

292
Q

What are the 2 main types of nucleic acids?

293
Q

What monomers make up DNA and RNA?

A

nucleotides

294
Q

What is a nucleotide composed of?

A

nitrogenous base, a pentose (five-carbon) sugar, and a phosphate group

295
Q

What is the structure of DNA

A

two strands of nucleotides in a double-helical structure

296
Q

Where are the nitrogenous bases of DNA stacked?

A

in the interior of the structure

297
Q

In DNA, what lies on the outside of each strand?

A

alternating sugar and phosphate groups

298
Q

What kind of bonds are used in DNA base pairing

A

hydrogen bonds

299
Q

The smallest unit of a living thing is a

300
Q

Bacteria and archae cells are classified as

A

prokarytic

301
Q

What cells are classified as eukaryotic

A

animal, plant, fungal, and protist

302
Q

What is a microscope?

A

instrument that magnifies an object

303
Q

Microscope part that changes the orientation of the image

Example: specimen that is right-side up and facing right on the microscope will appear upside-down and facing left

A

optics of the lenses of a light microscope

304
Q

How does a light microscope work?

A

Visible light passes through and is bent by the lens system allowing the user to see the specimen

305
Q

What is an advantage of using a light microscope?

A

advantageous for viewing living organisms, however stains must be used to distinguish cell components

306
Q

Define magnification

A

degree of enlargement of an object

307
Q

What is resolving power?

A

the ability of a microscope to allow the eye to distinguish two adjacent structures as seperate

308
Q

What microscope has a lower magnification than light microscopes and provides a three-dimensional view of a specimen?

A

Dissection microscope

309
Q

Dissecting microscopes are designed to give a

A

magnified and clear view of tissue structure as well as the anatomy of the whole organism

310
Q

Define binocular

A

two separate lens systems

311
Q

Does the orientation change the view of the specimen in a dissecting microscope?

A

No, the optics correct the image to appear as if being seen by the naked eye

312
Q

Instead of a beam light, this microscope uses a beam of electrons

A

electron microscope

313
Q

A disadvantage of an electron microscope is that

A

living cells cannot be viewed

314
Q

In the electron microscope, the electron beam moves best in a

315
Q

In a scanning electron microscope, how does the beam of electrons move?

A

back and forth across a cell’s surface, showing the details of cell surface characteristics by reflection

316
Q

What microscope provides details of a cell’s internal structures?

A

transmission electron microscope

317
Q

What are cytotechnologists?

A

professionals who study cells through microscopic examinations and other laboratory tests

318
Q

What does the unified cell theory state?

A

all living things are composed of one or more cells, that the cell is the basic unit of life, and that all new cells arise from existing cells

319
Q

Name the four components all cells share

A

plasma membrane, cytoplasm, DNA, ribosomes

320
Q

What is the plasma membrane?

A

outer covering that separates the cell’s interior from its surrounding environment

321
Q

What is the cytoplasm?

A

jelly-like region within the cell where other cellular components are found

322
Q

What is DNA?

A

genetic material of the cell

323
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

particles that synthesize proteins

324
Q

What is a prokaryotic cell?

A

unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus, or any other membrane-bound organelle

325
Q

Where is DNA found in prokaryotic cells?

A

in the central part of the cell in the nucleoid

326
Q

What is the nucleoid?

A

A darkened region in the central part of the prokaryotic cell

327
Q

What is the cell wall of bacteria composed of?

A

peptidodoglycan

328
Q

Why is bacteria different from Archae and eukaryotes?

A

cell wall made of peptidoglycan, compromised of sugars and amino acids, and many have a polysaccharide capsule

329
Q

Functions of the cell wall

A

extra layer of protection, helps the cell maintain its shape, and prevents dehydration

330
Q

Function of capsule

A

enables the cell to attach to surfaces in its environment

331
Q

What is a eukaryotic cell?

A

a cell that has membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles that have specialized functions

332
Q

What is an organelle?

A

a compartment or sac in the cell that have specialized functions

333
Q

Are prokaryotic or eukaryotic cells bigger?

A

Eukaryotic cells are significantly bigger

334
Q

As the cell becomes ________, it becomes more difficult for the cell to aquire sufficient materials to support the processes inside the cell.

335
Q

A plasma membrane is composed of

A

a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins that separate internal contents of the cell from its surrounding environment

336
Q

What are microvilli?

A

tiny hair-like folds in the plasma membrane

337
Q

What increases surface area of plasma membrane?

A

microvilli

338
Q

Where are microvilli typically found in the human body?

A

lining the small intestine

339
Q

Describe celiac disease

A

immune response to gluten that damages microvilli - afflicted individuals cannot absorb nutrients leads to malnutrition cramping diarrhea

340
Q

the consistency of cytoplasm

A

semi-solid

341
Q

What is cytosol

A

the gel-like material of the cytoplasm in which cell structures are suspended

342
Q

What is the cystoskeleton of a cell

A

the network of protein fibers

343
Q

Function of the cytoskeleton

A

maintains cell shape, secures organelles in specific positions, allows movement within the cell and enables unicellular organisms to move

344
Q

Name the 3 types of fibers within the cytoskeleton:

A

microfilaments (actin filaments), intermediate filaments, and microtubules

345
Q

Microfilaments are often found in

A

muscle cells

346
Q

Keratin is an example of a(n)

A

intermediate filament

347
Q

Are microfilaments thick or thin?

348
Q

Are microtubules thick or thin?

349
Q

Function of microtubules

A

guide organelle movement

350
Q

What do microtubules do during cell division

A

pull chromosomes to their poles

351
Q

What are the structural components of flagella and cilia?

A

microtubules

352
Q

What functions as a microtubule-organizing center?

A

the centrosome

353
Q

What role do centrioles play in cell division?

A

they pull duplicated chromosomes to opposite ends of the dividing cell

354
Q

What is the flagella?

A

long, hair-like structures that extend from the plasma membrane

355
Q

Function of flagella

A

move the entire cell

356
Q

When present where are cilia located?

A

they extend along the entire surface of the plasma membrane

357
Q

What are cilia?

A

short, hair-like structures that are used to move entire cells or move substances alon gthe outer surface of the cell

358
Q

What is the endomembrane system composed of?

A

nuclear envelope, lysosomes, and vesicles, the endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus, and the plasma membrane (although it isn’t in the cell) because it interacts with these organelles

359
Q

The nucleus houses the cell’s DNA in the form of

360
Q

What does the DNA do in the cell?

A

Directs the synthesis of ribosomes and proteins

361
Q

What is the nuclear envelope?

A

a double-membrane structure that constitutes the outermost portion of the nucleus

362
Q

What are the inner and outer membranes of the nuclear envelope composed of?

A

phospholipid bilayers

363
Q

What is the purpose of the pores punctuated in the nuclear envelope?

A

controls the passage of ions, molecules, and RNA between the nucleoplasm and the cytoplasm

364
Q

What are chromosomes composed of?

365
Q

What does DNA and proteins form

366
Q

How many chromosomes are in the human body?

367
Q

What is the nucleolus?

A

the darkly staining body within the nucleus that is responsible for assembling ribosomal subunits

368
Q

Function of the nucleolus

A

aggregates the ribosomal RNA with associated proteins in order to assemble the ribosomal subunits that are then transported through the nuclear pores into the cytoplasm

369
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)?

A

series of interconnected membranous tubules

370
Q

Function of ER

A

modifies proteins and synthesizes lipids

371
Q

What is the lumen or cisternal space?

A

the hollow portion of the ER tubules

372
Q

What is on the surface of the RER?

373
Q

What does the RER do?

A

makes phospholipids for cell membranes, modifies proteins

374
Q

RER is abundant in cells that secrete:

A

proteins, such as the liver

375
Q

Function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

synthesis of carbohydrates, lipids, and steroid hormones; detoxification of medications and poisons; alcohol metabolism; and storage of calcium ions

376
Q

Function of the golgi apparatus

A

sorts, packages, tags, and distributes lipids or proteins

377
Q

What is the golgi apparatus?

A

a series of flattened membranous sacs

378
Q

What do transport vesicles do with lipids or proteins?

A

deposit their contents into other parts of the cell where they will be used

379
Q

What do secretory vesicles do?

A

Fuse with plasma membrane and release their contents outside of the cell

380
Q

What type of cells have an abundant number of golgi?

A

cells that engage in a great deal of secretory activity

381
Q

What additional role does the golgi play in plant cells?

A

role of synthesizing polysaccharides

382
Q

What part of the cell is known as the “garbage disposal”?

383
Q

What is a lysosome?

A

an organelle in an animal cell that functions as the cell’s digestive component

384
Q

What does the lysosome break down?

A

proteins, polysaccharides, lipids, nucleic acids, and worn-out organelles

385
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

a section of the plasma membrane of the macrophage invaginates (folds in) and engulfs a pathogen

386
Q

What are vesicles and vacuoles?

A

membrane-bound sacs that function in storage and transport

387
Q

What is the difference between vesicles and vacuoles?

A

vacuoles are somewhat larger, and the membrane of a vacuole does not fuse with the membranes of other cellular components

388
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

cellular structures responsible for protein synthesis

389
Q

Where are ribosomes abundant?

A

in immature red blood cells

390
Q

What is the mitochondria?

A

an oval-shaped, double-membrane organelles that is the “powerhouses” of a cell responsible for making ATP

391
Q

What is cellular respiration?

A

the formation of ATP from the breakdown of glucose

392
Q

Why are mitchondria different from other organelles?

A

they have their own ribosomes and DNA

393
Q

What are cristae

A

inwardly projecting folds of the inner membrane of the mitochondria

394
Q

What is the mitochondrial matrix?

A

area surrounded by the cristae or inner foldings of the mitochondria

395
Q

What cells have a very high concentration of mitochondria?

A

muscle cells because they need a lot of energy to contract

396
Q

What are peroxisomes?

A

small, round organelles enclosed by single membrances

397
Q

Function of peroxisomes

A

carry out oxidation reactions to break down fatty acids and amino acids, detoxify poisons - example: alcohol

398
Q

What organelles are found in animals cells that are not seen in plants?

A

centrioles, centrosomes, and lysosomes

399
Q

What are some structure that plant cells have that animal cells do not?

A

cell wall, chloroplasts, plasmodesmata, and plastids used for storage, and a large central vacuole

400
Q

What is a cell wall?

A

rigid covering external to the plasma membrane

401
Q

Function of the cell wall

A

protects the cell, provides structural support, gives shape to cell

402
Q

What cells have cell walls?

A

plants, fungal, protists

403
Q

What is a plant’s cell wall composed of?

404
Q

What is cellulose?

A

a polysaccharide made up of long, straight chains of glucose units

405
Q

Why are chloroplasts different from other organelles?

A

they have their own DNA and ribosomes

406
Q

define autotrophs

A

organism able to make their own food

407
Q

define heterotrophs

A

rely on other organisms for food

408
Q

What are thylakoids?

A

interconnected, stacked fluid-filled membrane sacs

409
Q

What is a granum (grana - plural) ?

A

a stack of thylakoids

410
Q

What is the stroma?

A

fluid enclosed by the inner membrane and surrounding the grana

411
Q

What is chlorophyll?

A

green pigment found in chloroplasts

412
Q

What is the function of chlorophyll?

A

captures the energy of sunlight for photosynthesis

413
Q

What is the role of the central vacuole?

A

regulates the cell’s concentration of water in changing environmental conditions, stores proteins in developing seed cells

414
Q

Define turgor pressure

A

outward pressure caused by the fluid inside the cell

415
Q

What is the extracellular matrix?

A

glycoproteins and protein collagen

416
Q

Function of the extracellular matrix

A

holds the cells together to form a tissue, allows the cells within the tissue to communicate with each other

example: blood clotting

417
Q

What are intercellular junctions?

A

direct contact made by cells to communicate

418
Q

What are junctions between plant cells?

A

plasmodesmata

419
Q

What are junctions between animal cells

A

tight and gap junctions, and desmosomes

420
Q

What are plasmodesmata?

A

numerous channels that pass between the cell walls of adjacent plant cells, connecting their cytoplasm and enabling signal molecules and nutrients to be transported from cell to cell

421
Q

What is a tight junction?

A

a watertight seal between two adjacent animal cells

422
Q

What holds the cells tightly against each other in a tight junction

423
Q

What does a tight junction prevent?

A

leaking of materials between cells

424
Q

What do desmosomes do?

A

join two animal cells together by acting like spot welds between adjacent epithelial cells; sheet-like formation in organs and tissues such as the skin, heart, and muscles

425
Q

What are gap junctions?

A

in animal cells, they are channels between adjacent cells that allow for the transport of ions, nutrients, and other substances that enable cells to communicate

426
Q

Are plasma membranes dynamic?

A

No they are dynamic and constantly in flux

427
Q

The plasma membrane carriers markers that:

A

allow cells to recognize one another

428
Q

The plasma membrane carriers receptors that:

A

are attachment sites for specific substances that interact with the cell

429
Q

What does the fluid mosaic model describe?

A

the structure of the plasma membrane in which components (phospholipids, cholesterol, proteins and carbohydrates) are able to flow and change position, while maintaining the basic integrity of the membrane

430
Q

The interior of the plasma membrane is _______, while the outside surfaces are _______.

A

hydrophobic, hydrophilic

431
Q

What are integral proteins?

A

proteins of the plasma membrane serving as channels or pumps to move materials into or out of the cell

432
Q

What is a glycoprotein?

A

protein with carbohydrate attached

433
Q

What is a glycolipid?

A

lipid with carbohydrate attached

434
Q

define selectively permeable

A

characteristic of a membrane that allowing some substances through but not others

435
Q

what is passive transport

A

method of transporting material that does not require cell energy

436
Q

what is a concentration gradient

A

an area of high concentration across from an area of low concentration

437
Q

What is diffusion?

A

passive process of transport of low-molecular weight material down its concentration gradient

438
Q

What factors affect diffusion?

A

concentration of gradient, mass of the molecules diffusing, temperature, and solvent density

439
Q

What is facilitated transport?

A

a process by which material moves down a concentration gradient (from high to low concentration) using integral membrane proteins

440
Q

What is osmosis?

A

the transport of water through a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water concentration across a membrane

441
Q

Why is osmosis different from other passive transports?

A

it only transports water

442
Q

What does tonicity describe?

A

the amount of solute in a solution

443
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

the measure of the tonicity of a solution

444
Q

terms used to relate the osmolarity of a cell to the osmolarity of the extracellular fluid that contains the cells

A

hypertonic, hypotonic, and isotonic

445
Q

What does hypertonic describe?

A

describes a solution in which exracellular fluid has higher osmolarity than the fluid inside the cell

446
Q

What does hypotonic describe?

A

describes a solution in which extracellular fluid has lower osmolarity than the fluid inside the cell

447
Q

What does isotonic describe?

A

describes a solution in which the extracellular fluid has the same osmolarity as the fluid inside the cell

448
Q

What does a cell do in hypertonic solution?

A

the cell will shrink

449
Q

What does a cell do in a hypotonic solution?

A

the cell will burst

450
Q

What does a cell do in an isotonic solution?

A

stays the same because solution comes in and out of the cell at the same rate

451
Q

What is active transport?

A

the method of transporting that requires energy

452
Q

What is an electrochemical gradient?

A

a gradient produced by the combined forces of the electrical gradient and the chemical gradient

453
Q

Describe primary active transport

A

uses ATP to move a substance into the cell and a second substance is moved out of the cell

454
Q

Describe secondary active transport

A

movement of material using the energy of the electrochemical gradient established by primary active transport

455
Q

What is endocytosis?

A

a type of active transport that moves substances, including fluids and particles, into a cell

456
Q

Common characteristic of endocystosis variations

A

The plasma membrane of the cell invaginates, forming a pocket around the target particle. The pocket pinches off, resulting in the particle being contained in a newly created vacuole that is formed from the plasma membrane

457
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

a process that take macromolecules that the cell needs from the extracellular fluid; a variation of endocytosis

458
Q

What is pinocytosis?

A

a process that takes solutes that the cell needs from the extracellular fluid: a variation of endocytosis

459
Q

What is receptor-mediated endocytosis?

A

a varient of endocytosis that involves the use of specific binding proteins in the plasma membrane for specific molecules or particles

460
Q

What is exocytosis?

A

a process of passing material out of a cell

461
Q

What are bioenergetics?

A

the concept of energy flow through living systems

462
Q

What is metabolism?

A

all the chemical reactions that take place inside cells, including those that use energy and those that release energy

463
Q

Define anabolic

A

describes the pathway that requires a net energy input to synthesize complex molecules from simpler ones

464
Q

Define catabolic

A

describes the pathway in which complex molecules are broken down into simpler ones, yielding energy as an additional product of the reaction

465
Q

What is thermodynamics

A

the study of energy and energy transfer involving physical matter

466
Q

In an open system,

A

energy can be exhanged with its surroundings

467
Q

In a closed system,

A

energy cannot be exchanged with its surroundings

468
Q

The laws of thermodynamics describe

A

the transfer of energy in and among all systems in the universe

469
Q

What does the second law of thermodynamics state?

A

energy will always be lost as heat in energy transfers or transformations

470
Q

What is heat energy?

A

the energy transferred from one system to another that is not work

471
Q

What is entropy?

A

the measure of randomness or disorder within a system

472
Q

What does high entropy mean?

A

high disorder, low energy

473
Q

What is kinetic energy?

A

energy associated with objects in motion

474
Q

What is potential energy?

A

energy with potential to do work

475
Q

What is chemical energy?

A

potential energy that was in chemical bonds that were broken and released chemical energy

476
Q

What is exergonic reactions?

A

describes a chemical reaction that results in products with less chemical potential energy than the reactants, plus the release of free energy

477
Q

What is an endergonic reactions?

A

describes a chemical reaction that results in products that store more chemical potential energy than the reactants

478
Q

What is activation energy?

A

amount of initial energy necessary for reactions to occur

479
Q

What is an enzyme?

A

a molecule that catalyzes a biochemical reaction

480
Q

What is a substrate?

A

a molecule on which the enzyme acts

481
Q

What is the active site?

A

a specific region on the enzyme where the substrate binds

482
Q

What is competitive inhibition?

A

general mechanism of enzyme activity regulation in which a molecule other than the enzyme’s substrate is able to bind the active site and prevent the substrate itself from binding, thus inhibiting the overall rate of reaction for the enzyme (inhibitor competes with substrate for binding to active site)

483
Q

What is non-competitive inhibition?

A

an inhibitor molecule binds to the enzyme in a location other than the allosteric site but still blocks substrate binding to the active site

484
Q

What is allosteric inhibition?

A

mechanism of inhibiting enzyme action where regulatory molecule binds to a second site and initiates a conformation change in the aactive site, preventing binding with the substrate

485
Q

What is feedback inhibition?

A

use of a reaction product to regulate its own further production, product inhibits an enzyme for an earlier step in the reaction series

486
Q

What does feedback inhibition control?

A

production of both amino acids and nucleotides

487
Q

What is glycolysis?

A

the process of breaking glucose into two three-carbon molecules with the production of ATP and NADH

488
Q

Where does glycolysis take place in the cell?

489
Q

Describe the process of glycolysis

A

starts with a six-carbon, ring-shaped structure of a glucose molecule

energy is used to evenly split the six-carbon sugar into two three-carbon pyruvate molecules

ATP and NADH are produces

490
Q

What is acetyl CoA

A

combination of an acetyl group derived from pyruvic acid and coenzyme A which is made from pantothenic acid (a B-group vitamin)

491
Q

Where does the citric acid cycle take place?

A

in the mitochondria

492
Q

What is the citric acid cycle?

A

a series of enzyme-catalyzed chemical reactions of central importance in all living cells that harvests the energy in carbon-carbon bonds of sugar molecules to generate ATP; the citric acid cycle is an aerobic metabolic pathways because it requires oxygen in later reactions to process

Biology 101 (2 decks)

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