Midterm Studying Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the cause of the Earth’s geomagnetic field?
    a.Convection of the mantle
    b.Flow of the outer core
    c.Solar storms
    d.Radioactivity within the Earth
A

B. Flow of the outercore

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2
Q

Describe the bulk rheology and composition of the mantle asthenosphere?
a.Solid, ductile, plastic silicate rock
b.Solid, brittle, elastic silicate rock
c.Liquid silicate rock
d.Liquid iron/nickel allo

A

a. Solid, ductile, plastic silicate rock

The mantle asthenosphere is composed of silicate rocks that are solid but behave in a ductile, plastic manner due to high temperatures and pressures. This allows for slow, convective flow, which plays a critical role in plate tectonics and the movement of Earth’s lithospheric plates.

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3
Q

If current plate tectonic motions continue millions of years into the future, what is likely to happen to the continent of Africa?
a.South Africa will collide with Antarctica, forming a new continental collision zone.

b.The Indian Ocean will subduct beneath East Africa, forming a new volcanic arc.

c.East Africa will split from the main part of Africa, forming a new ocean in between.

d.North Africa will separate from Europe (Eurasia), and the Mediterranean Sea will grow into an ocea

A

c. East Africa will split from the main part of Africa, forming a new ocean in between.

The East African Rift is an active continental rift zone where the African Plate is slowly splitting into two parts: the Somali Plate and the Nubian Plate. If this tectonic activity continues over millions of years, East Africa will eventually break away from the rest of the continent, and a new ocean basin will form between them.

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4
Q

Why might Vancouver experience larger shaking intensity during a Cascadia megathrust earth-quake than Victoria, even though Vancouver is situated further from the plate boundary?

a.Because more people live in Vancouver than Victoria, so theriskis higher in Vancouver.

b.Because the earthquake hypocenter (the point on the fault where the rupture starts) is likely to lie directlybeneath Vancouver.

c.Because Vancouver lies closer to the Cascade arc volcanoes (e.g. Mt Baker) than Victoria, and the earth-quake will likely trigger volcanic activity.

d.Because much of Vancouver is built on soft sedimentary rocks which amplify ground shaking (site effects),whereas most of Victoria is built on harder bedroc

A

d. Because much of Vancouver is built on soft sedimentary rocks which amplify ground shaking (site effects), whereas most of Victoria is built on harder bedrock.

Vancouver is built on softer sedimentary soils, which can amplify seismic waves, increasing the shaking intensity during an earthquake. In contrast, Victoria, which is built more on hard bedrock, would experience less amplification of shaking. This difference in ground materials is a key factor in why Vancouver might experience stronger shaking than Victoria despite being farther from the plate boundary.

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5
Q
  1. When were the theories of Continental drift and Plate tectonics developed?
    a.They were both developed in the 1910s.

b.Continental drift was developed in the 1910s, and Plate tectonics in the 1960s.

c.Plate tectonics was developed in the 1910s, and Continental drift in the 1960s.

d.Continental drift was developed during the Second World War, and Plate tectonics in the 1960s.e.Plate tectonics was developed during the Second World War, and Continental drift in the 1960

A

b. Continental drift was developed in the 1910s, and Plate tectonics in the 1960s.

The theory of Continental Drift was proposed by Alfred Wegener in the 1910s, suggesting that continents were once joined together in a supercontinent called Pangaea and have since drifted apart. The theory of Plate Tectonics emerged in the 1960s after further research, such as seafloor spreading and the mapping of global earthquake zones, provided the mechanism for how continents move.

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6
Q

Approximately how much more seismic moment (“energy”) is released in aMw6.0 earthquakethan aMw5.0 earthquake?
a.6/5 = 1.2 times as much
b.106/105= 10 times as much
c.(106/105)1.5 =∼32 times as much
d.(106/105)10 = 100 times as much2

A

The correct answer is:

c.(106/105)1.5 =∼32 times as much

The moment magnitude scale (Mw) is logarithmic, meaning that each whole number increase on the scale corresponds to a release of about 31.6 times more energy (or approximately 32 times). Therefore, a Mw 6.0 earthquake releases significantly more energy than a Mw 5.0 earthquake.

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7
Q
  1. What occurs during planetary differentiation?

a.Smaller planetesimals collide to form a larger planetary bodies.

b.A meteorite bombardment adds new material to the planet.

c.The planet melts and separates into an iron-rich core and silica-rich mantle.

d.Gas condenses to dust particles, which in turn aggregate to larger grains and roc

A

The correct answer is:

c. The planet melts and separates into an iron-rich core and silica-rich mantle.

During planetary differentiation, a planet or planetary body undergoes melting due to heat generated from various sources (such as radioactive decay and impacts). As it melts, denser materials, like iron, sink to form a core, while lighter materials, like silicates, rise to form the mantle and crust. This process leads to the formation of distinct layers within the planet.

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8
Q
  1. Which best describes the relationship betweenstressandstrain?
    a.Strain causes stress.
    b.Stress causes strain.
    c.Stress and strain describe the same thing.
    d.Stress and strain are mutually exclusive
A

The correct answer is:

b. Stress causes strain.

In the context of geology and materials science, stress refers to the force applied to a material, while strain is the deformation that results from that stress. When stress is applied to a material, it deforms, which is the strain. Thus, stress leads to strain, not the other way around.

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9
Q
  1. The main mechanism for heat transfer through the mantle mesosphere and asthenosphere is:
    a.convection.
    b.conduction.
    c.radiation.
    d.all of the above contribute to heat transfer, in roughly equal proportion
A

The correct answer is:

a. convection.

The main mechanism for heat transfer through the mantle mesosphere and asthenosphere is convection. In these regions, the material is solid but can flow slowly, allowing heat to be transferred through the movement of the mantle material. While conduction does occur, convection is the dominant process due to the high temperatures and pressures involved. Radiation is negligible in these contexts.

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10
Q
  1. If the BC government built an earthquake early warning system on Vancouver Island, what would happen to the seismichazard and seismicriskin Victoria?

a.The hazard would decrease, but the risk would stay the same.
b.The hazard would stay the same, but the risk would decrease.
c.Both the hazard and the risk would decrease.
d.Both the hazard and the risk would stay the same

A

The correct answer is:

b. The hazard would stay the same, but the risk would decrease.

The seismic hazard refers to the likelihood of an earthquake occurring in a given area, which would remain unchanged regardless of an early warning system. However, an earthquake early warning system would provide advance notice of seismic activity, allowing people to take protective actions, thus reducing the potential for injury, damage, and loss—thereby decreasing the overall seismic risk.

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11
Q

What is liquefaction?

a.When water is released into the mantle at subduction zones, leading to arc volcanism.

b.When mantle rocks undergo decompression melting at mid-ocean ridges, forming liquid magma.

c.When saturated sedimentary rocks liquefy during earthquake shaking.

d.When waste-water from fracking is buried at depth, increasing pore pressures and triggering induced earth-quakes.

A

The correct answer is:

c. When saturated sedimentary rocks liquefy during earthquake shaking.

Liquefaction occurs when saturated sediments lose their strength and behave like a liquid due to the shaking from an earthquake. This process can lead to significant ground deformation and damage to structures, as the solid ground can momentarily act like a liquid, causing buildings and other infrastructure to sink or tilt.

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12
Q

What is a postglacial earthquake?
a.Any earthquake that occurred during the Holocene (i.e., since the end of the last Ice Age)
b.An earthquake caused thawing of the ground surface following the melting of ice sheets and glaciers
c.An earthquake caused by shearing stresses from the flow of glaciers over the Earth surface
d.An earthquake caused by bending stresses following the melting of ice sheets and glacie

A

d. An earthquake caused by bending stresses following the melting of ice sheets and glaciers.

Postglacial earthquakes are typically associated with the rebound of the Earth’s crust after the weight of ice sheets and glaciers is removed due to melting. As the crust adjusts and rebounds, it can generate earthquakes due to the release of built-up stresses.

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13
Q

What is the earthquake epicenter?
a.The point on the fault plane where the earthquake rupture starts.
b.The point on the fault plane where the earthquake rupture stops.
c.The point on Earth’s surface immediately above where the earthquake rupture starts.
d.The center point of the ruptured fault plane.e.The point on Earth’s surface where the largest intensity was felt.3

A

c. The point on Earth’s surface immediately above where the earthquake rupture starts.

The epicenter is the location on the Earth’s surface that is directly above the focus (or hypocenter), where the earthquake rupture initiates. It is often used to describe the location of an earthquake in reports and maps.

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14
Q

What class of earthquake was the 2011Mw9.0 Tohoku (Japan) earthquake?
a.A shallow crustal earthquake
b.A subduction megathrust earthquake
c.An intermediate depth, intraslab earthquake
d.A deep earthquake

A

b. A subduction megathrust earthquake.

The 2011 Mw 9.0 Tohoku earthquake occurred at the boundary between the Pacific Plate and the North American Plate, where the Pacific Plate is being subducted beneath the North American Plate. This type of earthquake is characterized by a large magnitude and significant energy release, typical of megathrust earthquakes associated with subduction zones.

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15
Q

Why, in some arid countries, are human settlements often located along active faults?a.The water table can pond against a fault, forming springs and providing a source of water.
b.Faults form valleys, along which rivers flow, providing a source of water.
c.Earthquake shaking produces sedimentary rocks, providing better conditions for farming.
d.Faulting parallels coastlines, where people live in order to trade and fis

A

a. The water table can pond against a fault, forming springs and providing a source of water.

In arid regions, faults can create fractures that allow groundwater to rise to the surface, forming springs. This provides a crucial water source for human settlements, making these locations desirable even though they are situated along active faults.

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16
Q

What is a natural hazard?
a) A hazardous event that causes economic loss
b) A natural event that is potentially dangerous
c) A human-induced disaster
d) A method of disaster response

A

b) A natural event that is potentially dangerous

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17
Q

What distinguishes geological hazards from weather or climate hazards?
a) Geological hazards are always more deadly
b) Geological hazards are caused by processes occurring in the solid Earth
c) Weather hazards are more common than geological hazards

A

b) Geological hazards are caused by processes occurring in the solid Earth

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18
Q

Which of the following best describes a natural disaster?
a) A natural event that occurs randomly
b) A hazardous event that causes loss of life, damage, or economic losses
c) Any weather-related phenomenon
d) A geological event without any impact on humans

A

b) A hazardous event that causes loss of life, damage, or economic losses

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19
Q

What is the relationship between magnitude and frequency of hazardous events?
a) They are directly proportional
b) They are inversely proportional
c) There is no relationship
d) Frequency always increases with magnitude

A

b) They are inversely proportional

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20
Q

What does risk describe in the context of natural hazards?
a) The likelihood of a hazardous event occurring
b) The number of people affected by a disaster
c) The economic costs of disaster recovery
d) The total number of disasters in a year

A

a) The likelihood of a hazardous event occurring

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21
Q

Which of the following activities is part of emergency management?
a) Risk assessment
b) Disaster recovery
c) Preparedness
d) All of the above

A

d) All of the above

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22
Q

What global trend is affecting weather and climate hazards?
a) Decrease in population
b) Increased urbanization and global warming
c) Reduction in economic costs
d) Stabilization of geological hazards

A

b) Increased urbanization and global warming

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23
Q

What is the process by which planets, including Earth, formed from a spinning cloud of gas and dust?
a) Differentiation
b) Accretion
c) Erosion
d) Subduction

A

b) Accretion
Explanation: Accretion is the process where particles of gas, dust, and rock collide and combine to form larger bodies, eventually leading to planet formation.

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24
Q

What are the two main layers that Earth differentiates into after accretion?
a) Oceanic crust and continental crust
b) Core and mantle
c) Atmosphere and hydrosphere
d) Lithosphere and asthenosphere

A

b) Core and mantle
Explanation: After accretion, Earth undergoes differentiation, resulting in the formation of a dense metallic core and a lighter silicate-rich mantle.

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25
Q

How old is Earth, based on radiometric dating of meteorites?
a) 4.0 billion years
b) 4.5 billion years
c) 5.0 billion years
d) 3.5 billion years

A

b) 4.5 billion years
Explanation: Radiometric dating of meteorites shows that Earth formed approximately 4.55 billion years ago, a figure that has remained consistent with scientific findings.

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26
Q

What type of extraterrestrial bodies commonly cause impact events on Earth?
a) Moons
b) Stars
c) Asteroids and comets
d) Planets

A

c) Asteroids and comets
Explanation: Impact events on Earth primarily involve asteroids and comets, which can collide with Earth and cause significant damage depending on their size and speed.

27
Q

What is a significant hazard that can result from a coronal mass ejection?
a) Increased volcanic activity
b) Earthquakes
c) Damage to spacecraft electronics
d) Flooding

A

c) Damage to spacecraft electronics
Explanation: Coronal mass ejections can release large amounts of charged particles that, when directed at Earth, can disrupt electronics in spacecraft and affect communication systems.

28
Q

What is the lithosphere?
a) The rigid outer layer of Earth, including the crust and upper mantle
b) The inner core of the Earth
c) The fluid outer core
d) The entire mantle

A

a) The rigid outer layer of Earth, including the crust and upper mantle
Explanation: The lithosphere is the rigid layer composed of the crust and the uppermost part of the mantle, which behaves as a solid and is involved in tectonic processes.

29
Q

What is the primary mechanism that explains how Earth’s lithosphere is divided into plates?
a) Seafloor spreading
b) Mantle convection
c) Subduction
d) Continental drift

A

b) Mantle convection
Explanation: Mantle convection is the primary mechanism driving the movement of the lithospheric plates, which are rigid and move relative to each other.

30
Q

What type of plate boundary is characterized by two plates moving apart?
a) Convergent boundary
b) Divergent boundary
c) Transform boundary
d) Triple junction

A

b) Divergent boundary
Explanation: Divergent plate boundaries are where two tectonic plates move apart, leading to the formation of new lithosphere as mantle material rises.

31
Q

What occurs at subduction zones?
a) New lithosphere is created
b) Lithosphere is consumed
c) Plates slide past each other
d) Continental plates collide

A

b) Lithosphere is consumed
Explanation: In subduction zones, one plate, typically the denser oceanic plate, plunges back into the mantle beneath a lighter plate, consuming lithosphere.

32
Q

What geological feature is often associated with convergent boundaries where oceanic plates are involved?
a) Mid-ocean ridges
b) Mountain ranges
c) Deep ocean trenches
d) Hot spots

A

c) Deep ocean trenches
Explanation: Subduction zones are commonly associated with deep ocean trenches, which form where one tectonic plate is being forced under another.

33
Q

Which of the following describes a strike-slip boundary?
a) Plates move toward each other
b) Plates move apart
c) Plates slide past one another
d) Plates sink beneath one another

A

c) Plates slide past one another
Explanation: Strike-slip boundaries involve two plates that move laterally past each other, with no creation or destruction of lithosphere.

34
Q

What is a hot spot in geological terms?
a) A type of plate boundary
b) An area of seismic activity along a fault line
c) A location above an upwelling mantle plume
d) A region where tectonic plates collide

A

c) A location above an upwelling mantle plume
Explanation: Hot spots are volcanic regions formed by upwelling mantle plumes, resulting in volcanism that is not necessarily associated with plate boundaries.

35
Q

What does isostasy refer to?
a) The process of mountain formation
b) The balance of buoyancy between Earth’s crust and mantle
c) The sinking of tectonic plates
d) The creation of oceanic crust

A

b) The balance of buoyancy between Earth’s crust and mantle
Explanation: Isostasy refers to the gravitational equilibrium where different segments of Earth’s crust float at levels determined by their densities.

36
Q

What is the point on a fault plane where slip begins during an earthquake called?
a) Epicenter
b) Hypocenter
c) Focal point
d) Origin time

A

b) Hypocenter
Explanation: The hypocenter is the point on the fault plane where the slip initiates during an earthquake, while the epicenter is directly above it on the Earth’s surface.

37
Q

Which type of fault accommodates horizontal extension?
a) Thrust fault
b) Normal fault
c) Strike-slip fault
d) Reverse fault

A

b) Normal fault
Explanation: Normal faults accommodate horizontal extension, with one side of the fault sliding down relative to the other.

38
Q

What type of motion occurs in a thrust fault?
a) Lateral motion
b) Vertical extension
c) Horizontal compression
d) Vertical compression

A

c) Horizontal compression
Explanation: Thrust faults are characterized by horizontal compression, where one block is thrust over another.

39
Q

What are the two main categories of seismic waves?
a) Surface and body waves
b) Longitudinal and transverse waves
c) Primary and secondary waves
d) P-waves and S-waves

A

a) Surface and body waves
Explanation: Seismic waves are classified into two main categories: body waves, which travel through the Earth’s interior, and surface waves, which travel along the surface.

40
Q

What is the primary difference between P-waves and S-waves?
a) P-waves travel faster than S-waves
b) S-waves can pass through liquids, while P-waves cannot
c) P-waves cause more damage than S-waves
d) S-waves arrive first at seismometers

A

a) P-waves travel faster than S-waves
Explanation: P-waves (primary waves) are the fastest seismic waves and always arrive first at seismometers. S-waves (secondary waves) are slower and arrive after P-waves.

41
Q

What does the earthquake cycle describe?
a) The movement of tectonic plates
b) The process of rock formation
c) How stress on a fault builds up and is released
d) The types of seismic waves produced

A

c) How stress on a fault builds up and is released
Explanation: The earthquake cycle describes the gradual buildup of stress on a fault due to tectonic forces, followed by a sudden release of that stress during an earthquake.

42
Q

What do focal mechanisms represent?
a) The depth of an earthquake
b) The location of a fault
c) The type of faulting involved in earthquakes
d) The amount of damage caused by an earthquake

A

c) The type of faulting involved in earthquakes
Explanation: Focal mechanisms graphically represent the type of faulting associated with an earthquake, showing the movement of the fault during seismic events.

43
Q

What does the magnitude of an earthquake describe?
a) The depth of the earthquake
b) The energy released during the earthquake
c) The duration of shaking
d) The intensity of shaking experienced

A

b) The energy released during the earthquake
Explanation: The magnitude of an earthquake describes how energetic it is, quantifying the energy released during the event.

44
Q

Which scale was originally developed by Charles Richter to measure earthquake magnitude?
a) Moment magnitude scale
b) Modified Mercalli Intensity scale
c) Richter scale
d) Seismic moment scale

A

c) Richter scale
Explanation: The Richter scale was the original scale developed by Charles Richter to measure earthquake magnitudes based on seismic wave amplitudes.

45
Q

How is the moment magnitude (Mw) related to the seismic moment (M₀)?
a) Mw = (M₀ + 9)/1.5
b) Mw = (logM₀ − 9)/1.5
c) Mw = (M₀ × 10)/1.5
d) Mw = logM₀ + 1.5

A

b) Mw = (logM₀ − 9)/1.5
Explanation: The moment magnitude (Mw) is related to the seismic moment (M₀) using the equation Mw = (logM₀ − 9)/1.5.

46
Q

What are earthquakes with a moment magnitude (Mw) greater than 8 referred to as?
a) Major earthquakes
b) Great earthquakes
c) Subduction earthquakes
d) Intense earthquakes

A

b) Great earthquakes
Explanation: Earthquakes with a moment magnitude greater than 8 are referred to as “great earthquakes,” typically occurring in subduction zones.

47
Q

What is the main distinction between earthquake magnitude and intensity?
a) Magnitude measures ground shaking; intensity measures energy release
b) Magnitude is a measurement of shaking effects; intensity measures energy release
c) Magnitude measures energy released; intensity measures effects on people and structures
d) Magnitude is measured using seismometers; intensity is measured using accelerometers

A

c) Magnitude measures energy released; intensity measures effects on people and structures
Explanation: Magnitude quantifies the energy released by the earthquake, while intensity describes the effects and shaking experienced by individuals and structures.

48
Q

What is the Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale used to assess?
a) The energy released by an earthquake
b) The ground shaking effects as perceived by humans
c) The location of earthquake epicenters
d) The depth of earthquakes

A

b) The ground shaking effects as perceived by humans
Explanation: The Modified Mercalli Intensity (MMI) scale assesses the effects of an earthquake based on human perception and observed damage.

49
Q

Which factor does NOT affect the level of ground shaking experienced during an earthquake?
a) Distance from the epicenter
b) Earthquake depth
c) Time of day
d) Regional geology

A

c) Time of day
Explanation: The time of day does not influence the level of ground shaking experienced during an earthquake. Factors such as distance from the epicenter, depth, and regional geology are more significant.

50
Q

What type of earthquake ruptures the shallow plate interface at subduction zones?
a) Intermediate depth earthquakes
b) Forearc earthquakes
c) Megathrust earthquakes
d) Outer rise normal faulting earthquakes

A

c) Megathrust earthquakes
Explanation: Megathrust earthquakes occur at the shallow plate interface in subduction zones, where one plate is thrust over another.

51
Q

What unusual characteristic did the 2011 Mw 9.0 Tohoku earthquake have?
a) It was the first megathrust earthquake recorded.
b) The seismic rupture extended to the sea floor.
c) It occurred at a depth of 300 km.
d) It was a volcanic earthquake.

A

b) The seismic rupture extended to the sea floor.
Explanation: The Tohoku earthquake was notable for its seismic rupture extending all the way to the sea floor, generating a significant tsunami.

52
Q

Which type of earthquake occurs within the downgoing oceanic lithosphere at depths of 50–300 km?
a) Megathrust earthquakes
b) Intraplate earthquakes
c) Intermediate depth earthquakes
d) Forearc earthquakes

A

c) Intermediate depth earthquakes
Explanation: Intermediate depth earthquakes occur within the downgoing oceanic lithosphere at depths of approximately 50–300 km.

53
Q

What is a significant characteristic of deep earthquakes?
a) They always cause widespread damage.
b) They occur in warm and ductile material.
c) They can reach depths of up to 700 km.
d) They are typically associated with volcanic activity.

A

c) They can reach depths of up to 700 km.
Explanation: Deep earthquakes can occur at depths of up to 700 km, but they typically do not cause significant damage due to their depth.

54
Q

In continental plate boundary zones, what is the maximum magnitude that earthquakes generally reach?
a) Mw 8
b) Mw 7
c) Mw 6
d) Mw 9

A

a) Mw 8
Explanation: In continental plate boundary zones, earthquakes are usually limited to magnitudes of Mw < 8, with most being lower.

55
Q

What is a common cause of intraplate earthquakes?
a) High latitude postglacial rebound
b) Subduction zone dynamics
c) Seismic waves traveling through the crust
d) Oceanic lithosphere flexing

A

a) High latitude postglacial rebound
Explanation: One common cause of intraplate earthquakes is the lithosphere’s flexing due to high latitude postglacial rebound.

56
Q

What mechanism explains the recent increase in earthquake rates in regions such as northeastern BC and Oklahoma?
a) Natural tectonic stresses
b) Postglacial rebound
c) Induced earthquakes from fracking
d) Megathrust faulting

A

c) Induced earthquakes from fracking
Explanation: The increase in earthquake rates in certain regions can be attributed to induced earthquakes caused by the injection of fracking wastewater.

57
Q

What is considered the best way to reduce deaths during an earthquake?
a) Improving earthquake prediction methods
b) Preventing buildings from collapsing
c) Increasing emergency response teams
d) Enhancing public awareness campaigns

A

b) Preventing buildings from collapsing
Explanation: The statement “Earthquakes don’t kill people, buildings do” emphasizes that preventing building collapses is the most effective way to reduce casualties.

58
Q

Which type of building material is especially susceptible to collapse during an earthquake?
a) Wood
b) Steel
c) Masonry
d) Reinforced concrete

A

c) Masonry
Explanation: Masonry buildings, made of bricks and mortar, are particularly vulnerable to collapse during earthquakes compared to wood and steel-framed buildings, which offer more flexibility.

59
Q

What does base isolation do?
a) Reinforces building foundations
b) Decouples larger buildings from horizontal ground motions
c) Adds additional weight to structures
d) Prevents vertical movement of buildings

A

b) Decouples larger buildings from horizontal ground motions
Explanation: Base isolation is a method that allows buildings to move independently from ground movements, reducing the resonance effects of earthquakes.

60
Q

Which of the following is true about earthquake prediction?
a) It can accurately determine the exact time and magnitude of an earthquake.
b) Predictions rely on precursory events that can be detected in advance.
c) Most proposed methods pass scientific tests consistently.
d) Only a small percentage of large earthquakes have detectable foreshocks.

A

d) Only a small percentage of large earthquakes have detectable foreshocks.
Explanation: Most proposed prediction methods rely on foreshocks, but only a few large earthquakes show detectable foreshocks prior to the main event.

61
Q

What is the primary focus of earthquake forecasting?
a) To provide immediate warning of an impending earthquake
b) To assess the likelihood of an earthquake occurring over a longer timescale
c) To predict the exact time and location of an earthquake
d) To prevent earthquakes from occurring

A

b) To assess the likelihood of an earthquake occurring over a longer timescale
Explanation: Earthquake forecasting aims to determine the probability of future earthquakes based on geological data rather than providing immediate warnings.

62
Q

What technology allows for rapid assessment of an earthquake’s location and magnitude?
a) Earthquake mitigation
b) Earthquake early warning systems
c) Building retrofitting
d) Seismic forecasting

A

b) Earthquake early warning systems
Explanation: Earthquake early warning systems assess earthquake characteristics using dense seismometer networks to inform communities before damaging waves arrive.

63
Q

What role does the USGS’ PAGER algorithm serve in the aftermath of an earthquake?
a) It provides public awareness of earthquake preparedness.
b) It estimates the number of fatalities based on various factors.
c) It predicts the next likely earthquake.

A

d) It reinforces building codes.b) It estimates the number of fatalities based on various factors.
Explanation: The PAGER algorithm provides rapid estimates of fatalities and impacts based on recorded intensities and population density.

64
Q

Why is it important to reach earthquake victims quickly?
a) Most victims can survive for up to a week without help.
b) It is rare for victims to survive more than three days buried in rubble.
c) It helps reduce the overall cost of disaster response.
d) Authorities need to control the narrative about the earthquake.

A

b) It is rare for victims to survive more than three days buried in rubble.
Explanation: Quick rescue is crucial because the likelihood of survival decreases significantly after three days for those trapped in collapsed structures.