Midterm Study Flashcards

1
Q

What is preconception health?

A
  • Health of all individuals during their reproductive years, regardless of gender or orientation
  • Starting at age of first menarche until menopause (1 year of no periods)
  • Promotes healthy fertility and focuses on actions that individuals can take, regardless of plans to have children, to reduce risks, promote healthy lifestyles, increase readiness for pregnancy
  • Comprehensive approach includes actions on an individual, community, and population level
  • Health of parents, their lifestyle choices, and the environment in which they live before and during pregnancy have lifelong implications for their children’s health, learning, and behaviours
  • Achieving a healthy pregnancy outcome is influenced by a woman’s health status, lifestyle, and history prior to conception
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2
Q

What are some of the benefits to preconception health care?

A

o Prevents pre-term births
o Improves birth weight
o Prevents congenital anomalies including neural tube defects
o Reduces infant mortality
o Reduces maternal mortality
o Lessens healthcare system burdens

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3
Q

What can preconception health include?

A

o Interventions that identify and modify risks to men and women’s reproductive health and future pregnancies
o Promotes health and prevents disease in women of reproductive age
o Improves pregnancy and birth outcomes
o Based on family-centered care principles
o Provides health promotion, screening, and interventions for women of reproductive age to reduce the risk factors that might affect future pregnancies

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4
Q

What is the purpose of preconception health?

A

o Identify health problems, lifestyle habits, or social concerns that might unfavorably affect pregnancy
o Promote health of the woman, baby, and family and to identify and modify risk factors that are known to influence pregnancy outcomes

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4
Q

What is included in a preconception health assessment?

A
  • Reproductive history
  • Environmental hazards and toxins
  • Medications – teratogens
  • Nutrition, folic acid intake, and weight management
  • Genetic conditions and family history
  • Substance use (i.e. alcohol and tobacco)
  • Chronic diseases, communicable diseases, vaccinations
  • Family planning
  • Social support, domestic violence, and housing
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5
Q

What types of things would a nurse expect to counsel a patient on when it comes to preconception health?

A
  • Health of parents impacts health of the child
  • Identify/modify risk factors in individuals prior to pregnancy
  • Identify patients at high risk for an adverse pregnancy outcome
  • Risks after 35 years old
  • Treatment of medical conditions and results
  • Avoiding teratogens
  • Cessation or reduction in problematic substance use
  • Immunizations
  • Exercise
  • Referral for genetic counselling
  • Referral to family planning services and/or family and social services
  • Infectious disease testing (STI’s, Hep B, HIV/AIDS)
  • Folic acid supplementation
  • Stress management
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6
Q

What types of medical conditions should be tested/treated for during preconception health?

A

o Diabetes
o Obesity
o STIs
o Hypothyroidism
o Maternal phenylketonuria

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7
Q

What are risks of inadequate nutrition during pregnancy?

A

o Increase in number of low-birth-weight infants
o Increase in preterm infants

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8
Q

Why are women advised to maintain a folate rich diet and take folic acid supplements before they have conceived? When are they advised to increase intake?

A

Poor intake causes neural tube defects
o Neural tube begins to close within the first month, often before pregnancy

Supplements should be taken from 3 months prior to conception to 6 months postpartum.

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9
Q

What are some folate rich foods?

A

liver, beans, lentils, edamame

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10
Q

What childbearing concerns may affect obese women more than a woman at the ideal body weight?

A

o Infertility issues
o Difficulty maintaining pregnancy including increased risk of spontaneous abortion and recurrent pregnancy loss
o Still birth
o Gestational diabetes
o Preeclampsia/eclampsia
o Noninvasive prenatal testing that misses abnormalities

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11
Q

What are infants of obese mothers at an increased risk of?

A

o Undetected chromosomal abnormalities
o Neural tube abnormalities
o Heart, ventral wall, and cardiac defects

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12
Q

Why are obese patients more of an aspiration risk during pregnancy than mothers at the ideal body weight?

A

All pregnant patients experience
 Delayed gastric emptying time
 Decreased cardiac sphincter (between esophagus and stomach) tone
 Hyperacidic gastric contents

These combined with the increased intragastric pressure and volume produced by obesity result in an increased risk of regurgitation and aspiration

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13
Q

What are some concerns associated with advanced maternal age?

A

o Advanced maternal age may be a risk factor for Down’s syndrome
o Declining fertility with advanced maternal age results in the need for assisted reproductive technologies and preterm delivery
o Multiples/c-sections

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14
Q

What are some concerns associated with advanced paternal age?

A

 Decrease in serum testosterone
 Infecundity (sterility)
 Congenital anomalies
 Adverse perinatal outcomes
o Genetic quality of sperm produced by older men may be reduced

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15
Q

What are some environmental factors that may affect preconception health?

A

o Education
o Workplace
o Income
o Physical environment
o Access to health service

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16
Q

What infections should be screened during the preconception health assessment?

A

o Vaccines for Hep B, Rubella, Varicella
o HIV/AIDS screening and treatment
o STIs screening and treatment

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17
Q

What is a postpartum infection? and what are the most common symptoms?

A
  • Also called puerperal infections
  • Any infection occurring within 42 days of birth or loss
  • The most common symptoms are:
    o Fever
    o Tachycardia
    o Localized pain
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18
Q

What are preconception or antepartum risk factors for postpartum infections?

A

o Malnutrition or obesity
o Concurrent medical or immunosuppressive conditions
o History of venous thrombosis, UTI, mastitis, pneumonia
o Diabetes mellitus
o Alcohol or substance misuse
o Anemia
o Preeclampsia

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19
Q

What are intrapartum factors that increase the risk of a postpartum infection?

A

o Caesarean or other operative birth
o Prolonged rupture of membranes or labour
o Internal fetal or uterine pressure monitoring
o Chorioamnionitis – infection of membranes and amniotic fluid
o Bladder catheterization
o Multiple vaginal examinations after membrane rupture
o Epidural anesthesia
o Retained placental fragments
o Postpartum hemorrhage
o Episiotomy or lacerations
o Hematomas

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20
Q

Describe postpartum endometritis including risk factors, signs and symptoms, diagnostics and management

A
  • Infection of uterus lining
  • Initially localized at placental site but then spreads
  • Most common postpartum infection

Risk factors
o Caesarean
o Prolonged labour or membrane rupture

Signs and symptoms
o Fever, chill
o Tachycardia
o Anorexia, nausea
o Fatigue, lethargy
o Pelvic pain
o Uterine tenderness
o Foul-smelling, profuse lochia (vaginal discharge)

Diagnostics
o Leukocytosis
o Increased sed rate
o Anemia

Management
o Broad spectrum antibiotics (may be considered prophylactically)
o Hydration
o Rest
o Pain relief

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21
Q

Describe postpartum wound infection including risk factors, signs and symptoms, diagnostics and management

A

An infection of a wound caused by childbirth

Risk factors
o Caesarean
o Episiotomy or laceration

Signs and symptoms
o Fever
o Erythema, edema
o Warmth
o Tenderness, pain
o Seropurulent drainage
o Wound separation

Management
o Broad spectrum antibiotics (may be considered prophylactically)
o Appropriate wound care

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22
Q

Describe postpartum UTIs risk factors, signs and symptoms, and management

A

Risk factors
o Urinary catheterization
o Frequent pelvic examinations
o Epidural anesthesia
o Genital tract injury
o History of UTIs
o Caesarean birth

Signs and symptoms
o Dysuria, frequency, urgency
o Low-grade fever
o Urinary retention
o Hematuria
o Pyuria (WBC or puss in urine)
o Costovertebral angle tenderness or flank pain if upper UTI

Management
o Antibiotics
o Pain relief
o Hydration

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23
Q

Describe postpartum mastitis including progression, signs and symptoms, and management

A
  • Most common 3-4 weeks after birth well after the flow of milk has been established

Progression
o Initial lesion is often an infected nipple fissure
o Ductal system becomes infected
o Inflammatory edema and engorgement of breast obstruct milk flow in the lobe
o Regional, then generalized mastitis follows
o Can progress to breast abscess if not treated promptly

Signs and symptoms
o Chills, fever
o Malaise
o Local breast tenderness, pain
o Swelling, redness
o Axillary adenopathy

Management
o Counselling about prevention of cracked nipples, incomplete breast emptying, and plugged milk ducts to prevent it from being an issue
o Manual expression or breast pump can be used to maintain lactation
o Intensive antibiotic therapy
o Local heat or cold
o Adequate hydration
o Analgesics

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24
Q

Describe the term antepartum

A

o Also called prenatal
o Time between conception and onset of labour
o Often used to describe the period during which a woman is pregnant

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25
Q

Describe gestation

A

o Number of weeks of pregnancy since the first day of the last menstrual period

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26
Q

Define the trimesters of pregnancy?

A

o First – first day of LMP through 12 completed weeks
o Second – 13 weeks through 27 completed weeks
o Third – 28 weeks through 40 completed weeks

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27
Q

Describe the field of obstetrics view of human development

A

o Pregnancy counts from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP)
o Gestation lasts for 40 weeks (10 lunar months)
o The first 2 weeks of pregnancy correlate with development of the oocyte and endometrial lining

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28
Q

Describe the embryological view of human development

A

o Embryo count begins with oocyte fertilization (so different start dates)
o Gestation lasts for 38 weeks

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29
Q

What hormone are pregnancy tests detecting?

What is the progression of this hormones levels?

What can lower/higher numbers indicate?

A

Beta-hCG, or b-hCG, or hCG

o Production begins at implantation
o Can be detected about 8-10 days after fertilization
o Concentration peaks at 9-10 weeks
o Declines to a stable level after 20 weeks

Reduced levels indicate
 Miscarriage
 Abnormal gestation (i.e. Down’s syndrome)

Higher levels indicate
 Molar pregnancy
 Multiple gestation

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30
Q

What are presumptive signs of pregnancy? What are some examples of these?

A

o Subjective changes reported by the patient
o Symptoms can be caused by conditions other than pregnancy

Examples include
 Amenorrhea
 Fatigue
 Breast changes

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31
Q

What are probable signs of pregnancy? What are some examples?

A

o Objective changes assessed by an examiner
o When combined with presumptive signs and symptoms, these changes strongly suggest pregnancy

Examples:
Hegar sign (softening of lower uterus)
Ballottement (rebounding baby)
Pregnancy tests or beta-hCG (could be molar)

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32
Q

What are positive signs of pregnancy?

A

o Objective signs assessed by an examiner that can be attributed ONLY to the presence of the fetus
 Hearting fetal heart tones
 Visualizing the fetus
 Palpating fetal movements
o HCG doubling every 48 hours (could argue that this is still presumptive lol), won’t be an exam question
o Definitive signs that confirm pregnancy

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33
Q

What changes occur to the size of the uterus during pregnancy?

A

First trimester
o Uterine enlargement occurs due to
 Increased vascularity and dilation of blood vessels
 Hyperplasia
 Hypertrophy
o Week 7 – size of an egg
o Week 10 – size of an orange
o Week 12 – size of a grapefruit

Second and third trimester
o Uterine enlargement occurs due to pressure of the growing fetus

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34
Q

What changes occur to the shape of the uterus during pregnancy?

A
  • Preconception – upside-down pear shape
  • Second trimester – spherical shape
  • Late pregnancy – ovid shape
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35
Q

What changes occur to the contractility of the uterus during pregnancy (not labour)?

A

Prelabour contractions (Braxton Hicks)
o Intermittent, irregular, painless contractions that can be annoying
o Facilitate uterine blood flow and promote oxygen delivery to fetus
o Begins after 4th month until labour
o Does not increase in intensity or duration and does not cause cervical dilation (this would be labour)

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36
Q

Describe the uteroplacental blood flow.

What can increase/decrease this flow?

What can be used to measure this blood flow?

A
  • More oxygen extracted from uterine blood during latter part of pregnancy
  • Uterine blood flow increase by 10 fold, and about 1/6 of total blood volume is within the uterine vascular system

Factors that decrease uterine blood flow are
o Low arterial pressure
o Contractions of the uterus
o Supine position

Estrogen may stimulate an increase in uterine blood flow

Doppler can be use to measure uterine blood flow especially in pregnancies at risk due to conditions associated with decreased placental perfusion including
o Hypertension
o Intrauterine growth restriction
o Diabetes mellitus
o Multiple gestation

Ultrasound or fetal stethoscope may hear
o Uterine souffle or bruit
 Rushing or blowing sound of maternal blood flowing through uterine arteries to placenta
 Synchronous with maternal pulse
o Funic souffle
 Fetal blood coursing through the umbilical cord
 Synchronous with the fetal heart rate
o Fetal heartbeat

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37
Q

Describe the changes that occur to the cervix during pregnancy (not labour).

A
  • Responsive to hormones
  • Remains firm and closed to maintain pregnancy
  • Nullipara – rounded cervix
  • Previous vaginal birth – cervix is oval in the horizontal plan

AT WEEK 6

Goodell sign
* Softening of cervical tip

Velvety appearance
* Caused by proliferation at the external os (orifice)

Increased friability (tendency to break apart)
* Results in slight bleeding after vaginal exams or coitus

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38
Q

What is quickening?

When can this be felt?

What is this affected by?

A

Fluttering fetal movements
o Multiparous patient may feel it about week 14, nulliparous patient may not notice until 20 weeks
o Gradually increases in intensity and frequency
 Starts as subtle flutter that is very delicate
 At end of pregnancy you can see it outside of abdomen
o The week it starts may help date the gestation

Affected by
 Maternal obesity
 Multiples (twins, triplets etc)
 Fetal position

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39
Q

What is Chadwicks sign and what is it caused by?

A

violet-bluish colour of vaginal mucosa and cervix

Caused by the increased vascularity

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40
Q

What is leukorrhea? Why does this occur?

A

Copious white/light grey mucoid discharge that smells faintly musty

Cervical response to estrogen and progesterone

The white is exfoliated vaginal epithelial cells caused by hyperplasia and is a normal finding

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41
Q

Describe the operculum

A

Aka the mucous plug
o Caused by leukorrhea mucous filling the endocervical canal
o Acts as a barrier against bacterial invasion

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42
Q

Describe the changes to the vaginal microbiome during pregnanccy?

A

o Decreased anaerobic bacteria but increases in Lactobacillus
o Decreases pH of vaginal secretions
o Changes prevent ascending bacterial infections
o May help establish gut microbiome of infant

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43
Q

Describe the changes to the external perineal structures during pregnancy.

A

They become enlarged due to
 Increased vasculature
 Hypertrophy of perineal body
 Deposition of fat

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44
Q

What is the appearance of the labia majora during pregnancy?

A

Nullipara patients approximate and obscure the vaginal entrance

Separation and gape may occur due to
 Previous childbirth
 Perineal or vaginal injury

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45
Q

Describe the changes to breast size that occur during pregnancy

A

Early gestation may have the following due to increased estrogen/progesterone levels:
o Fullness
o Heaviness
o Heightened sensitivity (tingling to sharp pain)

Blood vessels – dilate and become more visible

Enlargement
o Occurs during 2nd and 3rd trimester
o Growth of mammary glands

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46
Q

Describe colostrum production that occurs during pregnancy

A

o Production begins by the end of the first trimester due to prolactin
o Secreted during the second trimester due to human placental lactogen
o Lactation inhibited until progesterone decline after birth

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47
Q

Describe striae gravidarm

A

o Also called stretch marks
o Generally occur on abdomen, thighs, and breasts
o May feel itchy
o Colour darkens as patients skin darkens

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48
Q

Describe the coarse nodularity that occurs to the breasts during pregnancy.

A

o Proliferation of the lactiferous ducts and lobule-alveolar tissue
o Result of high levels of luteal and placental hormones

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49
Q

Describe the changes to the areolas during pregnancy

A

o Primary areolae become more pigmented
o Secondary pinkish areolae develop beyond the primary areolae
o Nipples become more erect

Montgomery tubercles – small bumps around the primary areolae
 Caused by hypertrophy of sebaceous glands embedded there
 Help secrete lubricating and anti-infective substances to protect the nipples and areolas during breastfeeding

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50
Q

What occurs to the breast tissue during pregnancy that results in them becoming softer?

A
  • Glandular tissue displaces connective tissues so breasts become softer and looser
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51
Q

What changes occur to the maternal heart size and position during pregnancy?

A
  • Slight cardiac hypertrophy may occur but returns to normal size within 6 months of childbirth

o Elevated upward and rotated forward to the left

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52
Q

What maternal heart sound changes are noted during pregnancy?

A

o Apical pulse can shift up and out due to change in heart position
o Audible splitting of S1 and S2
o S 3
o Systolic and diastolic murmur (best heard over left sternal border)
o Generally returns to normal after birth

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53
Q

What maternal heart rate and rhythm changes occur during pregnancy?

A

Heart rate
o Begins to climb at 5 weeks and can reach a peak of 15-20 beats over normal

Cardiac rhythm
o Limited effects
o May cause
 Sinus dysrhythmia
 PACs or PVCs
o Close supervision should be made for those with pre-existing heart disease

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54
Q

Describe the blood volume changes that occur during pregnancy

A
  • Increases by 1.2-1.5L above pregnancy level (40-50%)
    o Rapidly rises early and peaks around 28-34 weeks before stabilizing
    o Volumes are higher in multiple gestation
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55
Q

What is hemodilution that occurs during pregnancy?

A

o Also called physiological anemia
o RBCs only go up 17% though so lots of it is just plasma
o Hemoglobin and hematocrit both decrease
 Peaks during second trimester

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56
Q

What changes occur to the WBC counts during pregnancy?

A

o Total increases during second trimester, peaking in third
o Mostly granulocytes

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57
Q

Why is the mother considered to be in a hypercoagulable state during pregnancy?

Why does this occur?

A

o Protective function to decrease chance of bleeding
o Increases risk of thrombosis especially after C-section

Caused by
 Increase in clotting factors
 Decrease in factors that inhibit coagulation
 Depressed fibrinolytic activity

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58
Q

What changes occur to the maternal cardiac output during pregnancy?

Why does this occur?

A
  • Increases 30-50%, with half occurring by 8 weeks

Results from
o Increased stroke volume
o Increased rate
o Increased tissue oxygen demands

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59
Q

What maternal BP changes may occur during pregnancy?

A
  • Blood pressure remains stable or decreases slightly due to decreased systemic vascular resistance which is caused by
    o Vasodilatory effects of progesterone, prostaglandins, and relaxin
    o Uteroplacental vascular system holding a large percentage of blood volume

Systolic pressure
o Remains stable but can raise slightly during advanced pregnancy

Diastolic pressure
o Beings to decrease in first trimester until 28 weeks
o After 28 weeks, gradually returns to pre-pregnancy level at term

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60
Q

Define supine hypotension

A

o Also called vena cava syndrome
o Systolic drop >30 mmHg when laying supine
o Cause by compression of inferior vena cava by the baby

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61
Q

Describe the pulmonary changes that occur to the mother during pregnancy

A

Maternal oxygen consumption increases by 20-40% during pregnancy

Diaphragm pushed up as much as 4 cm by enlarging uterus
o Less able to participate in breathing
o Chest breathing becomes more predominant

Lower ribs flare out and rib cage ligaments relax increasing chest expansion

Upper respiratory tract becomes more vascular leading to
o Increased nasal and sinus stuffiness
o Epistaxis
o Changes in the voice
o Marked inflammatory response to even a mild upper respiratory tract infection
o Swelling of tympanic membrane and eustachian tube leading to
 Impaired hearing
 Earaches
 Sense of fullness in the ear

Tidal volume increases by 40%

Respiratory alkalosis occurs facilitating the transport of CO2

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62
Q

Describe bladder symptoms that occur during pregnancy

A

Bladder symptoms early in pregnancy and again near term
o Bladder irritability
o Nocturia
o Urinary frequency and urgency (without dysuria)

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63
Q

What changes occur to the ureters and what can this cause?

A

Changes
 Ureter walls undergo hyperplasia, hypertrophy, and muscle tone relaxation
 Ureters above the renal brim and the renal pelvis dilate
 Ureters elongate, become tortuous, and form single or double curves

Results
 Larger volume of urine is held in renal pelvis and ureters and urine flow slows

Consequences
 Urinary stasis or stagnation can result in
* Lag between urine formation and reaching the bladder affecting clearance test results
* Increased risk of UTI
o Higher sugar content and higher pH level don’t help this risk

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64
Q

What is the result of the bladder being pushed upward into the abdomen during the second trimester by the uterus?

A

Results in urethra that lengthens in response and can cause
o Hyperemia of bladder and urethra due to pelvic congestion
o Mucosa off bladder is easily traumatized resulting in bleeding
o Bladder tone decreases increasing capacity
o Bladder compressed by the uterus resulting in urge to void even if its mostly empty

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65
Q

What is the effect of pregnancy on renal function? What can help or hinder renal function?

A

GFR increases in early pregnancy resulting in
o Increased creatinine clearance
o Decreased serum creatinine, BUN, and uric acid levels

Most efficient in side lying

Supine position results in vena cava and aorta compression and kidney blood flow deceases

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66
Q

How does the body maintain the isotonic state for the additional fluid volumes associated with pregnancy?

A

Tubular resorption of sodium increases

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67
Q

What is physiological edema of pregnancy?

A

o Edema that occurs in the lower legs during later pregnancy
o Does not require treatment
o When patient is side lying, the pooled fluid will re-enter circulation

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68
Q

Describe glucosuria during pregnancy and what should be considered if it is noted

A

o May occur at varying times due to impaired glucose resorption
o If noted, possibility of DM or gestational diabetes should be considered

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69
Q

Describe proteinuria during pregnancy and what should be considered if it is noted

A

o Increased excretion of protein and albumin after 20 weeks
 Due to increased GFR and impaired proximal tubular function
o There are abnormal levels, but the amount isn’t an indication of severity
o If patient also has HTN, careful evaluation should occur

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70
Q

What parts of the body may experience darkening after about 16 weeks gestation?

A

nipples, areolae, axillae, and vulva

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71
Q

What is facial melasma?

A

o Blotchy, brownish hyperpigmentation of skin over cheeks, nose, forehead
o Begins about week 6 and darkens gradually until term but usually fades after birth
o More likely in those with dark complexions

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72
Q

What is linea nigra?

A

o Pigmented line extending from symphysis pubis to the top of the fundus
o With the first baby, it grows as the baby grows, subsequent pregnancies it just appears

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73
Q

Describe angiomatas

A

o Also called vascular spiders
o Tiny, star-shaped, lightly raised, pulsating end-arterioles
o Appear on neck, thorax, face, and arms during months 2-5 and usually disappear a few months after birth

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74
Q

What is palmar erythema?

A

o Pinkish-red diffusely mottled or well-defined blotches over palmar surfaces that occurs during pregnancy

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75
Q

Describe pruritis gravidarum

A

o Mild pruritic over abdomen that usually resolves after birth
o Topical steroids and emollients may help with itching

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76
Q

Describe polymorphic eruption of pregnancy (PEP)

A

o Also called pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP)
o Very itchy red bumps that appear over the abdomen and while it can cause significant discomfort, it is not associated with adverse outcomes for mom or baby
o Occurs late in pregnancy and resolves after birth

Less common but associated with
 Increased weight gain during pregnancy
 Multiple gestations
 Hypertension
 Induction of labour

Usually treated with oral antihistamines and topical antipruritic and corticosteroid creams; severe cases may need oral steroids

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77
Q

Describe acne during pregnancy

A

o Can worsen during pregnancy (or be a new onset)
o Accutane is a teratogen, so should be avoided

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78
Q

Describe perspiration during pregnancy

A

Increases due to
 Increased blood supply to the skin
 Increased metabolic rate

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79
Q

Describe hirsutism that may occur during pregnancy

A

o Excessive growth of hair or growth in unusual places
o Fine hair likely to disappear after pregnancy, but coarse hair does not usually

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80
Q

Describe hair loss during pregnancy

A

o Growth may be accelerated
o Scalp hair loss slows during pregnancy
o Increased hair loss may be noted after birth

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81
Q

Describe nail changes during pregnancy

A

o Growth may be accelerated
o Thinning and softening of the nails may be noted

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82
Q

What are musculoskeletal adaptations during pregnancy?

A
  • Center of gravity shifts forward
  • Lordosis develops
  • Lower back pain occurs due to low spine stress
  • Pelvic relaxation
  • Abdominal wall stretches, losing muscle tone
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83
Q

Why does lordosis during pregnancy cause

A

o Accentuated by large breasts and stoop-shouldered stance
o Compensatory exaggerated anterior flexion of the head develops to help maintain balance

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84
Q

Describe pelvic relaxation during pregnancy

A

o Permits enlargement of pelvis to facilitate birth
o Considerable separation of symphysis pubis and instability of SI joints causes pain and difficulty walking
o Waddling gate

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85
Q

Describe diastasis recti abdominis

A

 Rectus abdominis that separates in the third trimester
 May persist even after birth as muscle regains tone

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86
Q

Describe neurological symptoms that may be experienced during pregnancy

A

o Sensory changes in lower limbs due to compression of pelvic nerves and blood vessels
o Pain caused by lordosis pulling or compressing nerves
o Carpal tunnel syndrome
o Acroesthesia (loss of sensation in the hands)
o Tension headaches
o Lightheadedness or syncope
o Muscle cramps or tetany may be caused by hypocalcemia
o Corneal thickening and decreased intraocular pressure occur during pregnancy and resolves shortly after birth

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87
Q

Describe morning sickness

A

 Up to 80% experience it
 Usually subsides at the end of the first trimester
 Ranges from mild distaste for some foods to sever vomiting

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88
Q

Describe hyperemesis gravidarum

A

 Occurs in 1% of pregnancies
 Persistent vomiting leading to a weight loss of >5%
 Associated with electrolyte imbalance and ketonuria
 Intervention likely required

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89
Q

Describe the changes that may happen to the mouth during pregnancy

A

Gums
o Hyperemia, spongy, and swollen
o Bleed easier

Epulis
o Also called gingival granuloma gravidarum
o Red, raised nodule on the gums that bleeds easily
o May develop in third month and enlarge throughout pregnancy
o Avoid trauma to area
o Usually regresses after birth

Increased risk for gingivitis and periodontitis
o Periodontitis associated with poor pregnancy outcomes such as
 Preterm birth
 Low birth weight baby

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90
Q

Describe the changes that happen to the esophagus and stomach during pregnancy

A

Decreased tone and motility of smooth muscles, causing
o Esophageal regurgitation
o Slower stomach emptying
o Reverse peristalsis

Pyrosis
o Heartburn or acid indigestion
o May be as early as first trimester and intensify throughout pregnancy

Hiatal hernia
o Increased risk due to upward displacement caused by uterus
o More common in multiparas and older or obese patients

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91
Q

Why might constipation occur during pregnancy?

A

 Smooth muscle relaxation and reduced peristalsis
 Change in food intake and type of foods
 Lack of fluids
 Iron supplements
 Decreased activity
 Abdominal distension of the uterus
 Displacement and compression of intestines by gravid uterus

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92
Q

Describe the changes that can happen to the intestines/anus during pregnancy

A

Iron absorption in small intestines increases

Microbiome changes
o May protect the fetus and contribute to establishing the microbiome of the newborn

Constipation

Hemorrhoids
o Swollen veins in the lower rectum (internal) or on the anus (external)
o Common to develop in the third trimester and often resolve after birth
o Can evert or bleeding during straining at stool from constipation

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93
Q

Describe changes that happen to the gall bladder during pregnancy

A
  • Often distended due to decreased muscle tone
  • Slower emptying times results in thickening bile and possible stones
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94
Q

Describe the changes to the liver during pregnancy

A

Hemodilution results in serum albumin and total protein levels to decrease

ALP increases up to 4 times normal but other LFTs remain normal

Intrahepatic cholestasis
o Retention and accumulation of bile in the liver
o May occur late in pregnancy due to placental steroids
o May result in severe itching and possibly jaundice

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95
Q

What are common causes of abdominal discomfort during pregnancy?

A

o Pelvic heaviness or pressure
o Round ligament tension
o Flatulence
o Distension
o Bowel cramping
o Uterine contractions

Be alert because it may be caused by
o Bowel obstruction
o Inflammatory process

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96
Q

Why is appendicitis difficult to diagnose during pregnancy?

A

Because the appendix is displaced

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97
Q

Describe the production and role of hCG during pregnancy

A
  • Produced by trophoblast tissue and eventually chorionic villi
  • Supports function of corpus luteum
  • Measuring levels can help in
    o Identifying a normal pregnancy
    o Pathologic pregnancy or pregnancy complications
    o Following an aborted pregnancy
  • Levels vary widely between women
    o Exponentially rise in first trimester and peaks at week 10
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98
Q

Describe the production and role of progesterone during pregnancy

A
  • Produced initially by corpus luteum and then by placenta
  • Inhibits FSH and LH
  • Helps establish placenta
  • Stimulates growth of blood vessels that supply the womb
  • Inhibits contraction of the uterus so it can grow with baby
  • Strengthens pelvic wall muscles for labour
  • Causes fat deposit in subQ tissues of maternal abdomen, back, and upper thighs
  • Decreases ability to utilize insulin
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99
Q

Describe the production and role of estrogen during pregnancy

A
  • Produced initially by corpus luteum and then by placenta
  • Inhibits FSH and LH
  • Helps uterus grow and maintain its lining
  • Helps fetal organ develop
  • Activates and regulates production of other hormones
  • Works with progesterone to stimulate breast growth and mild duct development
  • Causes fat deposit in subQ tissues of maternal abdomen, back, and upper thighs
  • Increases retention of sodium and water
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100
Q

Describe the production and role of prolactin during pregnancy

A
  • Produced by anterior pituitary gland
  • Main hormone needed to produce milk
  • Contributes to enlargement of the mammary glands and prepares them for milk production
  • Inhibits lactation during pregnancy
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101
Q

Describe the production and role of relaxin during pregnancy

A
  • Produced initially by corpus luteum and then by placenta
  • Inhibits uterus contraction to prevent premature birth
  • Vasodilates to increase blood flow to placenta and kidneys
  • Relaxes joints of pelvis
  • Softens and lengthens the cervix during birth
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102
Q

Describe the production and role of oxytocin during pregnancy

A
  • Produced by posterior pituitary gland
  • Levels rise at start of labour stimulating uterine contractions
  • Triggers production of prostaglandins further increasing contractions
  • Can be used to induce labour
  • Stimulates milk ejection from breasts
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103
Q

Describe the production and role of human placental lactogen during pregnancy

A
  • Previously called chorionic somatomammotropin
  • Produced by placenta
  • Acts as a growth hormone
  • Contributes to breast development
  • Decreases maternal metabolism of glucose
  • Increases the amount of fatty acids for metabolic needs
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104
Q

What are some psychological adaptations of the mother during pregnancy?

A

Accepting the pregnancy
Identifying with the mother role
Reordering personal relationships
Establishing a relationship with the fetus
Preparing for the birth

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105
Q

What are the 3 stages of a mother developing a relationship with the fetus

A

1 - I am pregnant
2 - I’m going to have a baby
3 - I’m going to be a mother

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106
Q

What psychological adaptations happen to the non-pregnant partner?

A

Accepting the pregnancy

Identifying with the father role

Reordering personal relationships

Establishing a relationship with the fetus

Preparing for the birth

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107
Q

What are the 3 phases for men to accepting the prengancy?

A

1 - Announcement
2 - Moratorium (adjusts to reality, probably talks to their own dad)
3 - Focusing phase (usually last trimester and begins to actively become involved)

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108
Q

What are the 3 stages of prenatal development and what are the timelines for them?

A

Germinal phase - conception to end of week 2 (embryology count)

Embryonic phase - week 3 to the end of week 8 (embryology count)

Fetal development - week 9 to end of pregnancy (embryology count)

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109
Q

Describe the germinal phase

A
  • Conception until the end of week 2 (embryology counts)
  • Fertilized ovum divides and burrows into the uterus
  • Not susceptible to teratogenesis
  • Death of the embryo and spontaneous abortion are common
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110
Q

Which phase is critical for differentiation? What is it most susceptible to during this phase?

A

Embryonic phase

Embryo is most susceptible to damage from external sources including
o Teratogens (i.e. alcohol, medications)
o Infections (i.e. rubella, cytomegalovirus)
o Radiation
o Nutritional deficiencies

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111
Q

What is the production and development of the organs in the developing fetus called? When does this occur?

A

Organogenesis

Occurs during the embryonic phase begins in week 3 and continues until the end of week 8 (embryology counts)

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112
Q

What are some of the major congenital anomalies that may occur during the embryonic phase?

A

o Neural tube defects
o Heart defects
o Limb abnormalities including missing parts of limbs/extremities
o Cleft lip or cleft palate
o Deafness
o Ocular defects
o Enamel hypoplasia (undeveloped tooth enamel)
o Masculinization of female genitalia

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113
Q

Describe the embryonic phase

A
  • Weeks 3 to completion of week 8 (embryology counts)
  • Critical period of differentiation
  • By the end of embryo phase, it is starting to resemble a human being
  • Embryo is most susceptible to damage from external sources

Organogenesis
o Begins on day 17-19 until the end of week 8
o Starts with formation of the neural plate and continues until the end of the embryonic phase
o Beginning development of the
 Neural tube forms which then becomes the spinal cord
 Brain
 GI tract
 Arm and leg buds appear and grow out from the body as they develop
o Heart development
 Complete at the end of embryonic phase
 Fetal heart rate may

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114
Q

What damage is the most likely to occur during fetal phase of development?

A
  • Functional defects and minor anomalies may occur
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115
Q

Describe the fetal development that occurs from weeks 9-12 (embryonic counts)

A

o Sexual differentiation continues
o Fetal heartbeat can be heard by the end of week 12
o Heartbeat is discernible by ultrasound
o First movements begin at 12 weeks
o Kidneys begin to produce urine

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116
Q

Describe the fetal development about week 16 (embryonic counts)

A

o Meconium in bowel
o Musculoskeletal system has matured, most bones are distinct
o Fetus makes active movement
o Weight quadruples
o Fetal heartrate is discernible with Doppler
o Baby’s sex can be determined by ultrasound

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117
Q

Describe the fetal development about week 20 (embryonic counts)

A

o Fetal movement (quickening) detected by mother
o Enamel on teeth is depositing
o Bones ossifying
o Brain grossly formed, spinal cord myelination begins
o Vernix caseosa, a white, greasy film, covers the fetus
o Eyebrows, eyelashes, and head hear develop

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118
Q

Describe the fetal development about week 24 (embryonic counts)

A

o Respiratory movements begin and alveoli are forming
o Lungs begin to produce surfactant
o Can hear
o Eyelashes and eyebrows well formed
o Fetus has a hand grasp and startle reflex
o Skin is red and translucent

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119
Q

Describe the fetal development about week 28 (embryonic counts)

A

o Fetus about 15 inches or 28.1 cm long
o Rapid brain development
o Fetus can breathe, swallow, and regulate temperature
o Eyelids reopen so they can now open and close
o Fetus usually assumes head-down position (cephalic presentation)
o Nervous system controls some functions
o Fingerprints are set
o Blood formation shifts from spleen to bone marrow

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120
Q

Describe the fetal development about week 32 (embryonic counts)

A

o Body fat rapidly increases
o Lungs developed but immature
o Rhythmic breathing movements
o Fetus stores iron, calcium, and phosphorus
o Increased CNS control over body functions

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121
Q

Describe the fetal development about week 38 (embryonic counts)

A

o Fetus is considered full term and fills the uterus
o Maternal antibodies are transferred to the baby
o Testes are in scrotum of male fetus
o Small breast buds are present on both sexes
o Lanugo begins to disappear
o Body fat continues to increase
o Fingernails reach the end of the fingertips

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122
Q

Describe the main functions of the placenta

A

Circulation
o Exchange metabolic and gaseous products between fetal and maternal circulatory systems

Hormone production
o Production of hormones necessary for fetal development and continuation of pregnancy

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123
Q

Describe the development of the placenta

A

Trophoblast
o Precursory cells of the placenta
o First appear 4 days after fertilization
o Initially appear as outer layer of blastocyst

Upon implantation of the blastocyst into the maternal endometrium, trophoblasts continue to differentiate forming the inner and outer layers of the placenta (eventually the chorion and amnion)

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124
Q

What vessels are in the umbilical cord?

A

2 arteries and 1 vein

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125
Q

What is the umbilical cord formed from?

A

Amnion of the placenta

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126
Q

What is Wharton’s Jelly? What is it’s function?

A

o Thick gelatinous substances that surround the vessels in the umbilical cord
o Prevents compression

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127
Q

What is gravidity? What is nulligravida, primigravida, and multigravida?

A

pregnancy, or number or pregnancies including current one
o Nulligravida – A person who is not and has not been pregnant
o Primigravida – A person who is pregnant for the first time
o Multigravida – A person who has had 2 or more pregnancies

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128
Q

What is parity? What is nullipara, primipara, and multipara?

A

Number of pregnancies that have surpassed 20 weeks gestation. Not affected by number of fetuses or if they are born alive or stillborn
o Nullipara – A person who has not had a pregnancy > 20 weeks before
o Primipara – One pregnancy that is > 20 weeks
o Multipara – A person who has had 2 or more pregnancies > 20 weeks

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129
Q

Describe viability

A

Capacity to live outside the uterus, generally 22-25 weeks is the threshold

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130
Q

What is a term pregnancy? What are the various terms associated with being around term and what gestation do they imply?

A

Term – A pregnancy between 37 weeks and 40 weeks + 6 days

o Preterm – Pregnancy between 20 weeks and 36 weeks + 6 days
o Late preterm – Pregnancy between 34 weeks and 36 weeks + 6 days
o Early term – Pregnancy between 37 weeks and 38 weeks + 6 days
o Full term – Pregnancy between 39 weeks and 40 weeks + 6 days
o Late term – Pregnancy in week 41
o Post term – Pregnancy after 42 weeks

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131
Q

During the antenatal assessment, what information should be covered in the current pregnancy history?

A

Review of symptoms and coping skills

Estimated date of birth

Environmental risks

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132
Q

What are the various methods used to determine the estimated date of birth?

A

Naegele’s rule
 Subtract 3 months, add 7 days to LMP
 This is what the wheel is based on
 Just an estimate and could change with US

Best practice is dated by ultrasound
 Done at 18-22 weeks in anatomy scan
 Can confirm EDB +/- 2 days

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133
Q

During the antenatal assessment, what information should be covered in the childbearing and female reproductive system history?

A

Menstrual history
o Age at first menarche
o Date of LMP

Contraceptive history

Infertility or gynecological conditions

STI history
o HIV, syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia – these are teratogenic

Sexual history

Last Papanicolaou (Pap) test and any results

Past pregnancies (GTPAL)
o Previous losses or multiple losses
o Complications
o Trauma from previous pregnancies/birth

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134
Q

During the antenatal assessment, what information should be covered in the past medical/surgical history?

A

o Physical or surgical procedures that can affect, or be affected by, pregnancy
o Allergies, medication use, and immunization status
o Previous or chronic medical conditions

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135
Q

During the antenatal assessment, what information should be covered in the nutritional history?

A

o BMI
o Nutritional advice should consider cultural influence
o Obese patients should be aware of complications for themselves and fetus
o History of bariatric surgery are at a nutritional risk
o Maternal weight gain and fetal growth should be monitored
 Special diet practices
 Food allergies
 Eating behaviours
 Pica

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136
Q

During the antenatal assessment, what information should be covered in the socioeconomic history?

A
  • History of drug use and herbal preparation use
  • Family history
  • Social, experiential, and occupational history (like supports, perceptions, or activities)
  • Physical, sexual abuse and intimate partner violence
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137
Q

Describe the GTPAL acronym for obstetrical history

A

G – Gravidity
o Number of all pregnancies including this one

T – Term births
o Births at >37 weeks gestation

P – Preterm births
o Births between 20 and 36 weeks + 6 days

A – Abortions and miscarriages
o Any abortions or spontaneous abortion before 20 weeks gestation

L – Living children
o Number of children currently alive the woman gave birth to

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138
Q

What does it mean when someone is G2P0?

A

Gravida (number of pregnancies including this one) is 2

Para (number of pregnancies >20 weeks) is 0

Older style, less informative than GTPAL

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139
Q

What type of lab tests should be done in the antenatal visits?

A

ABO and Rh factor

CBC, hemoglobin, WBC

Rubella and varicella

STIs (blood and vaginal/rectal smear)

1-hour glucose tolerance test

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140
Q

What is Rh incompatibility?

A

o Occurs when mothers blood type is Rh negative and her fetus’ blood type is Rh positive
o Some of fetus’s blood passes into the mother’s blood stream and her body creates antibodies in response (alloimmunization)
o First pregnancy is usually not affected as the exchange usually happens at the time of birth
o In the next Rh-positive pregnancy, maternal antibodies attack fetal red blood cells resulting in lysis
o Risk and severity of sensitization response increases with each subsequent pregnancy involving an Rh+ baby

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141
Q

How is Rh incompatibility treated?

A

o Prevention is the best treatment
o Prophylactic RhIG is administered to Rh-negative (D-negative) pregnant patient
 Destroys any fetal red blood cells in the maternal circulatory system before the immune system does so the mother does not produce antibodies
 A dose of 300 mcg RhIG given at 26-30 weeks if mother is Rh negative and unsensitized
o If baby is Rh positive, dose is repeated within 72 hours after birth
o If mom refuses the shot, miscarriage in further pregnancies is common and mom should be aware as part of full consent

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142
Q

When is Group B streptococcus screened for in a pregnant mother?

A

35-37 weeks gestation

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143
Q

Describe the increased needs for calories for each trimester

A

First trimester
o Same as nonpregnant

Second trimester
o Nonpregnant needs and an additional 340 kcal (calories)

Third trimester
o Nonpregnant needs and an additional 452 kcal

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144
Q

What risks are underweight pregnant mothers associated with?

A

 Preterm birth
 Small for gestational age baby
 Spontaneous abortion
 Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

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145
Q

What risks are overweight pregnant mothers associated with?

A
  • Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
  • Macrosomia
    o Much larger than average baby
    o Difficult to deliver due to fetopelvic disproportion
     Capacity for woman’s pelvis is insufficient for the safe vaginal delivery of the baby
  • Operative vaginal birth (i.e. forceps)
  • Emergency Caesarean birth
  • Postpartum hemorrhage
  • Wound, genital tract, or urinary tract infection
  • Birth trauma
  • Late fetal death
  • Pre-eclampsia
  • Gestational diabetes
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146
Q

Describe pica during pregnancy including examples, causes, and results

A

Classified as an eating disorder and may be caused by delusions
o We may need to look into their mental health

Consumption of nonfood substances or excessive amounts of foodstuffs low in nutritional value, can be toxic

Associated with mineral deficiency (low iron)

May include
o Excessive ice chewing
o Eating backing soda, laundry detergent etc.

May cause
o Nutritional food displaced from diet
o Interference with absorption

May result in nutritional deficits in mom and baby

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147
Q

What are ways to manage nausea/vomiting during pregnancy?

A
  • Consider low-iron prenatal vitamins
  • Small frequent meals
  • Try not to mix food and drinks
  • Do not skip meals
  • Eat pregnancy-safe foods that are appealing
    o Try salty and tart foods
  • Aoid strong odours
  • Avoid sudden movements
  • Get fresh air, use an exhaust fan when cooking
  • Eat room temp or cool foods that have little to no smell
  • Try candies, gummies or lozenges for metallic taste in the mouth
  • Avoid brushing teeth immediately after eating
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148
Q

How can pregnant women avoid UTIs?

A

o Proper hand hygiene and wiping pattern
o Soft, absorbent toilet paper
o Avoid bubble bath or bath oils
o Cotton underwear
o Adequate fluid intake
o Not holding urine
o Cranberry capsules

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149
Q

What exercises during pregnancy can help strengthen the pelvic floor?

A

Kegel

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150
Q

What is fundal height and what can it help us determine?

A
  • Distance from pubic bone to top of the uterus
  • Helps determine gestational age and fetus position
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151
Q

What are the expected fundal heights during pregnancy?

A
  • After week 20, fundal height in cm is approximately the same as the number of weeks of gestation, +/- 2 weeks (mother’s bladder should be empty)
    o Week 12-14 – fundus palpable above the symphysis pubis
    o Week 20-22 – fundus at umbilicus
    o Week 36 – fundus at xiphoid process
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152
Q

Describe lightening and when this occurs.

A

slight decrease in fundal height
o Result of fetus descending into pelvis
o Usually occurs after 36 weeks, provider may order tests to rule out other causes
o Nullipara – occurs anytime in 4 weeks before labour onset
o Multipara – occurs at start of labour

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153
Q

How is fundal height measured?

A

o Use a disposable paper tape
o Palpate pubis symphysis and place the 0 there
o Measure to the top of the uterus and document results

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154
Q

What can it mean if the fundal height is measuring behind gestational age?

A
  • Petite mother
  • Strong maternal abdominal muscles
  • Oligohydramnios (not enough amniotic fluid)
  • Fetus has dropped into the pelvis
  • Intrauterine growth restrictions (IUGR)
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155
Q

What can it mean if the fundal height is measuring ahead of gestational age?

A
  • Incorrect due date
  • Uterine fibroids
  • BMI > 25
  • Carrying multiples
  • Polyhydramnios (excessive amniotic fluid)
  • Breech positioning
  • Fetal macrosomia (large baby, may be caused by gestational diabetes)
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156
Q

What is Leopold’s Maneuver? What are the basic steps?

A

Systematic way of palpating the maternal abdomen to determine
o Number of fetuses
o Fetal presentation, fetal lie, and fetal attitude
o Degree of descent of the presenting part into the pelvis
o Point of maximal intensity of the fetal heart rate on the mothers abdomen

1 - determine the fetal part in the fundus
2 - determine where the fetal back is located
3 - determine presenting part over inlet to pelvis
4 - Determine if head is flexed/extended and engaged/free-floating

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157
Q

Describe fetal presentation and what the possible answers are

A

The presenting part

Cephalic - head first

Breech - butt or feet first

Shoulder - rare but shoulder first

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158
Q

Describe fetal attitude and how may this be described?

A

General flexion

Describes the position of specific parts of the fetus’s body

Optimal attitude allows for the smallest biparietal diameter to enter the pelvic inlet
o Chin tucked to the chest
o Arms and legs drawn into the center of the chest

If the fetal head is abnormally flexed or extended the presenting head diameter may exceed the maternal pelvis leading to prolonged labour and interventions

May be described as
o Occiput/Vertex
o Sinciput/Military
o Brow/face

159
Q

What are some risk factors for polyhydramnios?

A
  • Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus
  • Fetal-maternal hemorrhage
  • Fetal congenital anomalies including
    o Gi obstruction
    o CNS abnormalities
  • Genetic disorders
  • Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
160
Q

What are some risk factors for intrauterine growth restriction?

A

Maternal Factors
* Hypertensive disorders
* Pregestational diabetes
* Cyanotic heart disease
* Autoimmune disease
* Restrictive pulmonary disease
* Multifetal gestation
* Malabsorption disease/malnutrition
* Living at high altitude
* Tobacco or substance use

Fetal Factors
* Genetic disorders
* Teratogenic exposure
* Fetal infection

161
Q

What are some risk factors for oligohydramnios?

A
  • Renal agenesis (Potter syndrome)
  • Premature rupture of membranes
  • Prolonged pregnancy
  • Uteroplacental insufficiency
  • Severe intrauterine growth-restriction (IUGR)
  • Maternal hypertensive disorders
  • Maternal dehydration/hypovolemia
162
Q

What are some risk factors for fetal chromosomal abnormalities?

A
  • Advanced maternal age
  • Paternal chromosomal rearrangements
  • Previous pregnancy with autosomal trisomy
  • Abnormal ultrasound findings during the current pregnancy including
    o Fetal structural anomalies
    o IUGR
    o Amniotic fluid volume abnormalities
  • Increased risk as calculated from noninvasive screening results including
    o Nuchal translucency
    o Maternal serum analytes
163
Q

What is the term for pregnancy?

163
Q

What is the term for the number of pregnancies in which the fetus or fetuses have reached 20 weeks of gestation, not the number of fetuses born. The numeric designation is not affected by whether the fetus is born alive or stillborn

164
Q

What is the term for a woman who is pregnant?

165
Q

What is the term for a woman who has never been pregnant?

A

Nulligravida

166
Q

What is the term for a woman who has not completed a pregnancy with a fetus or fetuses beyond 20 weeks of gestation?

167
Q

What is the term for a woman who is pregnant for the first time?

A

Primigravida

168
Q

What is the term for a woman who has completed one pregnancy with a feus/fetuses who have reached 20 weeks of gestation or more?

169
Q

What is the term for a woman who has had 2 or more pregnancies?

A

Multigravida

170
Q

What is the term for a woman who has completed 2 or more pregnancies to 20 weeks of gestation or more?

171
Q

What is the term for the capacity to live outside the uterus?

172
Q

What is generally considered the threshold for viability?

A

Between 22-25 weeks gestation

173
Q

What is the term for a pregnancy that has reached 20 weeks of gestation but ends before completion of 36 weeks gestation?

174
Q

What is the term for a pregnancy from 39+0 weeks to 40+6 weeks gestation?

175
Q

What is the term for a pregnancy that goes beyond 40+0 weeks gestation?

176
Q

What is the term for the biological marker on which pregnancy tests are based? Its presence in the urine/serum results in a positive pregnancy test result.

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin

177
Q

What is the term for pregnancy-related changes felt by the pregnant patient?

A

Presumptive changes

178
Q

What is the term for pregnancy-related changes that can be observed by an examiner?

A

Probable changes

179
Q

What is the term for objective signs that can be attributed only to the presence of the fetus?

A

Positive changes

180
Q

How much folic acid should be taken by the mother and when?

A

400 mcg 3 months before until 6 months post partum

181
Q

What is the term for irregular, painless uterine contractions that can be felt through the abdominal wall soon after the fourth month of pregnancy?

A

Braxton Hicks

182
Q

What is the term for fetal movements felt first by the pregnant patient as early as 16-20 weeks gestation?

A

Quickening

183
Q

What is the term for a change in blood pressure as a result of compression of abdominal blood vessels and decrease in cardiac output when a pregnant patient lies down on their back?

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

184
Q

What is the term for nonfood cravings for substances such as ice, clay, and laundry starch?

185
Q

The first stage of labour begins with the_________ and ends when the cervix is ________ cm dilated.

A
  • onset of regular contractions
  • 10
186
Q

What are signs a pregnant patient may experience (prior to regular contractions) that are indicative of approaching labour?

A

Lightening
Lower body ache
Bloody show
Spontaneous rupture of membranes
Cervical changes (early dilation and effacement as well as ripening where the cervix softens)
Surge of energy (nesting)

187
Q

During the active phase of the first stage of labour, the cervix dilates from ____ to ____ cm

188
Q

What is the normal fetal heart rate?

A

110-160 bpm

189
Q

As labour progresses, what should happen to the frequency, duration, and intensity of contractions?

A

All increase

190
Q

What is the resting tone of the uterus? What is considered normal? Why is this?

A

The tone of the uterus between contractions

Should be soft to allow for improved blood flow to the fetus

If it is hard on palpation between contractions, the baby may not be getting adequate oxygen

191
Q

What is the relationship of the presenting part to an imaginary line in the maternal pelvis? What is the landmark used for this line?

A

Fetal station

Ischial spines

192
Q

________is the softening, thinning, and shortening of the cervical canal and may be expressed as a %

More often, the cervix is described as thick, thinning, or thin or the cervix is described as length in ____

A

Effacement

cm

193
Q

What is the most optimal fetal position for a safe vaginal delivery?

A

right occipital anterior

194
Q

The second stage of labour is the stage in which the ________. It begins with full ______ and complete or 100% _______ of the cervix. It ends with the __________.

A

Baby is born
Dilation
Effacement
Birth off the baby

195
Q

What are the signs that the second stage of labour is begining?

A

Ferguson’s reflex (urge to push or defecate)
Shaking extremities
Sudden appearance of sweat on the upper lip
Episode of vomiting
Increased bloody show___
Increased restlessness
Involuntary bearing down

196
Q

The third stage of labour lasts from the _________ until the _________. Detachment of the placenta from the wall of the uterus, or _________, is indicated by a ___________, change to a _______ shape, a sudden _____________ from the introitus, and apparent lengthening of the _______________.

A

Birth of the baby
Delivery of placenta
Separation
Firmly contracting uterus
Globe
Rush of blood
Umbilical cord

197
Q

The first 1-4 hours after birth is considered the ______

A

4th stage of labour

198
Q

________ medications are the classification of medications that stimulate contraction of the uterine smooth muscle

199
Q

___________ is the failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly. It is the most frequent cause of ___________ following childbirth.

A

uterine atony
postpartum hemorrhage

200
Q

A _________ is the perineal treatment that involves sitting in warm water for approximately 20 minutes to soothe and cleanse the site and to increase blood flow, thereby enhancing healing

201
Q

__________are menstrual-like cramps experienced by many women as the uterus contracts after childbirth and are more apparent while breastfeeding

A

Afterpains

202
Q

Complaint of pain in calf muscles is associated with the presence of a ________ or __________. Additional signs include ________, __________, or ________ in the suspected leg

A

Thrombus or thrombophlebitis
Heat, tenderness, redness

203
Q

_________exercises assist women to maintain perineal tone during pregnancy and help regain perineal muscle tone postpartum. Muscle tone is often lost when pelvic tissues are stretched and torn during pregnancy and birth

204
Q

_________ is an immunoglobulin product that is administered to Rh-negative, antibody (Coombs)-negative women who delivered an Rh-positive newborn. it is administered by ________, within _________after birth

A

Rhogam
IM injection
72 hours

205
Q

What is the average FHR during a 10-minute tracing segment that excludes accelerations, decelerations, and periods of marked variability?

A

Baseline fetal heart rate

206
Q

What is the term for an amplitude range of FHR fluctuations that is undetectable?

A

Absent variability

207
Q

What is the term for an amplitude range detectable by the unaided eye, but is <5 bpm?

A

Minimal variabiliity

208
Q

What is the term for persistent (>10 min) baseline FHR <110 bpm?

A

bradycardia

209
Q

What is the term for visually apparent decrease in FHR of 15 bpm or more below the baseline, which lasts between 2 and 10 minutes?

A

prolonged deceleration

210
Q

What is the term for changes from baseline patterns in FHR that occur with uterine contractions?

A

periodic changes

211
Q

What is the term for persistent (>10 min) baseline FHR > 160 pbm?

A

tachycardia

212
Q

What is the term for fluctuations in the baseline FHR that are irregular in amplitude and frequency and are visually quantified as the amplitude of the peak to trough in bpm?

A

variability

213
Q

What is the term for visually apparent gradual decrease in and return to baseline FHR in response to transient fetal head compression during a uterine contraction? Is this a good, bad, or ugly sign?

A

early deceleration

Considered normal and benign

214
Q

What is the term for visually apparent gradual decrease in and return to baseline FHR in response to uteroplacental insufficiency resulting in a transient disruption of oxygen transfer to the fetus? When does this occur?

A

late deceleration

Lowest point occurs after the peak of the contraction and baseline rate is not usually regained until the uterine contraction is over

215
Q

What is the term for visually abrupt decrease in FHR below baseline of 15 beats or more, lasting 15 seconds and returning to the baseline in less than 2 minutes that occurs any time during the contraction? What is this a sign of?

A

Variable deceleration

Result of umbilical cord compression

216
Q

What is the term for visually abrupt increase in the FHR of 15 bpm or greater above the baseline, lasting 15 seconds or more with a return to baseline in less than 2 minutes?

A

Acceleration

217
Q

What is the term for changes from baseline patterns in FHR that are not associated with uterine contractions?

A

episodic changes

218
Q

Describe fetal lie. How may lie be described?

A

Relation of the long axis (spine) of the fetus to the long axis (spine) of the mother

Longitudinal
o Ideal lie
o Spines line up vertically with fetal head in down in the birth canal

Transverse
o Fetus is sideways or horizontal across the uterus
o Not compatible with a vaginal birth

Oblique
o Usually converts to longitudinal or transverse lie during labour

219
Q

How do we describe fetal position? What are the options for each part?

A

We use a 3 letter abbreviation used to describe the fetal position

First letter denotes the side of the mothers pelvis the presenting part is located in
o R – right
o L – left

Second letter is the presenting part of the fetus
o O – occiput
o S – sacrum
o M – mentum
o Sc – scapula

Third letter represents the location of the presenting part in relation to the maternal pelvis
o A – anterior
o P – posterior
o T – transverse

220
Q

What is the most important indicator of an uncomplicated vaginal birth?

A

Fetal position as some presentations have different diameters which may prevent natural labour

ROA is the most optimal

221
Q

When can a doppler detect a fetal heartbeat?

A

12 weeks gestation

222
Q

How is the FHR heart best? How do we find it?

A

Point of maximal intensity (PMI) is heard through the fetal back…use Leopolds to figure out where that is?

223
Q

What is the PMI and what happens to it as the fetus descends into the pelvis during labour?

A

Point of maximal intensity (where we heart the FHR best)

Continues to be heard lower on the abdomen and moves closer to the midline

224
Q

Where is the PMI in a breach baby?

A

Above the umbilicus

225
Q

What is the most significant intrapartum sign of fetal compromise?

A

Minimal or absent FHR

226
Q

What is considered fetal bradycardia? What can cause it?

A

Rate < 110 bpm although 110-119 is usually not a sign of compromise in the absence of other concerning symptoms

Etiology
o Heart block
o Occiput posterior or transverse position
o Serious fetal compromise

227
Q

What is considered fetal tachycardia? What can cause it?

A

Rate > 160 bpm
o Good variability of tachycardia is not a sign of fetal distress

Etiology
o Maternal fever
o Fetal hypoxia
o Fetal anemia
o Amnionitis
o Fetal tachyarrhythmia
 Usually >200 with abrupt onset and little to no variability
o SVT (200-400)
o Fetal heart failure
o Drugs
 Beta sympathomimetics
 Vistaril
 Phenothiazines
o Rebound
 Transient tachycardia following a deceleration accompanied by decreased variability

228
Q

How should fetal movements be counted and how many movements would be considered normal?

A

Should be counted with mother in a reclined position

Should feel at least 6 distinctive fetal movements in 2 hours

If mom is walking, she may feel rebounding and not actual movements

Babies can sleep, if this is suspected, have mom get up and move around, drink some juice, etc. to wake the baby up and then sit down to try again

229
Q

What can affect fetal movement counting?

A

If mom is walking, she may feel rebounding and not actual movements

Babies can sleep, if this is suspected, have mom get up and move around, drink some juice, etc. to wake the baby up and then sit down to try again

230
Q

What are risk factors for decreased fetal movemnts?

A

Decreased placental perfusion

Fetal acidemia

231
Q

What is a non-stress test? What does it measure? When might it be done?

A

A non invasive test that is done during the 3rd trimester

Measures FHR in response to fetal movement

Indicated when there has been decreased fetal movement, advanced maternal age, gestational HTN, or post maturity

232
Q

What are the normal results of an NST?

A

Baseline 110-160 bpm

Accelerations
o 2 accelerations with an increase of ≥15 bpm, lasting at least 15 second
o Indicates fetal movement

Variability
o 6-25 bpm (moderate)
o Absent or minimal is ≤ 5 bpm for < 40 min

Decelerations
o None or occasional variable <30 seconds

233
Q

What is an ultrasound and what does it allow us to do?

A
  • High frequency sound waves deflect off tissues showing structures of various densities
  • Visualizes fetus
  • Allows fetal growth monitoring
  • No known side effects
  • Common methods
    o Transabdominal
    o Transvaginal
234
Q

What is a nuchal translucency test?

A
  • Part of enhanced first-trimester screening (eFTS)
  • Screen for trisomy’s 13, 18, and 21
  • Done between weeks 11-14
  • US scans the translucent area on the back of the fetal neck measuring the diameter of the area
235
Q

Describe an amniocentesis and what it can be used for

A

Generally, not offered unless
o Noninvasive screening test positive
o Maternal age at birth is ≥ 40 y/o

Procedure that obtains a sample of amniotic fluid

Genetic testing
o Amniotic fluid contains fetal cells that can be used to test for fetal abnormalities

Fetal lung maturity
o Can be determined in 3rd trimester

236
Q

What are the 4 stages

A

First stage – Dilation and Effacement

Second stage – Delivery of Fetus

Third stage – Delivery of Placenta

Fourth stage – Recovery

237
Q

How many cardinal movements of the fetus are there? What do these allow for? What are they?

A

7 movements

Allow for the baby to move through the birth canal

Movements are:
- Engagement
- Descent
- Flexion
- Internal rotation
- Extension
- Restitution/external rotation
- Expulsion

MEMORY TRICK: Every Day Fetuses Incur Eviction Requests Early

238
Q

Describe lightening

A
  • Also called “dropping”
  • Uterus drops into the true pelvis
  • Nulliparous parents
    o Noticeable change up to 4 weeks before end of term
    o More frequently 38-40 weeks
  • Multiparous parents
    o Tend to not drop until true labour is already in progress
  • Results
    o Parent can breathe easier
    o Pressure on bladder increases so urinary frequency occurs
239
Q

What might women later in pregnancy experience lower body aches?

A
  • Low back and sacroiliac distress
  • Caused by pelvic joint relaxation
    o Also called laxity
    o More movement in areas that usually don’t move
    o Occurs between the two parts of the symphysis pubis
  • May identify Braxton Hicks contractions
240
Q

What is SROM? What may the woman experience?

A

Spontaneous rupture of membranes
* Also called “water breaking”
* This is the rupture of the amniotic sac
* Only occurs about 8% of the time
* High break results in a trickle of fluid
* Low break results in a gush of fluid

241
Q

What is ripening?

A

Softening of the cervix that occurs before labour begins

242
Q

What are the phases of the first stage of labour? How do we know which phase they are in?

A

Early labour
o 0-3 cm dilated
o Lots of effacement

Active labour
o 4-10 cm dilated

243
Q

What can happen if SROM occurs but labour does not start? What is done in this case?

A

Increased risk of infection

Managed by
o Prophylactic antibiotics given
o If no labour after 18 hours, induction may occur

244
Q

What does the pressure of the baby’s head cause to the mother at the onset of labour?

A

Cervical, uterine, and pituitary gland changes

245
Q

What changes in maternal hormones occur at the onset of labour? What is the result of these changes?

A

Increased estrogen, oxytocin, and prostaglandins
* Prostaglandins are in semen so it will encourage cervical patients (sex also increases uterine contractions)

Decreasing progesterone
* Progesterone decreases myometrial irritability

Result in progressive uterine distension and increasing intrauterine pressure associated with increased myometrial irritability

Cause regular and rhythmic uterine contractions

246
Q

What can happen if the mother begins to push before reaching 10 cm dilated?

A

Risk of massive cervical tear

247
Q

About how fast does the mother dilate?

A

o Nulliparous are about 1 cm per hour
o Multiparous can happen much faster

248
Q

When performing an admission interview, what is some information you need to know?

A

o Time labour started
o Frequency of contraction
o Pain location and intensity
o Vaginal discharge (bloody show) we use COAT
o Have membranes ruptured? If so, when?

249
Q

When doing the physical assessment during admission of a pregnant woman, what do you need to assess?

A

Vaginal exam
- dilation
- SROM

Fetal assessment
- heart rate
- Leopold maneuver

250
Q

When should you notify the care provider that a pregnant woman is here for an admission?

A

Once we determine they are in active labour and we are keeping them

251
Q

What is some information about the birth plan we should ask about during admission?

A

o Identifies any risk factors we need to take into consideration
o Determine what the mother wants in terms of experience, pain management etc.

252
Q

How are uterine contractions assessed?

A

Done by palpation at the fundus

Frequency
o Time (minutes) from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next
o Generally the number of contractions in 10 min increments

Intensity
o Strength of a contraction at its peak
o Described as mild, moderate, strong

Duration
o Time (seconds) of one contraction from start to stop

Resting tone
o Tension of uterine muscles between contractions
 Mild – slightly tense fundus – feels like tip of nose
 Moderate – firm fundus – feels like chin
 Strong – rigid fundus – feels like forehead
o Should be mild to moderate
o If it is strong, it can impact fetal perfusion and lead to fetal hypoxia
 Baby usually grabs blood flow during the resting period
 It’s why tachysystole is so bad
o This can only be done by palpation

253
Q

How do we know the patient is 100% effaced?

A

Only a thin ridge of the cervix is felt

254
Q

How do we know a patient has reached 10 cm dilated?

A

Cannot be felt anymore

255
Q

What is the pneumonic for assessing the bloody show?

A

 C – colour
 O – odour
 A – amount
 T – time

256
Q

What colour should the fluid be after the amniotic sac ruptures?

257
Q

What colours of ROM would be considered an emergency?

A

Red or green/brown

258
Q

What does red in the fluid of ROM indicate?

A

A possible tear in the umbilical cord

259
Q

What does does green/brown in the fluid of ROM indicate? What does that mean for this patient?

A

meconium, or “mec”
o Green/brown staining, it looks like pea soup
o First stool from baby that has built up while in the womb
o Should not be expelled until after birth
o If it occurs during labour, it is an indication of fetal distress
o If they inhale it, it can result in pneumonia
o Respiratory will need to be called down to aggressively suction them before they take their first breath

260
Q

What is the procedure used to artificially rupture the membranes?

261
Q

When assessing a contraction, what does the peak tell us? What are the risks of the peak not being strong enough?

A

o Will show intensity of the contraction
o Mild, moderate, strong
o If it is not strong, there will not be enough push down on the presenting part to get the dilation and effacement that we need

262
Q

When assessing uterine contractions, what are we assessing resting tone for? What can it indicate if it is not an expected finding?

A

This can only be done by palpation

Tension of uterine muscles between contractions
 Mild – slightly tense fundus – feels like tip of nose
 Moderate – firm fundus – feels like chin
 Strong – rigid fundus – feels like forehead

Should be mild to moderate

If it is strong, it can impact fetal perfusion and lead to fetal hypoxia
 Baby usually grabs blood flow during the resting period
 It’s why tachysystole is so bad

263
Q

What is the average duration of the latent and active phases in the first stage of labour?

A

latent - 6-8 hours
active 3-6 hours

264
Q

Describe the differences in contractions between the latent and active phases in the first stage of labour.

A

Latent
Strength - mild to moderate
Rhythm - irregular
Frequency - 5-30 min apart
Duration - 30-45 seconds

Active
Strength - moderate to very strong
Rhythm - more regular
Frequency - 2-5 min apart
Duration - 40-90 seconds

265
Q

Describe the differences in the station of the presenting part between the latent and active phases in the first stage of labour. Does it change for nulliparous and multiparous patients?

A

Latent
Nulliparous: 0
Multiparous: -2cm to 0

Active
Nulliparous: +1 to +3 cm
Multiparous: +1 to +3 cm

266
Q

What are the differences in the colour and amount of the show during the latent and active phases in the first stage of labour?

A

Latent
Brownish discharge, mucous plug, or pale pink mucous
Scant amount

Active
Pink-to-bloody mucus
Scant to copious amounts

267
Q

Describe the behaviour and appearance of the mother between the latent and active phases of the first stage of labour

A

Latent
* Excited
* Thoughts center on self, labour and baby
* May be talkative or silent, calm or tense
* Some apprehension
* Alert, follows directions readily, open to instructions

Active
* Becomes more serious, apprehensive
* More doubtful of pain control
* Desires companionship and encouragement
* Attention more inner directed
* Fatigue evidenced
* Malar (cheeks) flush
* Some difficulty following directions
* Amnesia between contractions
* Writhing with contractions
* Nausea and vomiting, especially if hyperventilating
* Hyperesthesia
* Perspiration on forehead and upper lip
* Shaking tremor of thighs
* Feeling of need to defecate, pressure on anus

268
Q

What should the nurse be aware of in terms of voiding for the labouring patient?

A

Urine
 Encourage voiding
 Avoid distended bladder as it can result in bladder rupture

Stool
* Over 70% of moms will have a bowel movement during labour
o Labour is a clean process, not a sterile process
o Just clean it up quickly and perform perineal care
* Suppositories and enemas NOT RECOMMENDED
Prophylactic enemas can result in contractions that are too strong

269
Q

Describe some of the nursing actions in regards to ambulation of the labouring patient

A

o Encourage and support movement and changing positions
 Walking
 Swaying hips
 Shower or bath
 Sitting on exercise balls

Obviously unless an epidural was given as they will be confined to the bed after

270
Q

Why are upright positions better for the labouring patient? What do these include? What is the best upright position?

A

Benefits
o Gravity helps
o Stronger but more efficient contractions helping with dilation and effacement
o Improved cardiac output

Includes walking, sitting, kneeling, squatting

A very deep squat is actually the best position for labour
 The bottom of the bed actually comes away and there is a bar that can be hooked in that mom can hang off to sit in this position

271
Q

What is the all 4s position? Why is it used for labouring patients?

A

o On hands and knees
o Used to relieve back pain
o Can also increase blood flow to baby in the case of decelerations

272
Q

What nursing considerations are necessary with the use of epidurals in the labouring patients?

A

o Very effective for pain
o Unfortunately patients are bed bound after this
o Try to encourage movement even in the bed and don’t lay on the back
o High correlation for c-section in nulliparous patient

273
Q

What is the fetal station?

A

 Describes the degree of descent of the presenting part through the birth canal
 The line between the ischial spines is considered 0
 1 cm above the spines is -1, 1 cm below the spines is +1

274
Q

Describe engagement. What fetal station is this? When does this occur?

A

o Indicates the largest transverse diameter of the presenting part has passed through the pelvic brim inlet into the true pelvis
o Usually corresponds with station 0
o Nulliparas – occurs in the weeks prior to labour
o Multiparas – may occur before or during labour

275
Q

What fetal position is it “too late to push the baby back up”? What happens after this point is reached?

A

Engagement, or fetal station 0

We will go forward with a normal vaginal birth after this

276
Q

What fetal station is indicated by the head being present but it sucks back into the maternal body between contractions?

277
Q

What fetal station is the baby at the perineum and no longer being sucked back into the mother between contractions?

278
Q

At what fetal stations is birth considered imminent?

278
Q

What are the 5 Ps? (factors affecting labour)

A

Passenger (fetus/placenta)
Passageway (birth canal)
Powers of contraction
Position (of labouring mother)
Physiological adaptations

279
Q

Other than the 5Ps, what other factors can influence labour?

A
  • Place of birth
  • Preparation
  • Presence of continuous labour support
  • Type of provider
  • Nursing care
  • Procedure
280
Q

What are some passenger (fetus) factors that can affect labour?

A
  • Size of the head
  • Presentation – the presenting part
  • Lie – direction of baby
  • Attitude – angle of the face in the pelvis
  • Position
281
Q

What are some passageway (birth canal) factors that can affect labour?

A

Bony pelvis
o True pelvis
 Portion that is involved in childbirth
 If we know the baby is too big for the pelvis, a recommendation may be given for an elective c-section

Soft tissues
o Includes
 Lower uterine segment
 Pelvic floor muscles
 Vagina
 Introitus

o Labour changes uterus
 Bottom becomes thin and muscular
 Top is thick and muscular

o Contractions push fetus against the cervix

o Considerations for scar tissue etc.

282
Q

What are the two types of Powers of Contraction?

A

Involuntary or primary powers
o Responsible for effacement and dilation

Voluntary or secondary powers
o Begin after cervix has dilated
o Typically mom is at +1 or +2 fetal station
o We coordinate it with contractions
o Bearing down

283
Q

What is Ferguson’s reflex?

A

o Urge to push or feeling need to have a bowel movement
o If mom doesn’t have this (i.e. epidural), sometimes doc will touch with a finger to show mom where to focus the pressure to

284
Q

Describe the fetal heart rate adaptations during labour

A

Should be monitored

110-160 bpm
o Progressively decreases as the fetus matures closer to term

Temporary accelerations and slight decelerations are expected in response to
o Fetal movement
o Vaginal examination
o Fundal pressure
o Uterine contractions
o Abdominal palpation
o Fetal head compression

285
Q

What is the fetal circulation affected by during labour

A

o Maternal position
o Contractions
o BP
o Umbilical cord flow

286
Q

Describe fetal respiration adaptations that occur during labour?

A

Chemoreceptors stimulated in aorta and carotid artery to prepare fetus for initiating respirations resulting in
* Clearing of fetal lung fluid
* Decrease in
o Fetal oxygen pressure
o Arterial pH
o Bicarbonate levels
* Increase in arterial carbon dioxide pressure

Fetal respiratory movements decrease during labour

287
Q

Describe the maternal adaptations to the cardiovascular system during labour

A

Heart rate increases
o Returns to pre-labour baseline within 1 hour after birth

Cardiac output increases
o Can be up to 51% above pre-labour baseline
o Peaks 10-30 minutes after birth
o Returns to pre-labour baseline within an hour

Changes in BP can be observed

Discourage woman from holder her breath during second stage

288
Q

Describe the maternal adaptations to the respiratory system during labour

A

Greater oxygen consumption increases respiratory rate
o Consumption doubles in second stage

Hyperventilation can cause
o Alkalosis
o Hypoxia
o Hypocapnia

Anxiety can increase oxygen intake

289
Q

Describe the maternal adaptations to the renal system during labour

A

Spontaneous voiding difficulty due to
o Edema caused by pressure from presenting part
o Discomfort
o Analgesia
o Embarrassment

Proteinuria up to +1 is normal due to muscle tissue breakdown caused by physical work of labour

290
Q

Describe the maternal adaptations to the integumentary system during labour

A
  • Stretching of tissues in area of vaginal introitus (entrance to vagina)
  • Regardless, minute tears in skin around vagina introitus occur
  • Temperature may rise but should resolve quickly after birth
291
Q

Describe the maternal adaptations to the musculoskeletal system during labour

A
  • Fatigue due to increased muscle activity
  • Pelvic joint relaxation causes back pain
  • Cramps
    o Leg cramps may be caused by patients pointing toes during contractions
292
Q

Describe the maternal adaptations to the neurological system during labour

A

Endorphins raise pain threshold and produce sedation
o Physiological anesthesia of perineal tissues caused by presenting part pressure decreases perception of pain

Changes in behaviour
o May start euphoric and become more serious later
o Amnesia between contractions during second state
o Elation and fatigue after giving birth

293
Q

Describe the maternal adaptations to the GI system during labour

A
  • Motility and absorption is deceased
  • Nausea and vomiting of any undigested food consumed prior to labour onset
  • Nausea and belching may occur as a response to full cervical dilation
  • Diarrhea may occur at onset of labour
  • Hard impacted stool may be in rectum that will often pass during pushing
294
Q

Describe the maternal adaptations to the endocrine system during labour

A

Hormone changes during labour
o Increased estrogen, prostaglandins and oxytocin
o Decreased progesterone

Metabolism increases

Blood sugar may decrease
o Carefully monitor diabetic patients

295
Q

Describe Group B Streptococcus (GBS) effects on pregnancy and neonates. How should this be managed?

A

Associated with poor pregnancy outcomes

Present in 10-30% of healthy pregnancies

Risk factors for neonatal infection
o Mother testing positive for GBS
o Prolonged rupture of membranes > 18 hours
o Interpartum maternal fever

To help reduce risk, IV antibiotics should be given after admission

296
Q

When and how should fetal monitoring be performed

A

o Should be done intermittently for healthy term women
o Measured along with uterine activity (for context)
o Assessed 15-30 minutes
o Assess before and after ROM, and medical interventions

297
Q

When is electronic fetal monitoring performed?

A

o Recommended when there is a high risk for adverse outcomes
o False belief that EFM can prevent negative outcomes
o Meant to assess fetal oxygenation continuously

298
Q

What is internal fetal monitoring?

A

Device placed internally in the uterus, membranes must already be ruptured

Not interrupted by fetal movement

299
Q

What is fetal tachycardia? What is it an early sign of? What conditions may cause it?

A

FHR > 160

Early sign of hypoxia

Can occur with
o Maternal fever (most common)
o Maternal or fetal infection
o Maternal hyperthyroidism
o Fetal anemia
o Medications

300
Q

What is fetal bradycardia? What is it an early sign of? What conditions may cause it?

A

FHR < 110 bpm

Confirm the maternal heart rate is different

Bradycardia is not the same as prolonged decelerations

Can be caused by
o Fetal cardiac problems
o Infection
o Maternal hypoglycemia
o Maternal hypothermia

301
Q

Describe fetal heartrate variability. What are the different levels?

A

Fluctuations in the baseline FHR that are determined in a 10 min segment

Does NOT include accelerations and decelerations

May be
o Absent: 0-2 bpm
o Minimal: ≤ 5 bpm
o Moderate: 6-25 bpm (this is considered normal)
o Marked: > 25 bpm

302
Q

Describe accelerations

A

o Apparent and abrupt increase in FHR above the baseline
o At least 15 bpm
o Lasts 15 sec or more
o Could be in association with fetal movement
o Considered an indication of fetal health

303
Q

Describe early decelerations

A

 Considered normal
 Caused by transient fetal head compression
 Onset to lowest point is ≥30 sec
 Mirrors moms contractions
 Take the top of moms contractions and it is the same place as the babies deceleration
 This is good because this means that baby is coming down the birth canal

304
Q

How are decelerations described in order to determine if they are abnormal or benign?

A

In relation to the timing of the contraction

305
Q

Describe late decelerations

A

 Associated with contractions and begins after contractions start
 Onset to lowest point is ≥ 30 sec and well after the peak of contraction
 Have a long slow U shape to them
 Persistent and repetitive decelerations are a concern when they are uncorrectable
 Caused by uteroplacental insufficiency

306
Q

Describe variable decelerations

A

 Most common type
 Onset to lowest point is < 30 sec so abrupt, leaving a distinct V shape rather than the U shape of late decelerations
 FHR decreases at least 15 sec but less than 2 min
 Occur during or between contractions
 Cause by umbilical cord compression
 Could cause fetal hypoxia

307
Q

Describe prolonged decelerations

A

At least 15 bpm below baseline and lasting >2 min but <10 min

When decelerations last > 10 min it is considered a baseline change

Causes include
* Prolonged fetal hypoxia
* Prolonged or extreme uteroplacental insufficiency
* Prolonged cord compression, prolapse, or entanglement
* Maternal hypotension
* Cervical exam
* Uterine tachysystole or rupture

308
Q

When is artificial membrane rupture contraindicated?

A

Placenta previa
Breech position

309
Q

What is considered failure to progress through the first stage of labour? Is it different for nulliparous patients than for multiparous patients?

A

Nulliparous
 Latent >20 hours
 Active <1.2 cm/h cervical dilation

Multiparous
 Latent >14 hours
 Active < 1.5 cm/h cervical dilation

310
Q

About how quickly do most women dilate during the active phase of the first stage of labour?

A

About 1 cm per hour

311
Q

When the amniotic fluid is examined, there may be white flecks in it, what is this?

A

Vernix caseosa
 Is the waxy substance baby’s are covered in
 Babies shed this as they come close to term
 Premie babies are covered in it
 Overdue babies are wrinkly because they don’t have it any more to protect them

312
Q

What is a normal amount of PPH?

A

<500 mL blood loss

313
Q

What are the symptoms of impending birth?

A

Urge to push/defecate
Crowning

314
Q

What are the 3 R’s of childbirth?

A

3 characteristics pregnant women use to cope well

Relaxation
o Relaxing between contractions
o Later they may have a hard time so even just move or vocalize

Rhythm
o Use of rhythm

Ritual
o Repeated use of personally meaningful rhythmic activities with every contraction

315
Q

When looking at a FHR tracing, who is represented by the two lines?

A

Baby is the top, mom is on the bottom

316
Q

What is memory trick for remembering the names and causes of types of changes in the FHR?

A

VEAL CHOP

  • Variable———–Cord compression
  • Early —————Head compression
  • Accelerations—-Ok
  • Late —————-Placental insufficiency
317
Q

Describe the pain experienced during the first stage of labour. What is it caused by? Where can it radiate to?

A

Predominantly visceral pain over lower portion of the abdomen

Caused by
o Dilation of the cervix
o Pressure on adjacent structures
o Hypoxia of uterine muscles during contractions
o Stretching of lower uterine segment

Referred pain from the uterus may radiate to
o Abdominal wall
o Lumbosacral area of the back
o Iliac crests
o Gluteal area
o Thighs

318
Q

What are some of the physiological factors that affect pain perception during labour?

A
  • Scarred cervix
  • Fatigue
  • Interval and duration of contractions
  • Fetal size and position
  • Rapidity of fetal descent
  • Maternal position
319
Q

What are some of the sensory factors that affect pain perception during labour?

A

Nulliparous patients
o Greater pain during early latent labour (dilation <4 cm)
 Due to reproductive tract structures are less supple

Multiparous patients
o Greater pain during active labour
 May be due to increased speed of fetal descent

320
Q

What are some of the affective factors that affect pain perception during labour?

A

Excessive FEAR and anxiety associated with increased pain in labour

Causes catecholamine secretion increasing stimuli to brain from pelvis

The result is
 Increased muscle tension
 Decreased effectiveness of uterine contractions
 Increase in experience of discomfort
 Further increases fear and anxiety making a positive feedback loop
 Slowed labour progression (Catecholamine inhibits oxytocin secretion)

320
Q

What are some of the factors that can affect a labouring mothers perception of pain during labour?

A
  • physiological
  • sensory
  • affective (FEAR!)
  • cognitive (education)
  • behavioural
  • sociocultural factors
  • supportive care
321
Q

Describe supportive care for a labouring mother. Who may be this support person? What benefits does an effective support person provide to the labouring mother?

A

It is recommended that all women in active labour have continuous 1-1 labour support

May be a trained person (doula) or a friend or family member of the woman’s choice (even if they have no childbirth experience)

Includes continuous presence, emotional support, comfort measures, advocacy, information, and advice

Benefits
o Increased likelihood of vaginal delivery
o Decreased risk of c-section
o Reduced use of epidural analgesia
o Increased Apgar score
o Increased maternal satisfaction

322
Q

Describe maternal physiologic responses to the pain experienced in labour

A

Cardiac output
o Increases with pain from contractions and anxiety

Blood pressure
o Increases during contractions and may increase with pain

Respiratory system
o Oxygen demand and consumption increases
o Respiration and pulse increase with pain

Musculoskeletal system
o Decreased oxygen supply to muscles increases pain

Immune system
o Increase in WBC

Blood values
o Maternal BGL decreases

323
Q

Is the labouring mother allowed to eat during labour?

A
  • Patients should not eat solid foots once in established labour due to decreased gastric emptying
  • Clear liquids are emptied much faster
  • Low risk patients
    o Evidence says allowing them to eat during labour may shorten length of labour and does not increase obstetrical risk
324
Q

What nonpharmacologic comfort measures can be used in early labour to help with the pain?

A

Maternal ambulation and position change
o Upright and gravity enhancing positions
o Rhythmic motion
o Change position frequently

Distraction may employ gate-control theory of pain so try
o Cutaneous stimulation strategies
o Sensory stimulation strategies
o Cognitive strategies

325
Q

What are some examples of cutaneous stimulation strategies that can be used to help provide comfort during early labour?

A

 Counterpressure
 Effleurage (light massage)
 Therapeutic touch and massage
 Walking
 Rocking
 Changing positions
 Application of heat or cold
 TENS machine
 Acupressure/acupuncture
 Hydrotherapy (showers, bath)
 Intradermal water block

326
Q

What are some examples of sensory stimulation strategies that can be used to help provide comfort during early labour?

A

 Aromatherapy
 Breathing techniques
 Music
 Imagery
 Use of focal points

327
Q

What are some examples of cognitive strategies that can be used to help provide comfort during early labour?

A

 Childbirth education
 Relaxation
 Hypnosis
 Biofeedback

328
Q

Describe opioid use during labour. Include examples and side effects

A
  • Cross the placenta
  • Rapid onset with short duration
  • Administer only once labour is well established

Includes
o Fentanyl
o Sufentanil
o Morphine

Side effects include
o Decreased uterine contractions
o Nasua and vomiting
o Respiratory depression
o Maternal and neonatal CNS depression

329
Q

Describe nitrous oxide use during labour including benefits and side effects

A
  • Self-administered via a demand valve
  • Can be used in combination with other forms of pain relief
  • Results in a sense of euphoria and decreased anxiety
  • Begin inhaling 30 seconds prior to contractions to achieve peak with contraction peak

Benefits
o Safe for baby and does not accumulate in fetal tissues
o Does not affect uterine activity
o Rapid onset, fast clearance

Side effects
o Nausea and vomiting

330
Q

Describe an epidural block

A
  • Anesthetic or opioid injected into the epidural space
    o Drug type, amount and combination result in varying degrees of motor impairment
    o A combination of both is often used to achieve desired pain relief but retaining the largest degree of motor function
    o Goal is to provide sufficient anaesthesia with as little blockage to the sensory and motor nerves as possible
331
Q

What are the benefits of using an epidural block

A

o Considered to be the most effective and flexible method of pain management for labour
o Promotes good relaxation
o Mother remains fully awake, and airway reflexes remain intact
o Mom is more comfortable and remains able to participate in the birth
o Does not delay gastric emptying
o Motor paralysis is mild

332
Q

What is dystocia? How can an epidural help?

A

o Delayed or arrested progress in labour, irrespective of causes
o Epidural can provide benefits for this if they require augmentation

Although epidurals can prolong labour if administered before the labour is will established

333
Q

Describe the side effects of using a epidural during labour? Include maternal and fetal side effects.

A

o May prolong labour if administered before labour is well established
o May interfere with mobility (walking during first stage)

Maternal
* Hypotension
o Can result in decreased uteroplacental perfusion and reduced oxygen delivery to the fetus
* Nausea, vomiting
* Fever
* Pruritis
o Common with opioids
* Intravascular injection
* Respiratory depression
* Post partum urinary retention and stress incontinence
o May be related to the epidural or catheterization done in labour
o May be related to use of forceps or vacuums used during labour

Fetus
 Fetal distress secondary to maternal hypotension

334
Q

What negative complications to labour can epidurals increase the incidence of?

A

 Longer second-stage labour
 Fetal malposition
 Use of oxytocin
 Forceps or vacuum assisted birth

335
Q

What types of pain management medication can be used during the first stage of labour?

A
  • Systemic analgesia
    o Opioid agonist analgesics
    o Opioid agonist-antagonist analgesics
  • Epidural (block) analgesia
  • Combined spinal-epidural (CSE) analgesia
  • Nitrous oxide
336
Q

What types of pain management medication can be used during the second stage of labour?

A
  • Nerve block analgesia/anesthesia
  • Local infiltration anesthesia
  • Pudendal block
  • Epidural (block) analgesia and anesthesia
  • Spinal (block) anesthesia
  • Nitrous oxide
337
Q

What types of pain management medication can be used during C-sections?

A
  • Spinal (block) anesthesia
  • Epidural (block) anesthesia
  • General anesthesia
338
Q

What are the nurse’s role when using epidural anesthesia?

A
  • Monitor the status of the patient receiving regional anaesthesia, the fetus, and the progression of labour
  • Replace empty infusion syringes or bags with the same medication and concentration
  • Stope the infusion if there is a safety concern or the patient has given birth
  • Remove the catheter if properly educated to do so
  • Initiate emergency measures if the need arises
  • Communicate clinical assessments and changes in patient status to obstetrical and anaesthesia care providers
  • Alter rate of medication infusion and administer bolus doses as ordered
339
Q

What are the 2 phases of the second stage of labour?

A

Passive phase
o Baby making the cardinal movements to get into place
o It’s a holding pattern for mom
o Don’t have mom push until she has an urge to push
 Tricky with an epidural as this sensation may not exist

Active pushing (descent) phase

340
Q

When does the second stage of labour begin and end?

A
  • Begins with full cervical dilation and complete effacement and ends with baby’s birth
341
Q

How long does the second stage of labour last? What are factors that can affect the length of this stage?

A

Can range from 2 hours to 30 minutes

Factors that affect length include
* Epidural anaesthesia (reduces urge to bear down and limits ability to get into an upright position to push)
* Patients age
* BMI
* Emotional state (FEAR is the biggest issue!)
* Adequacy of support (Someone who is experienced and supportive is really helpful here)
* Level of fatigue
* Fetus: cephalopelvic disproportion due to head size, position, and presentation

342
Q

What is a precipitous delivery?

A

o Very fast <3 hours from onset of regular contractions
o If they have a history of it they are likely to have that happen again

343
Q

What is slow progression of the second stage of labour? Does this change with nulliparous vs multiparous? How does regional anesthesia affect it?

A

Nulliparous
o ≥3 hours with no regional anaesthesia
o ≥4 hours with regional anaesthesia

Multiparous
o ≥2 hours with no regional anaesthesia
o ≥3 hours with regional anaesthesia

344
Q

If a stat C-section is required, what pain relief is used and what effect does this have on the ability for the partner to be in the delivery suite?

A

If epidural is in place
o More drugs given through it for pain relief for the c-section
o Partner is allowed to be in the room

If no epidural is in place
o General anesthesia is provided
o Anesthesiologist has to control the airway so the partner has no room to be there

345
Q

What are signs of the onset of the second stage of labour?

A

Ferguson’s reflex
o Urge to push or feeling need to have a bowel movement
o If mom doesn’t have this, sometimes doc will touch with a finger to show mom where to focus the pressure to

Shaking of extremities

Sudden appearance of sweat on the upper lip

Episode of vomiting
o We discourage heavy eating because it will come back up
o Fight or flight, don’t got enough time for it

Increased bloody show

Increased restlessness, may verbalize they can’t continue etc.

Involuntary bearing-down efforts

346
Q

Describe crowning. What station does this occur in and what does this mean for mother?

A
  • Occurs when the top of the head no longer regresses between contractions
  • The widest part of the head distends the vulva just before birth

+4 station they will still be sliding back and forth
o We don’t want to have mom push at +4 too much as it can cause significant tearing
o It is very painful
o We can have mom pant, because she can’t pant and push at the same time

+5 station they are staying there between contractions
o Ready to push when mom is

347
Q

During the second stage of labour, how often are we assessing mom, baby, and labour progression? What are we looking for with each assessment?

A

Mom every 5-30 min
o BP, pulse, respirations

Fetus every 5 min
o Heart rate and pattern

Labour progression every 10-15 min
o Vaginal show
o Signs of fetal descent
o Changes in maternal appearance, mood, affect, energy level
o Condition of support person
o Contraction and bearing down effort

348
Q

What are the nursing actions during the passive phase of the second stage of labour?

A
  • Help patient to rest in a position of comfort
  • Encourage relaxation to conserve energy
  • Promote progress of fetal descent and onset of urge to bear down by encouraging position changes, pelvic rock, ambulation, and showering
349
Q

What are the nursing actions in the active (descent) phase of the second stage of labour?

A
  • Help patient change position and encourage spontaneous bearing-down efforts
  • Help patient to relax and conserve energy between contractions
  • Provide comfort and pain-relief measures as needed
  • Cleanse perineum promptly if fecal material is expelled
  • Coach patient to pant during contractions and to gently push between contractions when the head is emerging
  • Provide emotional support, encouragement, and positive reinforcement of efforts
  • Keep patient informed regarding progress
  • Create a calm and quiet environment
  • Offer mirror to watch birth or encourage patient to feel top of fetal head as they are pushing
350
Q

What is perineal trauma?

A
  • Vaginal and urethral lacerations
  • Cervical injuries
351
Q

How does fear/anxiety affect the second stage of labour?

A

Fear is one of the biggest barrier to natural childbirth

Fear and anxiety can increase risk of perineal trauma

352
Q

What are risk factors for perineal trauma during the second stage of labour?

A
  • Baby’s face is up
  • Baby’s shoulder is stuck
  • Breech delivery that gets a little hung up
  • Very large baby
  • Using forceps or assistive use devices
  • History of cephalopelvic disproportion
  • Parity
    o Nulliparous are likely to have a longer second stage increasing swelling in the perineal area increasing risk of tear
    o Multiparous are more likely to have a precipitous delivery which doesn’t allow time for the introitus to stretch on it’s own
  • Maternal position
    o Upright allows for gradual stretching from downward pressure
    o Supine or side lying for the majority of second stage doesn’t allow for this
  • Emotional response
    o Fear and anxiety can increase risk
  • Previous tears
    o 3rd and 4th degree tears previous can tear down the same line (c-section may be offered in these more severe cases)
353
Q

What are some risk reduction techniques for perineal trauma or the need for an episiotomy?

A
  • Perineal massage with lubricant
    o Can be done after 34 weeks
    o Pushing down on the bottom of the vaginal opening
  • Warm compress
  • Kegel exercises
  • Knowing the risk factors
  • Mother in upright position in second stage
354
Q

Describe the different levels of perineal lacerations

A

First degree
o Extends through the skin

Second degree
o Extends through the muscles of the perineal body

Third degree
o Continues through the anal sphincter muscle
o Can happen with the use of forceps or pushing at only +4
o Repairs are significant with multiple layers involved
o If not repaired correctly, they may end up with fistulas which can result in massive side effects including sepsis
o May require a pudenda block

Fourth degree
o Involves the anterior rectal wall
o Can happen with the use of forceps or pushing at only +4
o Repairs are significant with multiple layers involved
o If not repaired correctly, they may end up with fistulas which can result in massive side effects including sepsis
o May require a pudenda block

355
Q

What types of perineal lacerations require significant repair with multiple layers of tissue involved?

A

3rd and 4th degree

356
Q

Why are third and fourth degree considered so significant?

A

Third decree includes the anal sphincter and fourth involves the anterior rectal wall
o Can happen with the use of forceps or pushing at only +4
o Repairs are significant with multiple layers involved
o If not repaired correctly, they may end up with fistulas which can result in massive side effects including sepsis
o May require a pudenda block

357
Q

What is the pudendal nerve? Why might a tear require a block to this nerve?

A

Pudendal nerve provides most of the movement and sensations for the pelvic region including the external genitals and anus. 3rd and 4th degree tears may need a pudenda block for pain relief and tear repair unless a spinal block/epidural block are already in place

358
Q

Where is the perineal trauma clinic? Who is referred here and what treatments are done?

A

At the Alex
* 3rd and 4th degree tears automatically referred
* They do Kegel exercises to increase muscle strength to the area as part of physio

359
Q

What is an episiotomy?

A

Surgical incision of the perineum to enlarge the outlet
o Conversation about cut vs tear
o Routine are no longer recommended

Procedure
o We go medio-lateral now rather than midline
 This way if there is tearing beyond the cut, it doesn’t involve the anal area

360
Q

What are complications of an episiotomy/perineal trauma?

A

o Bleeding
o Infection
o Painful intercourse
o Injury to anal sphincter and rectum
o Scarring
o Urinary incontinence
o Prolonged recovery time

361
Q

What are the sources of pain during the second stage of labour?

A

Perineal pain is the primary cause of pain
o Distension of vagina and perineum

Stretch receptors
o Located on the pelvic floor
o Stimulates release of oxytocin from the posterior pituitary gland resulting in more intense contractions
o This is where Ferguson’s reflex comes from

Pressure on adjacent structures

Hypoxia of contracting uterine muscles

362
Q

When in the second stage of labour, the nurse performs ongoing assessment of the labour and labour progress. What would the nurse be looking for?

A

Labour
o Contractions
o Fetal response (FHR q5min when pushing)
o Amniotic fluid

Labour progress
* Assessing progress of labour q 10-15 min
o Vaginal show
o Signs of fetal descent
o Bulging
o Crowning

363
Q

Coping during the second stage of labour is important, what would the nurse continual assess for in regards to coping?

A

Maternal coping
o Mood
o Affect
o Energy level
o Pain management

Partner’s coping

364
Q

What would some considerations be for the nurse providing assistance with positioning during the second stage of labour?

A

o Squatting works best to bring baby down and stretch the perineal area
o On all 4s is best to help get baby shift position
o Supine position is the worst position
 Prolongs second stage
 Increases need for assistive devices
 May be the only position in a epidural

365
Q

When the mother is actively pushing, how may the nurse help her patient?

A

Encourage to push as she feels like pushing
o Instinctive spontaneous pushing

Encourage open glottis bearing down
o Preferred method
o Maternal grunting or groaning when pushing
o Allows air to be released while pushing
o Helps maintain adequate oxygen levels for mom and baby
o About 5 pushes of about 5 seconds long per contraction

366
Q

Why do we avoid giving the mother a command for a prolonged push during a contraction? (Like the good old hold for 10 second count we used to see on TV). What are adverse effects of this type of pushing?

A

o These are the old hold the breath and push for 10 seconds
o Directed, closed glottis pushing
o While still widely used, it can trigger Valsalva manoeuvre due to the increase in thoracic pressure

Adverse effects
 Fetal hypoxia and subsequent acidosis
 Increased risk of pelvic floor damage
 Increased risk of perineal trauma

366
Q

When does the 3rd stage of labour begin and end? How long is it?

A
  • Lasts from birth of the baby until the placenta is expelled
  • Generally occurs within 15 minutes of the birth of the baby
367
Q

What occurs when the third stage of labour has not been completed within 30 minutes after the birth of the fetus? What interventions may be instituted?

A

Retained placenta

Interventions to hasten its separation and expulsing are usually instituted at this point and they include:
* Gentle cord traction
* Manual removal
o Someone reaches in and gently pulling the placenta off the uterine wall
o Is only done if they have an epidural
* Surgical
o D&C to remove the placenta

368
Q

What are signs that the placenta is about to be expelled?

A
  • Firmly contracting fundus
  • Change in the uterus from a discoid to a globular oval shape as the placenta moves into the lower uterine segment
  • Sudden gush of dark blood from the introitus
    o Normal and not a concern as long as it’s associated with the placenta releasing
  • Apparent lengthening of the umbilical cord as the placenta descends to the introitus
  • Vaginal fullness (the placenta) noted on vaginal examination or of fetal membranes at the introitus
369
Q

What type of management of the 3rd stage of labour is generally done with home births and midwifes? What does this generally involve?

A

Passive management
o Wait for signs the placenta has separated spontaneously
o Monitors for spontaneous expulsion
o May involve gravity or nipple stimulation to facilitate expulsion
o Quiet, relaxed environment supports skin-to-skin contact
o Promotes endogenous oxytocin release
o No oxytocin is given

370
Q

How long after the birth of the fetus is the cord clamped? If the birthing mom wants to do delayed cord-clamping, how long do we wait?

A

within 30 seconds

Delayed is 1-3 minutes

370
Q

Describe the management recommended by the WHO for separation and expulsion of the placenta.

A

Active management
o Decreases rates of PPH due to uterine atony
o Oxytocin is given after birth anterior shoulder
o Clamp and cut cord within 3 minutes of birth
o Gently controlling cord traction following uterine contraction and separation of the placenta

371
Q

What are some nursing interventions that can be done during the 3rd stage of labour?

A
  • Assist patient to bear down to facilitate expulsion
  • Administer oxytocin as ordered to ensure adequate contraction of the uterus to prevent hemorrhage
  • Provide nonpharmacological and pharmacological comfort and pain-relief measures
  • Perform hygienic cleansing measures
  • Keep patient informed of progress of placental separation and expulsion and perineal repair, if appropriate
  • Explain the purpose of medications administered
  • Introduce parents to their baby and facilitate the attachment process by delaying eye prophylaxis and other tasks like weighing and measuring the baby
  • Cover parent and baby together for skin-to-skin contact
  • Provide private time for parents to bond with their new baby
  • Encourage breastfeeding when newborn shows signs of interest
372
Q

How do we prevent post partum hemorrhage?

A

Active management of third stage of labour
o Reduces risk of PPH and should be offered and recommended to all women

IM Oxytocin
o 10 IU
o IM is best for low-risk deliveries
o Should be administered after delivery of fetuses anterior shoulder

IV Oxytocin
o Used if IM is not indicated
o 20-40 IU in 1000 mL infusion at 150 mL per hour

If the uterus is boggy, perform fundal massage

If hemorrhage continues, it is likely due to retained products

373
Q

When does blood collection occur? What can it be used for?

A

Occurs before placenta separates from maternal uterus

Used for
o ABG and VBG
o Blood type, especially if mother is Rh negative

374
Q

Once the placenta is delivered, it has two different sides. What are they, and why would they be how the placenta presents as it is expelled from the uterus?

A

“Shiny side”
o Fetal side presents
o Grey and shiny in appearance
o Occurs when placenta separates form the inside to the outside margins

“Dirty side”
o Maternal side presents
o Surface is rough and red
o Occurs when placenta separates from the outside margins inward
 It basically rolls up and presents sideways, maternal side first

375
Q

When is the fourth stage of labour? What are our priorities at this time?

A
  • 1-2 hours after birth (sometimes 4 hours depending on source)
  • Immediate care of mother and newborn

Monitor mother for
o Hemorrhage
o Bladder distension
o Venous thrombosis

376
Q

How often are vitals completed during the first hour of the fourth stage of labour? What is expected?

A

Every 15 min

o BP returns to pre-labour values
o Pulse will be lower than during labour

377
Q

How often do we take temperature after the birth of the baby? What are expected changes?

A

Every 4 hours

o May increase minimally in first 24 hours
 Due to increased work of effort during prolonged labour
 Exacerbated by dehydration
o As long as it goes back to normal after 24 hours it is considered normal

378
Q

How do we assess the uterus during the 4th stage of labour? What are we assessing for?

A

Assess for tone (firmness) by palpating the fundus
o Bogy - Uterus is soft (uterine atony)
 Massage to express retained clots

Height measured in cm from the umbilicus
 Above the umbilicus is a positive value, below is negative
 Decreases 1 cm per day, about 7-10 days is back in the pelvis

Should be midline
 If it is up and right it means bladder is distended
* This prevents proper uterus contractions to bring it back to a small size and the uterus will continue to bleed

379
Q

What is the term for post partum bleeding?

380
Q

When assessing for the lochia, what are we looking for?

A
  • Measure % of pooling of blood under the buttocks
  • Inspect bloody vaginal discharge
  • Monitor for clots (size and consistency)
  • Chart amount (scant, minimal, moderate, heavy)
  • Chart colour (red, pink, white)
381
Q

What assessing lochia for clots, what is considered normal? What indicates retained product?

A

Normal
 < 1 cm
 Gelatinous feel

Retained product signs
 > 1 cm
 Fleshy feel

382
Q

When looking at amount of lochia after the birth of the baby, how are we assessing it and how would we charge it?

A

o Turn mom onto her side to ensure that we are seeing any blood that is pooling at her bottom and missing the pad
o Normal < 500mL

Scant - <2.5 cm stain
Light - 2.5-10 cm stain (may see this with c-sections)
Moderate - 10-15 cm stain (normal for first 1-2 hours)
Heavy - full pad saturated in 1 hour (should not happen)

While many start as moderate for the first few hours, they should continue to decrease in amount after that

383
Q

What teaching should the new mother be given in regards to the amount of lochia she has after discharge?

A

o When mom is discharged, we have her monitor the bleeding for the next 3-4 weeks and it should be decreasing over time
 If there is a saturation of a pad <1 hour they need to come in right away

384
Q

Describe lochia rubra

A

 Dark red discharge
 From birth to 3-4 days post-partum
 Flow in amounts like a heavy menstrual period
 May have small clots
 Odour should be fleshy, like menstrual blood

385
Q

Describe lochia serosa

A

 Pinkish-brownish discharge
 From 4 days to 12-14 days post-partum
 Flow is moderate to small amount

386
Q

Describe lochia alba

A

 Yellowish white discharge
 From 12 days to 3 weeks postpartum
 Gradually disappearing scant creamy whitish discharge

387
Q

If the postpartum mom overexerts herself or experiences significant stress, what can happen to the lochia she observes?

A

May increase amount or change the colour i.e. serosa back to rubra

388
Q

When providing perineal care during the 4th stage of labour, what steps should be taken and what should be assessed for?

A

Steps:
* Wash with warm water, dry well, and apply sanitary pad
* Provide ice pack against perineum to promote comfort and decrease swelling
* When assessing the perineum, have the woman lie on her side

Laceration/episiotomy repair evaluation: GRACED with a new baby
G - Goose egg - Hematoma
 Causes lots of discomfort
 Suspect it even if you can’t see it
 Usually caused by a vessel that was missed in a repair
 May need a repair
R - Redness
A - Approximation
C - Contusion
E - Edema
D - Discharge

Also look for hemorrhoids

389
Q

Once we have evaluated the uterus in the 4th stage of pregnancy, we should assess for the presence of bladder distension. How is this done? What is it associated with? How can we manage it?

A

Assess firmness of uterine fundus then observe and palpate bladder
o Noted as suprapubic rounded bulge
o Fluctuates like a water-filled balloon
o Dull to percussion

Often associated with uterus that is
o Boggy
o Well above the umbilicus
o Deviated to the patient’s right side
o This actually prevents the uterus contractions we need to stop the hemorrhaging

Management
* Assist patient to void spontaneously
o Measure amount of urine collected
* Catheterize as necessary
* Reassess after voiding/catheterization
o Ensure bladder is not palpable and fundus is firm and midline