Midterm Review (not finished) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 components of taking a patient history?

A
  • emotional
  • factual
  • therapeutic
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2
Q

What are the types of questions that may be asked when taking a patient history?

A
  • open-ended
  • direct
  • minimal facilitators
  • laundry lists/menus
  • closed-ended
  • yes/no
  • leading
  • multiple/complex
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3
Q

Name 7 pitfalls encountered when taking a patient history.

A
  • curiosity about you
  • silence
  • crying
  • differing beliefs
  • anger
  • holding back info
  • seduction
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4
Q

What type of question is this:
“What brings you here today?”

A

open-ended

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5
Q

What type of question is this:
“Where is the pain?”

A

direct
(sorted as qualifiers & quantifiers)

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6
Q

What type of question is this:
“And what else?”

A

minimal facilitators (active listening)

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7
Q

What type of question is this:
“Is the pain sharp or dull?”

A

laundry list/menu
(use only when non-directive approach fails)

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8
Q

What type of question is this:
“What is your occupation?”

A

closed-ended

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9
Q

What type of question is this:
“Is your problem better with rest?”

A

yes/no

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10
Q

What type of question is this:
“You don’t smoke, do you?”

A

leading question

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11
Q

What type of question is this:
“Have you ever had palpitations and does anyone in your family have heart disease?”

A

multiple/complex

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12
Q

The one or more symptoms or other concern(s) for which the patient is seeking your advice is termed ____

A

chief complaint (CC)

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13
Q

What is the present illness (PI)?

A

as full a description as possible of the CC, is the story about the patient’s problem

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14
Q

What acronym helps you get all pertinent information about the chief complaint/present illness?

A

Location
Mechanism
Neurological
Onset
Palliative/Provocative
Quality
Radiation/Referral
Severity
Temporal
Universal/anything else going on

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15
Q

An explanation of prior illnesses, injuries, and medical interventions is called ____

A

past medical history (PMH)

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16
Q

A picture of the current health status (or cause(s) of death) of any 1st- or 2nd-order blood-related relatives is called ____

A

family history (FH)

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17
Q

A description that captures important information about the patient as a person is called ____

A

personal/social history (P/SH)
(eg. life-style, stressors, hobbies, occupation, activity level, etc.)

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18
Q

A review of the patient’s history as it regards general health status and symptoms in each body system is called ____

A

review of systems (ROS)

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19
Q

Name 5 special areas of concern when taking a patient history.

A
  • ETOH (alcohol) and substance abuse
  • domestic violence/child abuse
  • depression/suicide risks
  • dementia & fall risks of elders
  • nutritional risk
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20
Q

What special screening tool can be used when concerned for alcohol (ETOH) abuse?

A

CAGE questionnaire

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21
Q

Describe the CAGE questionnaire.

A
  • have you ever felt the need to cut down on drinking? ; are you concerned about your amount of ETOH (alcohol)
  • have you been annoyed if others mention your drinking as a problem?
  • have you felt guilty about how much you drank or what you did?
  • have you needed an eye-opener?
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22
Q

What are 2 questions you could ask to screen for abuse?

A
  • do you feel safe at home?
  • have you been in any threatening situations?
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23
Q

What are 2 questions you could ask to screen for depression?

A

(from PRIME-MD)
- have you been bothered by little interest or pleasure in doing things?
- have you been feeling down, depressed, or hopeless in the last month?

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24
Q

Asking a patient what they think might be causing their pain is what type of question?

A

open-ended

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25
Q

What is included in general inspection of a patient?

A
  • observations of general health status, level of discomfort, mobility
  • overt gross inspection of non-gowned exposed skin, hair, nails, throat, etc.
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26
Q

Upon general inspection, you notice your patient has fine tremors, swelling in the front of their neck, swelling in the legs, and excessive visibility of the sclera above the iris. What disease might you expect?

A

Hyperthyroidism

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27
Q

Upon general inspection, you notice your patient has thin, patchy hair loss on their head and later 1/3 of their eyebrows. Their face appears puffy, and their skin looks dry. What disease might you expect?

A

Hypothyroidism

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28
Q

What are vital signs?

A

qualitative measurements to ascertain 3 body processes essential to life:
- body temp
- hear function (pulse, BP)
- breathing (respiration)

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29
Q

What is the average normal oral temperature?

A

98.6 F (37 C)

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30
Q

What is considered an elevated oral temperature?

A

99.6 F (37.6 C)

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31
Q

Name 6 factors that can affect temperature.

A
  • age (^ in kids)
  • diurnal/circadian variations (^ in evening)
  • exercise
  • hormones (^ at ovulation, lower before ov.)
  • stress
  • environment (extreme temps over prolonged time)
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32
Q

What is the term for normal pulse rate (PR)?

A

eucardia

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33
Q

What is the range for eucardia?

A

60-100 bpm

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34
Q

What is pulse deficit?

A

when HR exceeds peripheral pulse rate

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35
Q

Describe the grading scale for pulse quality.

A

4 = bounding
3 = full, increased
2 = expected
1 = diminished, thready
0 = absent, not palpable

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36
Q

Name 8 factors that may increase pulse rate.

A
  • age (infants & kids)
  • exercise
  • fever (^10bpm for every 1 deg fever)
  • hemorrhage
  • stress
  • drugs
  • hormones (thyroid)
  • position
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37
Q

Name 4 factors that may decrease pulse rate.

A
  • being supine
  • some meds or street drugs
  • life threatening diseases as a “vital sign”
  • conscious meditation, stress reduction techniques
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38
Q

What is the normal range for respirations?

A

12-20 cpm

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39
Q

What is tachypnea?

A

increased respirations

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40
Q

What is bradypnea?

A

decreased respirations

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41
Q

What is eupnea?

A

normal respirations

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42
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

difficulty breathing

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43
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

difficulty breathing when lying down

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44
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

A

difficulty breathing when lying down at night

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45
Q

What is apnea?

A

period of no respiration (i.e., sleep apnea)

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46
Q

What pathological breathing pattern is described as marked rhythmic waxing and waning of respiratory rate and depth with periods of apnea?

A

Cheyene-Stokes

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47
Q

What pathological breathing pattern is described as irregularly shallow and deep breaths interrupted by irregular periods of apnea?

A

Biot’s respirations

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48
Q

What pathological breathing pattern is described as increased respiratory rate and depth?

A

Kussmaul (hyperventilation)

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49
Q

What is the normal range for blood pressure?

A

90/60 - <120/<80 mmHg

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50
Q

Name 9 factors which can affect blood pressure.

A
  • age
  • exercise
  • race
  • weight
  • gender
  • diurnal/circadian variations
  • drugs
  • stress
  • technique
51
Q

What technique factors can affect blood pressure readings?

A
  • cuff size
  • over clothing
  • arm not relaxed or at heart level
  • pt. not relaxed (white coat HTN)
  • back/feet unsupported or legs crossed
  • pt talking
52
Q

How would you estimate systolic blood pressure?

A
  • palpate for brachial/radial pulse to disappear as you inflate the cuff
  • inflate 30 mmHg above
  • deflate while feeling for pulse to return (this point = systolic)
53
Q

What is the clinical relevance for doing an external eye exam?

A

visual evidence of local or systemic disorders

54
Q

What is the clinical relevance for doing cranial nerve assessments?

A

neurologic or muscular dysfunction, head trauma

55
Q

What is the clinical relevance for doing a funduscopic/ophthalmoscopic exam of the eye?

A
  • direct diseases of the eye
  • complications of HTN/diabetes
  • head trauma
56
Q

What are we looking for when asking patient history questions about the eye?

A
  • progressive changes in vision over a short time frame (<1yr)
  • acute changes in SSx = red flag for referral
57
Q

What is emmotropia?

A

normal vision

58
Q

What is ametropia?

A

refractive errors needing correction

59
Q

What is myopia?

A

see better near vision (eyeball too long compared to curvature of lens)

60
Q

What is hyperopia?

A

see better far (eyeball to short compared to curve of lens)

61
Q

What is astygmatism?

A

abnormal curvature of the eyeball:
light focusses on multiple points of retina, affecting near and far vision

62
Q

What is presbyopia?

A
  • near vision deficit due to stiffness of lens with aging
  • cannot accommodate (need reading glasses)
  • onset ~40yrs
63
Q

What is the term for small, constricted pupils?

64
Q

What is the term for large, dilated pupils?

65
Q

What does the term “fixed” pupils mean?

A

pupils do not react to light

66
Q

What is the term for “crossed eyes”?

A

strabismus

67
Q

What is the term for when the pupils constrict when the patient focuses onto a nearby object, but does not constrict when exposed to bright light?

A

Argyll Robertson Pupil
(accommodation reflex present, light reflex absent)

68
Q

Argyll Robertson Pupil is a specific sign of ____

A

neurosyphilis

69
Q

What is the term for a neurologic disorder which causes one or both pupils to be abnormally dilated (mydriasis) with delayed constriction in response to light?

A

Adies pupil
(pts commonly present w/ areflexia of the knee or ankles in addition to tonic pupil)

70
Q

What is the Snellen Wall Chart used for?

A

visual acuity (CN III)

71
Q

What does the corneal light reflex test for?

A

overt strabismus (cross-eyed) d/t cranial n problem
(or covert strabismus)

72
Q

What does the cover-uncover test for?

A

covert strabismus (lazy eye, not getting input and does not align when stressed)

73
Q

How is the cover-uncover test performed?

A
  • focus on distant object w/ eyes open
  • cover 1 eye with card for 20-30 seconds
  • quickly remove card
  • look for covered eye to drift and come back to binocular yoking
74
Q

What are the normal eye inspection findings?

A
  • sclera: white w/o redness/discolouration, not visible below upper eyelid
  • conjunctiva: pink, no discharge
  • no swelling or obvious abnormalities
  • corneal light reflection: symmetrical
  • eyebrows: symmetrical hair distribution
75
Q

What would a yellow sclera suggest?

A

jaundice - liver pathology

76
Q

What would redness in the sclera or conjunctiva suggest?

A
  • an “eye-itis” (eye-tis… haha get it;))
  • conjunctivitis (allergic, viral, bacterial)
  • trauma (direct; foreign body)
77
Q

What would a pink conjunctiva suggest?

A

normal finding

78
Q

Bilateral, watery eyes with mild redness of the conjunctiva or sclera may be due to what?

A

allergic conjunctivitis

79
Q

Unilateral, watery eyes with mild redness of the conjunctiva or sclera may be due to what?

A

viral conjunctivitis

80
Q

Unilateral, purulent discharge with mild to gross redness of the conjunctiva or sclera may be due to what?

A

bacterial conjunctivitis

81
Q

What does loss of the lateral 1/3 of the eyebrows suggest?

A

hypothyroidism

82
Q

What are the findings of Horners syndrome?

A
  • ptosis
  • miosis
  • anhydrosis
83
Q

What does swollen upper eyelid (myxedema) suggest?

A

advanced hypothyroidism

84
Q

Lower eyelids turned outward exposing the lower conjunctiva in elderly patients is called ____

A

ectroption

85
Q

Lower eyelid turned inward with the eyelashes irritating the conjunctiva in elderly patients is called ____

86
Q

Patients with myxedema (hypothyroidism) may present in your office with what 2 other complaints?

A
  • carpal tunnel syndrome
  • hyporeflexia
87
Q

What is ptosis?

A

droopy eyelid and loss of upper sclera visibility

88
Q

What are the possible causes of ptosis?

A
  • myasthenia gravis
  • CN III damage
  • Horners syndrome
  • congenital
89
Q

What is exophthalmos?

A

bulging of the eye with lid retraction (hyperthyroidism), more sclera visible

90
Q

Raised yellowish circumscribed plaques of periorbital skin seen with hyperlipidemia is called ____

A

xanthelasma

91
Q

Inflammation of the lacrimal sac characterized by crusting from punctal discharge and prominent lacrimal sac is termed ____

A

dacrocystitis

92
Q

Benign local inflammation characterized by redness of the conjunctiva which resolves on its own is called ____

A

episcleritis

93
Q

A triangular thickening of fleshy tissue on the nasal side conjunctiva that grows slowly and impinges on the cornea/pupil is called ____

94
Q

A yellowish growth due to deposition of protein & fat on either side of the conjunctiva (usually nasal side first, then temporal) which does not affect vision is called ____

A

pinguecula

95
Q

An infected hair follicle on the eyelid is called a ____

A

Hordeolum (stye)

96
Q

A non-infectious cyst of an oil gland on the eyelid is called a ____

A

chalazion (cyst)

97
Q

What finding on an eye examination would suggest cataracts?

A

no red right reflex when using ophthalmoscope, or see fundus of eye in advanced stages

98
Q

What structures should be assessed on a funduscopic exam?

A
  • red light reflection (unfocused retina)
  • optic disc
  • optic cup
  • arteries
  • venules
  • macular area
  • fovea
99
Q

What is the normal finding of the optic cup?

A

<50% size of optic disc

100
Q

What funduscopic findings may suggest hypertension?

A
  • AV nicking/tapering
  • copper/silver wire arterioles
  • soft (cotton wool) exudates
  • hard exudates (sharp borders, yellow deposits)
101
Q

What funduscopic findings may suggest diabetes?

A
  • neovascularization
  • soft & hard exudates
102
Q

What symptoms and funduscopic findings may suggest glaucoma?

A
  • enlarged optic cup (<50% size of disc)
  • Sx = loss of peripheral vision
103
Q

What symptoms and funduscopic findings may suggest age-related macular degeneration (ARMD)?

A
  • excessive drusen deposits/hemorrhages in macular area
  • Sx = loss of central vision
104
Q

What funduscopic findings may suggest papilledema?

A
  • cotton wool spots (damaged axons)
  • flame hemorrhages (damaged vessels)
105
Q

What causes cotton wool spots?

A

infarcted nerve fibers (damaged axons) due to HTN

106
Q

What conditions may cause hard exudates?

107
Q

What condition may cause neovascularization on a funduscopic exam?

108
Q

What funduscopic findings may suggest diabetic retinopathy?

A
  • hard & soft exudates
  • neovascularization
  • hemorrhages
109
Q

Name 4 causes of acute hearing loss

A
  • foreign body (cerumen)
  • URI or congestion
  • sudden loud music
  • otitis media/externa/interna
110
Q

Name 4 causes of chronic/progressive hearing loss

A
  • otosclerosis
  • presbycusis
  • Meniere’s Dz
  • acoustic neuroma
111
Q

What is the term for progressive age-related hearing loss?

A

presbycusis

112
Q

What is the triad of symptoms of Meniere’s disease?

A

sudden onset:
- vertigo
- tinnitus
- sensorineural hearing loss (can become chronic)

113
Q

What are the red flag findings for ears?

A
  • sudden unilateral hearing loss (stroke/CVA/TIA)
  • hearing/balance loss (TIA/CVA)
  • vertigo (inner vestibular problem)
114
Q

While taking a patient history, what observations may suggest hearing difficulties?

A
  • postures
  • asking for repetition of questions
  • appropriateness of answers
115
Q

What are the possible findings of a malformed/misaligned ear?

A
  • low set auricle
  • craniofacial asymmetries
116
Q

Thickening along the upper ridge of the helix upon inspection of the ear is called ____

A

Darwin’s tubercle

117
Q

A small induration or protuberance found in front of the ear is called ____

A

preauricular pits or skin tags

118
Q

What are keloids?

A

excessive scar tissue formation

119
Q

What is cauliflower ear?

A

a scarred deformed contour of the auricle
(d/t blunt trauma followed by necrosis)

120
Q

How might gout present upon external inspection of the ear?

A

gouty tophi

121
Q

What is Lichtenstein’s sign and what does it suggest?

A

earlobe crease
- sign of atherosclerotic changes
- “red flag” finding for CVD risk

122
Q

Erythematous and edematous mastoid region is indicative of ____

A

mastoiditis
(*immediate referral)

123
Q

Otitis externa is also called ____

A

swimmer’s ear

124
Q

What are the findings of otitis externa?

A
  • crusting & exudative discharge
  • swelling & erythema (unable to do otoscope exam)
  • pain on palpation