Midterm Review Flashcards
1
Q
What does the term supine mean?
A
Pt. is lying face up - Neutral alignment
2
Q
What does the term prone mean?
A
Pt. is lying face down - Neutral alignment
3
Q
What does the term Trendelenburg mean?
A
Pt.’s head is flat (not elevated) while their legs are elevated above their head
4
Q
What does the term left lateral mean?
A
Pt lies on their left side with left leg straight out on the bed while the right leg is bent up, at the knee
5
Q
What does the term semi-prone mean?
A
Pt. is lying face downwards with one or two knees flexed to one side so that the body is not completely flat - “side fetal position”
6
Q
What does the term stable vital signs mean?
A
Vital signs are remaining the same as base line set
7
Q
Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of _______?
A
Sign of an upper gastrointestinal bleed (G.I)
8
Q
Melena is a sign of _______?
A
An upper gastrointestinal bleed (G.I)
9
Q
Hematochezia is _______?
A
Stool containing bright red blood (i.e. hemorrhoids)
10
Q
Hematuria is a sign of _______?
A
Renal injury or illness
11
Q
What is ecchymosis?
A
Purple, bluish coloring under the skin; localized blood collection
12
Q
What is a hematoma?
A
A collection of blood in the soft tissues after injury
13
Q
The strength of a peripheral pulse is related to _______?
A
Strength is related to stroke volume and pressure
14
Q
What is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures?
A
Systolic blood pressure is the top number and refers to the amount of pressure endured by the arteries while the heart is beating - Diastolic blood pressure is the bottom number and refers to the amount of pressure endured by the arteries while the heart is resting in between heart beats
15
Q
Stroke volume is _______?
A
The volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction
16
Q
What is cardiac output and how do you calculate it?
A
It is the amount of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction - SVxHR=CO (Stroke Volume x Heart Rate = Stroke Volume)
17
Q
In a cell, what is the role of the Golgi complex?
A
Synthesis and packaging of various carbohydrates and protein molecules (enzymes)
18
Q
In a cell, what is the role of the Mitochondria? What is it’s shape?
A
It is the metabolic powerhouse of the cell; it’s small and rod shaped (kidney bean)
19
Q
In a cell, what do Lysosomes contain?
A
They contain digestive enzymes
20
Q
In a cell, what do Ribosomes contain?
A
Ribosomes contain RNA and DNA
21
Q
In a cell, what is the role of Peroxisomes? Where are they found?
A
They neutralize toxins such as alcohol and are found in the liver
22
Q
What does the body rely on to maintain it’s delicate acid-base balance?
A
Buffers
23
Q
What is one of the body’s main buffers?
A
Bicarbonate (HCO3)
24
Q
H2O combines with CO2 to make _______?
A
Carbonic Acid (H2CO3)
25
In the lungs, H2CO3 breaks down into water and _______?
Carbon Dioxide
26
In the kidneys, H2CO3 breaks down into Hydrogen (H) and _______?
Bicarbonate (HCO3)
27
What does the following chemical equation represent ? H + HCO3 <---> H2CO3 <---> H2O + CO2
It represents how in the lungs Carbonic Acid is broken down into Hydrogen and Bicarbonate and how in the kidneys Carbonic acid is broken down into Water and Carbon Dioxide
28
What are baroreceptors, what do they do, and where are they found?
They are special nerve receptors that sense blood pressure by the way that the walls of blood vessels stretch; they relay findings with the autonomic nervous system/respond to changes in blood pressure; they are located in the carotid artery, aorta, and kidneys
29
What does RAAS stand for?
Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
30
What is the main goal of the RAAS system?
The regulation of blood pressure
31
How does the RAAS system regulate blood pressure?
By balancing fluid and electrolyte levels, as well as regulating vascular resistance and tone
31
Is Angiotensin II a vasoconstrictor or vasodilator?
Vasoconstrictor
32
Angiotensin II causes _______ to be secreted from adrenals?
Aldosterone
33
A blood pH of >7.45 = _______?
Alkalosis
34
A blood pH of <7.34 = _______?
Acidosis
35
A pt. is breathing at a rate of 6/min, shallow and labored. What type of acid-base imbalance would you expect?
Respiratory Acidosis (loss of sodium bicarb)
36
A pt. has been experiencing severe diarrhea for several days. What type of acid-base imbalance would you expect?
Metabolic Acidosis loss of stomach acids)
37
A pt. who is hyperventilating due to anxiety may experience what type of imbalance?
Respiratory Alkalosis (blowing off CO2)
38
A pt. in diabetic ketoacidosis or sepsis may be experiencing what imbalance? What do they often experience as a result?
Metabolic Acidosis - They often experience Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid, sighing ventilations) in an attempt to blow off the CO2 and decrease acidosis
39
Explain the process of the breakdown of glucose to ATP
Enzymes breakdown glucose in turn releasing pyruvic acid and energy (ATP)
40
True or False: Anaerobic metabolism = metabolic acidosis
True
41
Complete the following Anaerobic Pathway term: the absence of oxygen -> ______?
Lactic Acid
42
True or False (Anaerobic Pathway): Oxygen can later convert Lactic Acid to Pyruvic Acid otherwise it diffuses to the liver and is metabolized
True
43
What does a virus do?
It takes over the metabolic process of a host cell and uses the host cell to replicate it
44
What does bacteria posses that protects them from ingestion and destruction?
A capsule
45
What is a phagocyte? What does it do?
It is a white blood cell (wbc) that engulfs and consumes foreign material such as microorganisms and cellular debris
46
What is apoptosis?
Normal cell death
47
What are pyrogens released by? What do they cause?
They are released by white blood cells (wbc) and cause fever to develop
48
What structures are a part of your immune system?
Tonsils, spleen, lymphoid tissue (thymus gland, bone marrow, lymph nodes), skin, stomach acid, cilia
49
Where do T-lymphocytes mature?
Thymus gland
50
What do basophils contain?
They contain histamine granules -that are released during inflammatory and allergic response
51
What do eosinophils do?
Release substances that damage or kill parasitic invaders
52
What is the most abundant white blood cell? What is it's job?
Neutrophils are the most abundant white blood cell - It protects against infection/destroy any foreign antigens
53
Where do monocytes mature? What happens to them here?
They mature in blood - they differentiate into macrophages (scavengers for the tissues)
54
What do lymphocytes do? What are the 2 types of lymphocytes?
They meditate the acquired immune response - B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes
55
What processes do mast cells play a role in?
Allergic reactions, immunity, and wound healing
56
What is native immunity? Is it natural or adaptive?
It is a non-specific cellular and antibody response that operates as the 1st line of defense against pathogens - Natural
57
When is acquired immunity activated? Is it natural or adaptive?
It is activated when the body is exposed to a foreign substance or disease and produces antibodies to that invader
58
What is cell-mediated immunity?
When T-cell lymphocytes recognize antigens and contribute to the immune response by either screening cytokines or becoming cytotoxic and killing infected cells
59
What is humoural immunity?
When B-cell lymphocytes produce antibodies, react with a certain antigen, and have a compliment of 20 proteins circulating until need
60
In regards to shock, define perfusion
It is the delivery of oxygen and nutrients and removal of wastes for the cells, organs and tissues by the circulatory system
61
In regards to shock, when does hypo perfusion occur?
It occurs when the level of tissue perfusion decreased below normal
62
What is shock? What does it result in?
It is an abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the metabolic apparatus of the cell - It results in impairment of cell metabolism and inadequate cell perfusion of vital organs
63
What are the 2 types of shock?
Central and peripheral
64
What 2 subtypes does central shock include?
Cardiogenic and obstructive
65
What 2 subtypes does peripheral shock include?
Hypovolemic and distributive
66
What is an example of cardiogenic shock? What happens during this example?
A myocardial infarction (heart attack) - the heart cannot circulate enough blood
67
What are some examples of obstructive shock?
Pericardial tamponade, aortic dissection, left atrium tumor, pulmonary embolus, and tension pneumothorax
68
What is a pericardial tamponade a result of?
A blockage of blood flow in the heart or great vessels
69
What are 2 examples of hypovolemic shock? Are they exogenous or endogenous?
External bleeding (exogenous) and loss of plasma volume from diarrhea or vomiting (endogenous)
70
What are 3 examples of distributive shock?
Anaphylaxis, sepsis, and neurogenic shock
71
What is the cause of distributive shock? What happens in distributive shock?
Widespread dilation of the small blood vessels - the circulating volume "pools" in the expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases
72
What is the 1st phase of shock?
Compensated shock
73
What are some signs & symptoms of the 1st stage of shock (compensated shock)
Agitation, anxiety, restlessness, sense of impending doom, weak/rapid pulse, cool/clammy/pale skin, and shortness of breath, normal blood pressure, and thirst
74
What is a major tell that someone is experiencing compensated shock rather than decompensated shock?
A normal blood pressure
75
What is the 2cd stage of shock?
Decompensated shock
76
What are some signs & symptoms of decompensated shock?
Altered mental status, labored breathing, thready or absent peripheral pulses, ashen/mottled/cyanotic skin, impending cardiac arrest, and hypotension
77
What is a major tell that someone is experiencing decompensated shock compared to compensated shock?
Hypotension - low blood pressure
78
What is the last phase of shock?
Irreversible or terminal
79
What are some injuries that can be caused by motor vehicle collisions (MVC's)
Head injuries, hyperflexion spinal injuries, soft tissue injuries, disk herniation, and muscle and ligament stretching/damage
80
What are some injuries that can be caused by fall(s)?
Foot and lower extremity fractures, hip fracture, spinal injuries, wrist and forearm fractures (colles' fracture), and axial loading fractures (specifically from diving injuries)
81
What is the 1st step in our patient care?
EMCA - scene survey
82
What is the 2cd step in our patient care?
Create a general impression, note/treat uncontrolled bleeds, and maintain/secure C-spine control
83
What is the 3rd step in our patient care?
Complete and initial assessment; ABC's and check skin
84
What is the 4th step in our patient care?
Making your transport decision; load and go?
85
What is the 5th step in our patient care?
Determine whteher this is a load and go or focused assessment; if it is a load and go assessment we perform a rapid trauma survey (RTS)
86
During the 5th step of patient care if we determine that it's a load and go, we do what?
We perform a rapid trauma survey
87
During the 5th step of patient care if we determine that it's a focused assessment, we do what?
We perform OPQRST, the 5 P's, treatment, splint, etc...
88
In what instances are a full set of vitals done?
During a focused exam, during a medical assessment, after going mobile during your ongoing exam, and after your rapid trauma survey IF you decide it was not a load and go
89
When you leave a a scene and go mobile, your 1st action is?
Completing your ongoing assessment, LOA, ABC's, and recheck interventions
90
When you leave a scene and go mobile, your 2cd action is?
Radio patch
91
When you leave a scene and go mobile, your 3rd action is?
To perform a detailed physical exam
92
What are the 3 categories in the GCS (Glasgow Coma Scale)?
Eye, verbal, and motor
93
What are 3 things you should ask a patient when determining their GCS score?
If they know what time it is, where they are, and who they are/person
94
What are the 4 choices within the eye opening category in the GCS? What are their points?
95
What are the 5 choices within the verbal response category in the GCS? What are their points?
96
What are the 6 choices within the motor response category in the GCS? What are their points?
97
What is the formula for administering anaphalaxysis medication?
20 mls / kg
98
True or False: A BVM is/can be used to treat a pt.'s slow, shallow, & labored breathing
True
99
Bonus Exam Question: What was the 1st show to recognize paramedics & put them on the map and what are the names of the main characters?
Emergency - Johnny and Roy
100
How does neurogenic shock differ from spinal shock?
Neurogenic shock presents differently in pt.'s; Neurogenic shock presents as pink, warm, and dry compared to spinal shocks pale, cool, and clammy
101
What do baroreceptors respond to?
To decreased stretch
102
Finish the following: Beta-1 = heart, Beta-2 = lungs.......Beta-2 = ______?
Bronchodilation
103
Finish the following: Increase peripheral vascular resistance = ______? = smaller
Vasoconstriction
104
Finish the following: Decrease peripheral vascular resistance = _____? = bigger
Vasodilation
105
If a pt. does not have a proper loa, they also do not have _____?
Adequate brain perfusion
106
Finish the following: Anaerobic metabolism = _____ lactic acid = ______ (metabolic)
Increased, Acidosis
107
What, within the body, is released during anaphylactic shock? What does it cause?
Histamine - bronchoconstriction
108
What is a tool used to generally guestimate someone's weight, in kilograms?
2 x age + 10
