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EMRG-1130 > Midterm Review > Flashcards

Midterm Review Flashcards

1
Q

What does the term supine mean?

A

Pt. is lying face up - Neutral alignment

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2
Q

What does the term prone mean?

A

Pt. is lying face down - Neutral alignment

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3
Q

What does the term Trendelenburg mean?

A

Pt.’s head is flat (not elevated) while their legs are elevated above their head

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4
Q

What does the term left lateral mean?

A

Pt lies on their left side with left leg straight out on the bed while the right leg is bent up, at the knee

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5
Q

What does the term semi-prone mean?

A

Pt. is lying face downwards with one or two knees flexed to one side so that the body is not completely flat - “side fetal position”

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6
Q

What does the term stable vital signs mean?

A

Vital signs are remaining the same as base line set

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7
Q

Coffee-ground emesis is a sign of _______?

A

Sign of an upper gastrointestinal bleed (G.I)

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8
Q

Melena is a sign of _______?

A

An upper gastrointestinal bleed (G.I)

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9
Q

Hematochezia is _______?

A

Stool containing bright red blood (i.e. hemorrhoids)

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10
Q

Hematuria is a sign of _______?

A

Renal injury or illness

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11
Q

What is ecchymosis?

A

Purple, bluish coloring under the skin; localized blood collection

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12
Q

What is a hematoma?

A

A collection of blood in the soft tissues after injury

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13
Q

The strength of a peripheral pulse is related to _______?

A

Strength is related to stroke volume and pressure

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14
Q

What is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures?

A

Systolic blood pressure is the top number and refers to the amount of pressure endured by the arteries while the heart is beating - Diastolic blood pressure is the bottom number and refers to the amount of pressure endured by the arteries while the heart is resting in between heart beats

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15
Q

Stroke volume is _______?

A

The volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction

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16
Q

What is cardiac output and how do you calculate it?

A

It is the amount of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction - SVxHR=CO (Stroke Volume x Heart Rate = Stroke Volume)

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17
Q

In a cell, what is the role of the Golgi complex?

A

Synthesis and packaging of various carbohydrates and protein molecules (enzymes)

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18
Q

In a cell, what is the role of the Mitochondria? What is it’s shape?

A

It is the metabolic powerhouse of the cell; it’s small and rod shaped (kidney bean)

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19
Q

In a cell, what do Lysosomes contain?

A

They contain digestive enzymes

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20
Q

In a cell, what do Ribosomes contain?

A

Ribosomes contain RNA and DNA

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21
Q

In a cell, what is the role of Peroxisomes? Where are they found?

A

They neutralize toxins such as alcohol and are found in the liver

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22
Q

What does the body rely on to maintain it’s delicate acid-base balance?

A

Buffers

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23
Q

What is one of the body’s main buffers?

A

Bicarbonate (HCO3)

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24
Q

H2O combines with CO2 to make _______?

A

Carbonic Acid (H2CO3)

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25
Q

In the lungs, H2CO3 breaks down into water and _______?

A

Carbon Dioxide

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26
Q

In the kidneys, H2CO3 breaks down into Hydrogen (H) and _______?

A

Bicarbonate (HCO3)

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27
Q

What does the following chemical equation represent ? H + HCO3 <—> H2CO3 <—> H2O + CO2

A

It represents how in the lungs Carbonic Acid is broken down into Hydrogen and Bicarbonate and how in the kidneys Carbonic acid is broken down into Water and Carbon Dioxide

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28
Q

What are baroreceptors, what do they do, and where are they found?

A

They are special nerve receptors that sense blood pressure by the way that the walls of blood vessels stretch; they relay findings with the autonomic nervous system/respond to changes in blood pressure; they are located in the carotid artery, aorta, and kidneys

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29
Q

What does RAAS stand for?

A

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

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30
Q

What is the main goal of the RAAS system?

A

The regulation of blood pressure

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31
Q

How does the RAAS system regulate blood pressure?

A

By balancing fluid and electrolyte levels, as well as regulating vascular resistance and tone

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31
Q

Is Angiotensin II a vasoconstrictor or vasodilator?

A

Vasoconstrictor

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32
Q

Angiotensin II causes _______ to be secreted from adrenals?

A

Aldosterone

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33
Q

A blood pH of >7.45 = _______?

A

Alkalosis

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34
Q

A blood pH of <7.34 = _______?

A

Acidosis

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35
Q

A pt. is breathing at a rate of 6/min, shallow and labored. What type of acid-base imbalance would you expect?

A

Respiratory Acidosis (loss of sodium bicarb)

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36
Q

A pt. has been experiencing severe diarrhea for several days. What type of acid-base imbalance would you expect?

A

Metabolic Acidosis loss of stomach acids)

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37
Q

A pt. who is hyperventilating due to anxiety may experience what type of imbalance?

A

Respiratory Alkalosis (blowing off CO2)

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38
Q

A pt. in diabetic ketoacidosis or sepsis may be experiencing what imbalance? What do they often experience as a result?

A

Metabolic Acidosis - They often experience Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid, sighing ventilations) in an attempt to blow off the CO2 and decrease acidosis

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39
Q

Explain the process of the breakdown of glucose to ATP

A

Enzymes breakdown glucose in turn releasing pyruvic acid and energy (ATP)

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40
Q

True or False: Anaerobic metabolism = metabolic acidosis

A

True

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41
Q

Complete the following Anaerobic Pathway term: the absence of oxygen -> ______?

A

Lactic Acid

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42
Q

True or False (Anaerobic Pathway): Oxygen can later convert Lactic Acid to Pyruvic Acid otherwise it diffuses to the liver and is metabolized

A

True

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43
Q

What does a virus do?

A

It takes over the metabolic process of a host cell and uses the host cell to replicate it

44
Q

What does bacteria posses that protects them from ingestion and destruction?

A

A capsule

45
Q

What is a phagocyte? What does it do?

A

It is a white blood cell (wbc) that engulfs and consumes foreign material such as microorganisms and cellular debris

46
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Normal cell death

47
Q

What are pyrogens released by? What do they cause?

A

They are released by white blood cells (wbc) and cause fever to develop

48
Q

What structures are a part of your immune system?

A

Tonsils, spleen, lymphoid tissue (thymus gland, bone marrow, lymph nodes), skin, stomach acid, cilia

49
Q

Where do T-lymphocytes mature?

A

Thymus gland

50
Q

What do basophils contain?

A

They contain histamine granules -that are released during inflammatory and allergic response

51
Q

What do eosinophils do?

A

Release substances that damage or kill parasitic invaders

52
Q

What is the most abundant white blood cell? What is it’s job?

A

Neutrophils are the most abundant white blood cell - It protects against infection/destroy any foreign antigens

53
Q

Where do monocytes mature? What happens to them here?

A

They mature in blood - they differentiate into macrophages (scavengers for the tissues)

54
Q

What do lymphocytes do? What are the 2 types of lymphocytes?

A

They meditate the acquired immune response - B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

55
Q

What processes do mast cells play a role in?

A

Allergic reactions, immunity, and wound healing

56
Q

What is native immunity? Is it natural or adaptive?

A

It is a non-specific cellular and antibody response that operates as the 1st line of defense against pathogens - Natural

57
Q

When is acquired immunity activated? Is it natural or adaptive?

A

It is activated when the body is exposed to a foreign substance or disease and produces antibodies to that invader

58
Q

What is cell-mediated immunity?

A

When T-cell lymphocytes recognize antigens and contribute to the immune response by either screening cytokines or becoming cytotoxic and killing infected cells

59
Q

What is humoural immunity?

A

When B-cell lymphocytes produce antibodies, react with a certain antigen, and have a compliment of 20 proteins circulating until need

60
Q

In regards to shock, define perfusion

A

It is the delivery of oxygen and nutrients and removal of wastes for the cells, organs and tissues by the circulatory system

61
Q

In regards to shock, when does hypo perfusion occur?

A

It occurs when the level of tissue perfusion decreased below normal

62
Q

What is shock? What does it result in?

A

It is an abnormal state associated with inadequate oxygen and nutrient delivery to the metabolic apparatus of the cell - It results in impairment of cell metabolism and inadequate cell perfusion of vital organs

63
Q

What are the 2 types of shock?

A

Central and peripheral

64
Q

What 2 subtypes does central shock include?

A

Cardiogenic and obstructive

65
Q

What 2 subtypes does peripheral shock include?

A

Hypovolemic and distributive

66
Q

What is an example of cardiogenic shock? What happens during this example?

A

A myocardial infarction (heart attack) - the heart cannot circulate enough blood

67
Q

What are some examples of obstructive shock?

A

Pericardial tamponade, aortic dissection, left atrium tumor, pulmonary embolus, and tension pneumothorax

68
Q

What is a pericardial tamponade a result of?

A

A blockage of blood flow in the heart or great vessels

69
Q

What are 2 examples of hypovolemic shock? Are they exogenous or endogenous?

A

External bleeding (exogenous) and loss of plasma volume from diarrhea or vomiting (endogenous)

70
Q

What are 3 examples of distributive shock?

A

Anaphylaxis, sepsis, and neurogenic shock

71
Q

What is the cause of distributive shock? What happens in distributive shock?

A

Widespread dilation of the small blood vessels - the circulating volume “pools” in the expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases

72
Q

What is the 1st phase of shock?

A

Compensated shock

73
Q

What are some signs & symptoms of the 1st stage of shock (compensated shock)

A

Agitation, anxiety, restlessness, sense of impending doom, weak/rapid pulse, cool/clammy/pale skin, and shortness of breath, normal blood pressure, and thirst

74
Q

What is a major tell that someone is experiencing compensated shock rather than decompensated shock?

A

A normal blood pressure

75
Q

What is the 2cd stage of shock?

A

Decompensated shock

76
Q

What are some signs & symptoms of decompensated shock?

A

Altered mental status, labored breathing, thready or absent peripheral pulses, ashen/mottled/cyanotic skin, impending cardiac arrest, and hypotension

77
Q

What is a major tell that someone is experiencing decompensated shock compared to compensated shock?

A

Hypotension - low blood pressure

78
Q

What is the last phase of shock?

A

Irreversible or terminal

79
Q

What are some injuries that can be caused by motor vehicle collisions (MVC’s)

A

Head injuries, hyperflexion spinal injuries, soft tissue injuries, disk herniation, and muscle and ligament stretching/damage

80
Q

What are some injuries that can be caused by fall(s)?

A

Foot and lower extremity fractures, hip fracture, spinal injuries, wrist and forearm fractures (colles’ fracture), and axial loading fractures (specifically from diving injuries)

81
Q

What is the 1st step in our patient care?

A

EMCA - scene survey

82
Q

What is the 2cd step in our patient care?

A

Create a general impression, note/treat uncontrolled bleeds, and maintain/secure C-spine control

83
Q

What is the 3rd step in our patient care?

A

Complete and initial assessment; ABC’s and check skin

84
Q

What is the 4th step in our patient care?

A

Making your transport decision; load and go?

85
Q

What is the 5th step in our patient care?

A

Determine whteher this is a load and go or focused assessment; if it is a load and go assessment we perform a rapid trauma survey (RTS)

86
Q

During the 5th step of patient care if we determine that it’s a load and go, we do what?

A

We perform a rapid trauma survey

87
Q

During the 5th step of patient care if we determine that it’s a focused assessment, we do what?

A

We perform OPQRST, the 5 P’s, treatment, splint, etc…

88
Q

In what instances are a full set of vitals done?

A

During a focused exam, during a medical assessment, after going mobile during your ongoing exam, and after your rapid trauma survey IF you decide it was not a load and go

89
Q

When you leave a a scene and go mobile, your 1st action is?

A

Completing your ongoing assessment, LOA, ABC’s, and recheck interventions

90
Q

When you leave a scene and go mobile, your 2cd action is?

A

Radio patch

91
Q

When you leave a scene and go mobile, your 3rd action is?

A

To perform a detailed physical exam

92
Q

What are the 3 categories in the GCS (Glasgow Coma Scale)?

A

Eye, verbal, and motor

93
Q

What are 3 things you should ask a patient when determining their GCS score?

A

If they know what time it is, where they are, and who they are/person

94
Q

What are the 4 choices within the eye opening category in the GCS? What are their points?

A
95
Q

What are the 5 choices within the verbal response category in the GCS? What are their points?

A
96
Q

What are the 6 choices within the motor response category in the GCS? What are their points?

A
97
Q

What is the formula for administering anaphalaxysis medication?

A

20 mls / kg

98
Q

True or False: A BVM is/can be used to treat a pt.’s slow, shallow, & labored breathing

A

True

99
Q

Bonus Exam Question: What was the 1st show to recognize paramedics & put them on the map and what are the names of the main characters?

A

Emergency - Johnny and Roy

100
Q

How does neurogenic shock differ from spinal shock?

A

Neurogenic shock presents differently in pt.’s; Neurogenic shock presents as pink, warm, and dry compared to spinal shocks pale, cool, and clammy

101
Q

What do baroreceptors respond to?

A

To decreased stretch

102
Q

Finish the following: Beta-1 = heart, Beta-2 = lungs…….Beta-2 = ______?

A

Bronchodilation

103
Q

Finish the following: Increase peripheral vascular resistance = ______? = smaller

A

Vasoconstriction

104
Q

Finish the following: Decrease peripheral vascular resistance = _____? = bigger

A

Vasodilation

105
Q

If a pt. does not have a proper loa, they also do not have _____?

A

Adequate brain perfusion

106
Q

Finish the following: Anaerobic metabolism = _____ lactic acid = ______ (metabolic)

A

Increased, Acidosis

107
Q

What, within the body, is released during anaphylactic shock? What does it cause?

A

Histamine - bronchoconstriction

108
Q

What is a tool used to generally guestimate someone’s weight, in kilograms?

A

2 x age + 10

EMRG-1130 (1 decks)

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