MIDTERM REVIEW Flashcards

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1
Q

What are 3 common enterobacteriaceae

A

E. coli, salmonella, and shigella

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2
Q

E. coli causes what

A

Gastroenteritis

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3
Q

Salmonella causes what

A

Gasteroenteritis, enteric fever

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4
Q

Shigella causes what

A

gastroenteritis and shiga toxin

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5
Q

Yersinia causes what

A

bubonic plague

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6
Q

what bacteria will cause watery diarrhea

A

Vibrio cholerae

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7
Q

What pseudomonas will cause pulmonary infection

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

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8
Q

LPS and siderophores is found in what kind of bacteria cells

A

Pseudomonas bacteria

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9
Q

Campylobacter jejuni will cause what

A

gastroenteritis

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10
Q

Helicobacter pylori will cause what disease

A

gastritis and peptic ulcers

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11
Q

What did Leeuwenhoek discover in 1674

A

Microscopic world

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12
Q

Otto muler and Leeuwenhoek did what in around 1774

A

created classification

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13
Q

Helne discovered what and in what year

A

germ theory in 1840

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14
Q

what is sterilization

A

complete destruction of all microorganims

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15
Q

Disinfectants work by

A

destruction of vegetative pathogen

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16
Q

Antisepsis work in the

A

destruction of vegetative pathogen on living tissue

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17
Q

what is the most common microscopy (used in high school)

A

bright field (light) microscopy

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18
Q

Bordetella pertussis will cause what disease

A

pertussis

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19
Q

Rat bite fever caused by what pathogen

A

streptobacillus monlliformls

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20
Q

What are the most famous clostridium bacteria and what they cause

A

C. perfringens (soft tissue infections), C. botulinum (botulism), and C. tetani (tetanus)

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21
Q

Non-spore forming anaerobic bacteria are what bacteria

A

Actinomyces spp. and Lactobacillus spp.

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22
Q

Bacteroides fragilis trigger words are

A

gram negative rod, capsule, abscess formation and drug resistance

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23
Q

Lyme borreliosis is caused by what pathogen

A

Borrelia (spirochaetales)

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24
Q

Yaws is caused by what

A

Treponema (spirochaetales)

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25
Q

Leptospira causes what

A

Leptospirosis (spirochaetales)

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26
Q

Describe the structure of spirochaetales

A

gram negative, have periplasmic flagellum

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27
Q

What is a distinct feature found in mycoplasma

A

No cell wall

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28
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia causes what human disease

A

tracheobronchitisis

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29
Q

Rickettsia rickettsia causes what disease

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

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30
Q

Ehrlichia chaffeensis causes what

A

human monocytic ehrlichosis

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31
Q

Chlamydiaceae is what

A

obligate intracellular paraiste (viruses)

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32
Q

Chlamydiaceae pneumonia causes what

A

pneumonia

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33
Q

What is the gram negative bacteria potent activator of innate host response

A

LPS

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34
Q

What bacteria is used to make yogurt and sauerkraut

A

Fermented milk, lactobacillus bulgarius and streptococcus thermopilus
Fermented cabbage, leuconostoc mesenteroides

35
Q

Are edema factor and lethal factor toxic by themselves

A

No, but form important toxins when structurally combined

36
Q

What selective media is used for corynebacterium diphtheria

A

Holey’s and because tellurite is strong oxidizing agent

37
Q

Why do mycobacterial infections needed to be treated with multiple drugs for 6 months

A

It can be encapsulated with fibrin that protects bacteria from macrophage killing

38
Q

What virulence factors are associated with neisseriaceae family

A

Type IV pili, a polysaccharid cause, toxin

39
Q

What staphylococcal enzymes have been proposed as virulence factors

A

hydrolytic enzymes

40
Q

The four mechanisms of antibiotic action are

A

disruption of cell wall, inhibition of protein synthesis, inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis, and antimetabolite

41
Q

What are main properties in isolated culture of clostridium perfiningens

A

it is anaerobic

42
Q

what is type 3 secretion device

A

inject pore forming factors and effector molecules into host cell. Effector proteins help replicate bacteria

43
Q

what are the anaerobic bacteria culture

A

semisolid agar or brucella agar

44
Q

what are 3 types of anaerobic bacteria

A

bactericides, clostridium, and actinomycetes

45
Q

Wet mount is used to observe what

A

motility

46
Q

gram stain used to observe what

A

shape and if gram positive or gram negative

47
Q

A common vibrio bacteria is what and what does it cause

A

Vibrio cholera and watery diarrhea

48
Q

the most common speriquet

A

treponema pallidum syphilis

49
Q

What color is gram positive and gram negative bacteria

A

purple; red/pink

50
Q

what test is used to differentiate gram positive cocci bacteria and what are the results of two groups

A

catalase test; (+) staphylococcus and (-) streptococcus

51
Q

What are the two groups found in staphylococcus and what test is used

A

(+) coagulase is S. aureus and others are (-) coagulase

52
Q

What groups are found in gram positive bacilli and most famous

A

Bacillus, lactobacillus, corynebacterium, and listeria Most famous is C. diphtheriae

53
Q

Gram negative cocci are what

A

neisseria, eikenella, and kingella

54
Q

What are the two opportunist gram negative cocci

A

kingella and eikenella

55
Q

What is used in Indole test

A

tryptophanase enzyme

56
Q

what is used in citrate test

A

citrate as carbon source

57
Q

what is used in urease test

A

urea hydrolysis

58
Q

what is used in Mac monkey agar

A

lactose

59
Q

describe brightfield light microscope

A

uses ocular and objective lens, uses light to illuminate specimen, and magnification is 10x, 40x and 100x

60
Q

describe dark field microscope

A

uses condenser to prevent light from reaching specimen, unable to observe internal structure, magnification 10x, 40x, and 100x

61
Q

describe phase contrast microscope

A

used to see internal structure, magnification 400x and 1000x

62
Q

describe fluorescent microscope

A

stain with fluorescent dye and put under vapor light, magnification 100x

63
Q

describe electron microscope

A

uses magnetic coils to direct electron to specimen, magnification 1,000,000x

64
Q

what pathogen has a cell wall

A

bacteria

65
Q

LPS is considered what

A

endotoxin

66
Q

what is the function of a biofilm

A

protects bacteria from antibiotics and host defenses

67
Q

the hairlike structures on outside of bacteria is what and made out of what

A

pili and pilin

68
Q

viruses are

A

obligate intracellular parasites

69
Q

retroviruses refers to

A

virus ability to synthesize DNA from RNA

70
Q

what pathogen contains capsid or envelope

A

virus

71
Q

virus genome can be

A

DNA or RNA; DNA can be ds or ss

72
Q

outer layer of vision is

A

capsid or envelope

73
Q

what is budding

A

when virus gains envelope by taking regions of host cell membrane

74
Q

what pathogen is both unicellular or multicellular

A

fungi

75
Q

yeast or molds are considered

A

fungi

76
Q

yeast defined as

A

cells that reproduce by budding or by fission

77
Q

hat is budding fission

A

when mother cell pinches off position of itself to make daughter cell

78
Q

what is hyphae

A

multicellular organisms consisting of threadlike tubular structures

79
Q

protests or protozoa are

A

simple microorganisms

80
Q

how to protists or protozoa reproduce

A

by binary fission

81
Q

haemophilius influenzae

A

pneumonia, meningitis, epiglottitis

82
Q

common virulence factors of enterobacteriaecae

A

endotoxin, capsule, type 3 secretion

83
Q

campylobacter causes

A

gasteroentrisis and gullian barre syndrome