Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Skel C > Midterm QA > Flashcards

Midterm QA Flashcards

1
Q

What percentage of pts with RA will develop spine involvement?

A

60-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

With sacroiliac degenerative joint disease:

A

Changes predominate in the lower 2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Of the four bony cervical contour lines, which would be the most reliable for assessing upper cervical RA?

A

Spinolaminal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Several of the following lines can be used in the evaluation of (scfe); Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
however, which is the most accurate?

A

Klein’s line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Shenton’s line would not be useful in the evaluation of:

A

Hip DJD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Klein’s line is used as a measurement for:

A

Salter Harris Type I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which radiograph finding would be most suggestive of psoriatic arthritis in the DIP and PIP joints:

A

Joint space narrowing with erosions and mouse ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When using Eisenstein’s method for lumbar sagital canal measurement stenosis would be indicated by:

A

less than 15 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Putti’s triad consists of:

A

Congenital Hip Dysplasia:

Increased acetabular angle, femoral head hypoplasia and lateral displacement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“Steele’s rule of thirds” is helpful in the evaluation of:

A

Atlantoaxial translational instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The pt found to have partial agenesis of the C1 posterior arch should have:

A

A flexion view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Verterbrobasilar insufficiency during rotary adjustments of the cervical spine related to compression or restriction of the vertebral artery may be associated with:

A

Posterior ponticle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which arthritic disorder would be expected in a pt younger than 40 years of age?

A

Reiter’s syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis would be least likely in which area?

A

Lumbar spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following would NOT be a true statement regarding SLE Systemic lupus erythematous)

A

Almost all pts exhibit the classic “butterfly rash”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following would be a true statement regarding SLE (Systemic lupus erythematous)

A
  • Involves significant immunological abnormality
  • Shows a clear predilection for female its
  • Frequently involves the urinary, cardiopulmonary, nervous and musculoskeletal systems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A finding of severe lumbar degenerative disc disease would be:

A

Vacuum phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In erosive osteoarthritis the articular lesions result in a peculiar radiographic appearance called:

A

“Gull wing” sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which one of the following does not belong in the group?

A

Apophyseal joint erosion and fusion
Spinous process erosion
Cranial settling
ANSWER: Luschka joing arthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis and _______ have virtually indentical radiographic findings:

A

Enteropathic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is not in the diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Morning joint stiffness
Rheumatoid nodules
Positive rheumatoid factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Costotransverse or costovertebral arthrosis may be associated with:

A

Roberts Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An arthritis which clinically has a predilection for pts

A

Still’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Deforming nonerosive arthropathy appearing after repeated attacks of arthritis in pts with rheumatic fever:

A

Jaccoud’s arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A diagnosis of Forestier’s disease requires flowing hyperostosis at the anterior portion of at least:

A

Four contiguous vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Hadley’s “S” curve may be used when evaluating:

A

Both AP and oblique lumbar xrays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following is NOT a spinal radiographic finding associated with oschronosis arthropathy?

A

Normal disc spacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following ARE spinal radiographic findingS associated with oschronosis arthropathy?

A

Vacuum phenomenon
Flat lordosis
Intervetebral disc chondocalcinosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Spinal osteophytes

A

Originate at the attachment of the anterior longitudal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a cause of secondary spinal degenerative arthritis?

A

DISH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following IS considered a cause of secondary spinal degenerative arthritis?

A

Ochronosis
Acromegaly
Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A male patient with a diagnostic triad of cirrhosis, diabetes, and bronze colored skin, with MCP joint osteoarthritis is likely to have a diagnosis of:

A

Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Poorly defined bone erosions are not expected in this arthritis:

A

Degenerative arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which condition can be associated with degenerative and inflammatory arthritis?

A

CPPD arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Young adult female would be the typical pt for:

A

Scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In addition to osseous and articular abnormalities, scleraderma can have serious impact on all EXCEPT:

A

The lungs
The heart
The GI tract
ANSWER: The Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Diabetes mellitus has a recognized correlation with ____ in up to 32% of pts?

A

DISH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Sjoegren’s syndrome, seen with various connective tissue disorders is associated with:

A

Generalized drying of mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The anatomy of a typical synovial joint includes:

A

A fibrous capsule, synovium and hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Spinal involvement in neurotrophic arthropathy is most often associated with:

A

Syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

An important clinical consideration with rheumatoid arthritis is:

A

Likelihood of atlantoaxial instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis may result in:

A

Bony ankylosis of synovial joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis clinically most commonly occurs in:

A

Males >40 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Para-articular osteopenia can be seen with all of the following arthritis disorders except:

A

Rheumatoid arthritis
ANSWER: Gout
Scleroderma
SLE Systemic lupus erythematosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Spondylolisthesis is correctly defined there is:

A

Anterolisthesis only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The type of sponylolisthesis commonly found at L4 is:

A

Degenerative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic of SLE? Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

The spine is a common area of involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

George’s line and Ullman’s line are both used in the evaluation of:

A

Lumbar spine spondlolisthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of the following is useful in the evaluation of spondylolisthesis?

A

Ullman’s line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following lines can be used as indication of facet subluxation?

A

Hadley’s S line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Shenton’s or Menards line would NOT be helpful in the detection of

A

Hip Fractures
Slipped Capital femoral epiphysis
ANSWER: Hip DJD
Hip Dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which measurement in a pediatric patient is positive with Putti’s triad?

A

Iliofemoral line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Lordic end plate changes associated with the DDD consisting of decreased signal intensity involved T1 and T2 which would correspond with end plate subchondral sclerosis are classified as type

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Using Eisenstein’s method, lumbar saggital perio-stenosis would be indicated by

A

Less than 15mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In the cervical spine, the most accurate method of determining saggital canal stenosis is the canal-body ratio or Pavlov’s ratio which is positive with the ratio less than

A

0.82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

“Steele’s rule of thirds” is helpful in the evaluation of:

A

Atlantoaxial translational instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Peribasilar invagination could have a variety of associated vertebral defects, however which of the following would not be an expected finding

A

Hemi-vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Klippel-feil syndrome may be associated with

A

Sprengle’s deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which arthropathy would be expected in a patient younger than 40 years of age?

A

Reiters Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Articular symptomotology is a common presenting complaint in what % of pts with SLE
Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding SLE?
Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

A. It involves significant neurologic abnormalities

B. Clinical increase in female pts

ANSWER: C. Almost all pts exhibit the classic butterfly rash

D. It typically involves the urinary, cardiopulmonary, musculoskeletal systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which of the following would NOT be a plain film identifier of a cause of lumbar spinal stenosis?

A

ANSWER: A. Ligamentum Flavum Buckeling
B. Vertebral Body Osteophytes
C. Retrolisthesis
D. Facet arthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

This inflammatory arthritis can involve DIP, PIP, and 1st MCC articulations in the hand?

A

Erosive osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Which one of the following is NOT associated with rheumatoid spinal arthritis?

A

ANSWER: Epiphyseal joint erosion and fusion
Spinous process erosion
Cranial settling
Os odontodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis and what have virtually identical radiographic findings?

A

Enteropathic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which of the following is NOT a diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Morning joint stiffness lasting greater than an hour
ANSWER: Atlantoaxial subluxation
Rheumatoid nodules
Positive rheumatoid factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Costo-transverse or costoveretbral arthrosis may be associated with what?

A

Roberts Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Hemispheric Spondylosclerosis occurs most commonly at what vertebra level and must be differentiated by what?

A

B. L4-5, blastic mets or infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The sacroiliac vacuum phenomenon is what?

A

Has no clinical significance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Of the following, which one would NOT be considered in a differential for DISH?

A

Ankylosing spondylitis
Spondylosis
Psoriatic spinal arthritis
ANSWER: Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Hadley’s S Curve may be used when evaluating what?

A

AP and oblique lumbar xray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In ochronosis arthropathy, the most common skeletal area of involvement is where

A

Spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Spinal Osteophytes are

A

may be 2 types: traction or claw

75
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a cause of secondary spinal degenerative arthritis?

A

Ochronosis
Acromegaly
Hemochromotosis
ANSWER: DISH

76
Q

A 50 year old male pt with the diagnostic triad of cirrhosis, diabetes, and bronze colored skin is likely to have a diagnosis of WHAT in osteoarthritis at the WHAT joint?

A

Hemochromotosis, MCP

77
Q

Clearly defined bone erosions are NOT expected in this arthritis?

A

Degenerative arthritis
ANSWER: Inflammatory arthritis
Infectious arthritis
Anabolic arthritis

78
Q

Which condition can be associated with inflammatory and degenerative arthritis?

A

CPPD arthritis

79
Q

Young adult female would be the typical pt for:

A

Scleroderma

80
Q

OPLL pts frequently complain of this symptomotology?

A

Difficulty walking or lower extremity weakness

81
Q

Diabetes Mellitis and dysphagia can be associated with what?

82
Q

Sjorgen’s syndrome and Felty’s syndrome are most commonly associated with what?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

83
Q

C-R-E-S-T is a term used in identifying major associations of what?

A

Progressive systemic sclerosis

84
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of rheumatoid spinal arthritis?

A

ANSWER: Marginal bone formation
Cranial settling
Disc space narrowing
Apophyseal joint erosion

85
Q

Spinal involvement in nuerotropic arthropathy could be associated with:

A

Syphilis and syringomyelia

86
Q

Which of the following would NOT be expected to cause alantoaxial instability

A

Ankylosing spondilytis
Rhuematoid arthritis
Psoriatic arthritis
ANSWER: Scleroderma

87
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis can result in:

A

Fibrous ankylosis of fibrocartilaginous joints

88
Q

Forestier’s Disease (»>) or Senile ankylosing hyperostosis clinically most commonly occurs in who?

A

Males greater than 50

89
Q

Periarticular osteopenia can be seen with all of the following arthritic disorders EXCEPT

A

Rheumatoid arthritis
Gout
Scleraderma
ANSWER: SLE

90
Q

The best view for demonstrating ideology with isthmic or degenerative sponylolisthesis is

A

Lateral View

91
Q

The rare type of spondylolisthesis found at L5 is

A

Displastic

92
Q

The most common cause for bilateral acetabulum protrusion

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

93
Q

In a pediatric patient Klein’s line should

A

Intersect the fovea capitis, relating to the superior margin of femoral head

94
Q

Conservative treatment of the pt with spondylolisthesis has a poor prognosis if

A

Flexion-Extension on lateral lumbar films indicate instability at the level of the lesion

95
Q

Concentric erosion of the femoral neck producing an apple cord deformity may be associated with what?

A

Synoviochondrometaplasia

96
Q

The bywaters-dixon Non marginal syndesmophytes may be described as what?

A

a floating syndesmophyte that bridges the disk space but does not unite the vertebral bodies

97
Q

Carrot stick fractures caused by ankylosing spondylitis may cause serious neurologic complications and most commonly seen at :

98
Q

Which of the following is NOT a complication of spinal degenerative arthritis?

A

Degnerative enterolithesis
Discogenic retrolithesis
Spinal stenosis
ANSWER: Sacroiliac joint fusion

99
Q

In the Witse classification for spondylolisthesis, which occurs in both the cervical and lumbar spine commonly?

A

Degenerative

100
Q

Which of the following is NOT a radiographic finding or an association with peripheral annular degenerative disc disease?

A

Peripheral marginal vacuum
Osteocytosis
ANSWER: Normal Disc spacing
Accompanying joint arthrosis

101
Q

With rheumatoid involvement at the S-I joints, which one of the following is NOT and expected radiographic finding?

A

Unilateral involvement
Segmental non uniform
Superficial erosions
ANSWER: Diffuse sacroiliac joint fusion

102
Q

Periarticular bone density would be expected to be normal with this arthritis

103
Q

An important clinical consideration associated with psoratic arthritis pts is

A

severe osteopenia
High likelihood of developing bilateral acetabulum protrusions
Likelihood of cauda equinous syndrome
Likelihood of alantoaxial translational instability.

104
Q

Soft tissue calcification and __________ are classic findings of progressive systemic sclerosis. (1073)

A

Acroosteolysis

105
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of juvenile chronic Still’s disease?(1028)

A

Classic systemic
Monarticular
Polyarticular
ANSWER: Peripheral articular

106
Q

Which of the following lines can be used for indication of facet subluxation?

A

Hadley’s “S” line
Ferguson’s Line
Ullman’s line
Eisenstein’s line

107
Q

Shenton’s/Menard’s line would NOT be useful in the detection of:

A

Hip fracture
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
ANSWER: Hip DJD
Hip dislocation

108
Q

This line also referred to as the Garland-Thomas line is useful in the detection of spondylolisthesis.(225)

A

Ullman’s line

109
Q

Which measurement in the pediatric patient, is positive with Putti’s triad?

A

Iliofemoral line

110
Q

Modic provides a classification system for marrow end plate changes related to the degeneration disc. Decreased end plate signal intensity on T1 and increased signal intensity on T2 weighted images are classified as Type ______ end plate changes and are related to fibrous tissue marrow replacement in the vertebral endplate. (536)

111
Q

Using Eisenstein’s method, lumbar sagittal canal stenosis would be indicated by: (227)

112
Q

In the cervical spine, the most accurate method for determining sagittal canal stenosis is the canal-body ratio or Pavlov’s ratio which is positive with a ratio of less than: (209)

113
Q

Bertolotti’s syndrome is associated with all of the following EXCEPT: (313)

A

Hemivertebra
ANSWER: Sciatica
Transitional vertebra
Scoliosis

114
Q

Primary basilar invagination may have a variety of associated vertebral defects; however, which one of the following would NOT be an expected finding?

A

ANSWER: C3 hemivertebra

115
Q

Klipper-Feil syndrome may be associated with ________ in 20-30% of patients:

A

Sprengel’s deformity

116
Q

A short webbed neck (pterygium colli), low hairline and reduced range of cervical motion clinically indicates:

A

Klippel-Feil syndrome

117
Q

Approximately 90% of patients with SLE will present with:

A

Articular symptomatology

118
Q

Decreased endplate signal intensity on T1 and T2 – weighted images are classified as Modic Type _____ end plate changes and are related to subchondral sclerosis in the vertebral endplate. (536)

119
Q

The ligamentum flava may be associated with which spinal complication?

A

Spinal stenosis

120
Q

This inflammatory arthritis can involve DIP, PIP and first MCC articulations in the hand.

A

Erosive OA

121
Q

Cranial settling is an important feature of which arthritis involving the spine?

A

Rheumatoid

122
Q

Referencing the “general guide to relative frequency of arthritis” from Y&R, which arthritis would be expected to be seen yearly in general practice? (952)

A

Infectious arthritis

123
Q

Which of the following is NOT in the diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Morning joint stiffness lasting more than 1 hour
ANSWER: Boutonniere deformity
Rheumatoid nodules
Positive rheumatoid factor

124
Q

Robert’s syndrome is associated with:

A

Lower thoracic costotransverse arthrosis

125
Q

Hemispheric spondylosclerosis occurs most commonly at the ______ vertebral level and must be differentiated from ________: (976)

A

L4-5, blastic neoplasm or infection

126
Q

Which of the following has NOT been associated with posterior ponticle? (269)

A

Vertebrobasilar insufficiency
Barre – Lieou syndrome
Chronic upper cervical syndrome
ANSWER: Felty’s syndrome

127
Q

Gold standaed imaging for the various pathological lesions of intervertebral disc disorders is (996)

128
Q

Hadley’s “S” curve may be used when evaluating:

A

Both AP and oblique lumbar x-rays

129
Q

The most common factor that results in degenerative disc disease is (536)

A

Acute or chronic repetitive trauma

130
Q

The vacuum sign of Knuttsen is associated with: (971)

A

Central nuclear and peripheral annular DDD

131
Q

The most significant of the spinal ligaments in relation to degenerative joint disease is: (537)

A

Ligamentum flava

132
Q

Putti’s triad is a group of radiographic features associated with:

A

Congenital hip dysplasia

133
Q

Degenerative arthritis typically does NOT produce:

A

ANSWER: Bone erosions
Subchondral sclerosis
Asymmetrical joint space narrowing
Geode formation

134
Q

Which condition can be associated with degenerative and inflammatory arthritis?

A

CPPD arthritis

135
Q

Young adult female would be the typical patient for:

A

Scleroderma

136
Q

OPLL patients frequently complain of this symptomatology: (998)

A

Difficulty walking with lower extremity motor weakness

137
Q

A complication of facet joint degeneration which can NOT be demonstrated on plain film radiography and is best evaluated with MRI: (539)

A

Foraminal stenosis
Degenerative anterolisthesis
Apophyseal joint vacuum phenomenon
ANSWER: Synovial cyst

138
Q

Syndromes that may be associated with rheumatoid arthritis include:

A

Sjogren’s, Felty’s

139
Q

C.R.E.S.T. is a term identifying the major associated with __________

A

Progresive systemic sclerosis

140
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of rheumatoid spinal arthritis?

A

ANSWER: Marginal bone formation
Cranial settling
Disc space narrowing with end plate
Apophyseal joint erosion

141
Q

Lumbar spine involvement in neurotrophic arthropathy should be associated with?

A

Syphilis, diabetic neuropathy

142
Q

Which one of following would NOT be expected to cause alantoaxial instability

A

Ankylosing spondilytis
Rheumatoid arthritis
Psoriatic arthritis
ANSWER: Scleroderma

143
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis may result in?

A

Bony ankylosis of synovial joints

144
Q

On the lateral lumbar x-ray __________ line should lie above the superior most tip of the adjacent superior articular process of the facet joint (221)

A

Macnab’s

145
Q

The best view for demonstrating etiology with isthmic or degenerative spondylolisthesis is?

A

Lateral view

146
Q

The type of spondylolisthesis commonly found in the cervical spine is:

A

degenerative

147
Q

The most common cause for bilateral acetabular protrusion:

A

Rheumatoid

148
Q

In a pediatric patient Klein’s line should

A

Intersect the superior margin of the femoral head

149
Q

Conservative treatment of the pt with spondylolisthesis has a poor prognosis if

A

Motion lumbar films indicate instability

150
Q

An arthropathy associated with joint ______ and eventually producing secondary OA: (1009)

A

Synovial chondrometaplasia

151
Q

Seronegative arthritis in children: (1028)

A

Still’s disease

152
Q

In rheumatoid patients, the presence of rheumatoid nodules high ____ of rheumatoid factor and extra articular manifestations are usually indicative of: (1012)

A

Poor prognosis

153
Q

Which of the following is NOT a complication of spinal degenerative arthritis:

A

Degenerative anterolisthesis
Discogenic retrolisthesis
Spinal stenosis
ANSWER: Sacroiliac joint fusion

154
Q

In the Wiltse classification for spondylolisthesis, which type occurs in both the cervical and lumbar spine commonly:

155
Q

Which of the following is NOT a radiographic finding or association of peripheral annular degenerative disc disease:

A

Peripheral marginal vacuum
Osteophytosis
Normal disc spacing
ANSWER: Accompanying luschka joint arthrosis

156
Q

Primary hyperparathyroidism, gout and hemochromatosis have a strong association with CPPD and could produce this common radiographic finding:

A

Chondrocalcinosis

157
Q

An early and frequent rheumatoid finding with Glenohumeral joint disease: (1024)

A

Rotator tendon cuff rupture

158
Q

Mouse ears and gull wings radiographic findings are seen with: (1054)

A

Psoriatic and EOA respectively

159
Q

The letter joints that may have erosive type changes along articular surfaces in association with DJD include all of the following EXCEPT:

A

Acromioclavicular (AC)
Temporomandibular (TMJ)
Symphysis pubis (SP)
ANSWER: Sternoclavicular (SC)

160
Q

Normal para-articular bone density is expected with all of the following arthritic disorders EXCEPT:

A

Gout
ANSWER: Rheumatoid types
Degenerative joint disease
Foot and ankle

161
Q

Dysphagia is frequently seen in

A

PSS
Progressive Systemic Sclerosis
917

162
Q

Which of the following are radiographic findings or associations of peripheral annular degeneration disease

A

Pick all that apply

163
Q

Seronegative chronic arthritis in children

A

Still’s Disease

873

164
Q

The interohalangeal joint of the great toe (1st digit) showing marginal destruction (rat bites), soft tissue swelling and joint destruction, which may be bilateral is characteristic of

165
Q

Which of the following are the most common causes for neutrophil (charcot’s) joints

A

Diabetes mellitus
Syphilis
Syringomyelia
843

166
Q

Tripartite patella musth be differentiated from

167
Q

the most common and lease common disc level respectively for vervain IVOC

168
Q

The earliest pathophysiological findings of IVOC in the cervical spine

A

Endplate degeneration?

169
Q

A patient with secondary Sjogren’s syndrome may also be suffering with

170
Q

An increased ADI greater than 3mm particularly in flexion happen sin the _______ of patients. Spinal compression deformities occur secondary to _____

171
Q

When evaluating the cercial spine for alighnemntn complications secondary to spinal DJD, which contour line is seldom used

A

Posterior spinous (least reliable

most: spinallaminar
others
retropheryngeal
retrotracheal
anterior body 
posterior body (George's Line)
172
Q

Based on the number of joints involved, which arthritis does not fit in this group

A

infectious arthritis

173
Q

Referencing the general rule to relative frequency from Y&R, which arthritis would be expected to be seen monthly in a general average practice

174
Q

This is a basic fundamental rule to remember about the 2 majority types of arthritis:
____ are to OA, what ____ are to inflammatory arthritis (pick 2)

A

osteophytes

Erosions

175
Q

Which of the following joints is an example of a secondary osteoarthritis location

176
Q

Mikuliez’s Angle will determine the presence of

A

Coxa Valga
Normal 125
Valga 150

177
Q

Degenerative arthritis typically does not produce

A

Ulnar deviation

178
Q

“mouse ears” and “gull Wings” are seen with

A

psoriatic and EOA respectively

179
Q

Which of the followup is not associated with gout

A

normal bone density?

180
Q

common complication when steroid therapy is used for SLE

A

femoral head AVN

181
Q

The great toes (not MTP) isa frequent site fro early and advanced

A

Psoriatic A

182
Q

Common spinal levels for framing stenosis related to Uncovertebral arthritis

A

C5-6, C6-7

183
Q

The role of radiology in the diagnosis of articular disease is undisputed. Arthritis cons the american economy ___ billion and affects on in every __ people

184
Q

Although the “D” word of neupathic are usually apple to the hypertrophic type they also works ro atrophic type. Which of the following is NOT one one ht e6 “D” Words

A

Answer: Disgusting

  1. disorganization
  2. debris
  3. density
  4. dislocation
  5. destruction
  6. distended (soft tissue)

Skel C (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions