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PROFESSIONAL GROWTH > MIDTERM PREP > Flashcards

MIDTERM PREP Flashcards

1
Q

TRUTH TELLING

A

VERACITY

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2
Q

An ethical principle that literally means self-governing. It denotes having the freedom to make independent choices

A

AUTONOMY

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3
Q

A moral theory which holds that an action is judged as good or bad in relation to the consequence, outcome, or end result derived from it.

A

UTILITARIANISM

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4
Q

An ethical principle related to beneficence that requires one to act in such a manner as to avoid causing harm to another, including deliberate harm, risk of harm, and harm that occurs during the performance of beneficial acts.

A

NONMALEFICENCE

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5
Q

The ethical principle that requires one to act in ways that benefit another. In research, this implies the protection from harm and discomfort, including a balance between the benefits and risks of a study.

A

BENEFICENCE

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6
Q

Most important 7 values in providing nursing care in Ontario

A

■ client well-being;
■ client choice;
■ privacy and confidentiality;
■ respect for life;
■ maintaining commitments;
■ truthfulness; and
■ fairness.

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7
Q

The _____________ ______________ is established and maintained by the nurse through the nurse’s use of professional nursing knowledge, skill, and caring attitudes and behaviours to provide nursing services that
contribute to the client’s health and well-being. The
relationship is based on trust, respect and intimacy
and requires the appropriate use of the power
inherent in the care provider’s role

A

The therapeutic relationship

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8
Q

5 COMPONENTS OF NURSE-CLIENT RELATIONSHIP

A
  1. TRUST
  2. RESPECT
  3. EMPATHY
  4. PROFESSIONAL INTIMACY
  5. POWER
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9
Q

Occurs when we sense that there is a moral problem, but are not sure of the morally correct action, when we are unsure what the moral principles or values apply, or when we are unable to define the moral problems

A

MORAL UNCERTAINTY

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10
Q

Occurs when there are conflicting
moral claims. Dilemmas present in at least two ways:

  • when there is evidence to indicate that a certain act is morally right and evidence to indicate that the act is morally wrong, but no evidence is conclusive
  • when the agent believes that one or more moral norms exist to support one course
    of action, and one or more moral norms exist to support another course of action, and the two actions are mutually exclusive.
A

ETHICAL DILEMMA

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11
Q

When a nurse faces situations that present moral problems that seem to have clear solutions, yet they are unable to follow their moral beliefs because of institutional or other restraints.

A

MORAL DISTRESS

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12
Q

A _______ is a wrong or injury that a person suffers because of someone else’s action, either intentional or unintentional. The tortious action may cause bodily harm; invade another’s privacy; damage a person’s property, business, or reputation; or make unauthorized use of a person’s property.

A

TORT

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13
Q

_______ ___ deals with the rights and obligations of the persons involved in:

  • bodily harm;
  • invade another’s privacy;
  • Damage a person’s property, business, or reputation;
  • or make unauthorized use of a person’s property.
A

TORT LAW

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14
Q

_____________ is “the omission to do something that a reasonable person, guided by those ordinary considerations which ordinarily regulate human affairs, would do, or doing something which a
reasonable and prudent person would not do”

A

NEGLIGENCE

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15
Q

CNO’s ROLE

A
  1. Articulating and promoting practice standards.
  2. Establishing requirements for entry to practice
  3. Administering a Quality Assurance Program
  4. Enforcing standards of practice and Conduct
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16
Q

CNO PRACTICE STANDARDS (10)

A
  1. Confidentiality and Privacy - Personal Health Information
  2. Decisions About Procedures and Authority
  3. Documentation
  4. Ethics
  5. Infection Prevention and Control
  6. Medication
  7. Nurse Practitioner
  8. Professional Standards,
  9. Restraints
  10. Therapeutic Nurse-Client Relationship
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17
Q

The College of Nurses of Ontario (the College)
produces a number of____________ ____________ and guidelines to support nurses in providing safe,
effective and ethical nursing care to the people of
Ontario

A

practice standards

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18
Q

Practice guidelines help nurses understand their
________________, and to make safe and effective
decisions in their nursing practice.

A

RESPONSIBILITIES

19
Q

Practice standards outline the expectations for nurses
that contribute to public protection. They inform
nurses of their _________________ and the public of what to expect of nurses. The standards apply to all nurses regardless of their role, job description or area of
practice.

A

accountabilities

20
Q

The Nursing Act includes regulations that identify professional misconduct. Some of the professional misconduct regulations relevant to a nurse’s decision to accept delegation and perform procedures include the following:
1. Contravening a standard of practice of the profession or failing to meet the standard of
practice of the profession.
2. Directing a member, student or other health
care team member to perform nursing functions for which she or he is not adequately trained or competent to perform.
3. Failing to inform the member’s employer of her
or his inability to accept specific responsibility in areas in which specific training is required or for which the member is not competent to function without supervision.
4. Contravening a provision of the Nursing Act, the Regulated Health Professions Act, 1991 or
regulations under either of those acts.

A

Professional misconduct.

21
Q

PURPOSE OF MANDATORY REPORTING

A

Mandatory reporting ensures that the College is alerted if there is a concern that a nurse is not practising safely. It allows the College to take action to protect the public and use innovative approaches to help rehabilitate the nurse when necessary.

22
Q

WHO IS SUBJECT TO MANDATORY REPORTING?

A

All regulatory health professionals are subject to
mandatory reporting.

  1. FACILITY OPERATORS
  2. EMPLOYERS
  3. NURSES
23
Q

What does the College do when it receives a report of misconduct?

A
  1. The College’s Executive Director reviews the report along with any information about the nurse that the College may have previously received.
  2. The Executive Director assesses the level of risk posed to the public and determines an appropriate regulatory response
24
Q
  1. SEXUAL ABUSE
  2. INCOMPETENCE
  3. INCAPACITY
  4. CHARGED WITH AN OFFENCE
  5. GUILTY OF OFFENCE
  6. FINDING OF PROFESSIONAL NEGLIGENCE OR MALPRACTICE
  7. PROCEEDING IN ANY JURISDICTION
  8. FINDING IN ANY JURISDICTION
A

MANDATORY REPORT WORTHY STUFF

25
Q

ACTS THAT CONSTITUTE A BREACH OR ABUSE OF THE NURSE-CLIENT RELATIONSHIP ARE CONSIDERED ______________ ______________, AS IS CONDUCT THAT DEMONSTRATES LACK OF INTEGRITY.

  • NURSE’S CONDUCT THAT IS HARMFUL IN ANY WAY
  • UNDERMINES OR DETRACTS FROM THE CARING RELATIONSHIP WITH AND FOR THE CLIENT, IS NOT CONSISTENT WITH EXPECTED PROFESSIONAL STANDARDS.
A

PROFESSIONAL MISCONDUCT

26
Q

CNO’S STANDARD OF PRACTICE IN RELATION TO PROFESSIONAL CONSISTS OF 3 KEY COMPONENTS?

A
  1. PROFESSIONAL STANDARDS
  2. PRACTICE EXPECTATIONS
  3. LEGISLATION & REGULATIONS
27
Q

IN REGARDS TO PROFESSIONAL MISCONDUCT:
The ___________ ___ ___________:
■ provide a guide to the knowledge, skills,
judgment and attitudes that are needed to practise
safely;
■ describe what each nurse is accountable and
responsible for in practice;
■ represent performance criteria against which
all nurses may be compared by consumers,
employers, colleagues and themselves; and
■ interpret nursing’s scope of practice to the public
and other health care professionals.

A

STANDARDS OF PRACTICE

28
Q

IN REGARDS TO DECISIONS ABOUT PROCEDURES AND AUTHORITY:

THERE ARE 4 STANDARDS THAT DESCRIBES A NURSE’S ACCOUNTABILITIES WHEN PERFORMING ANY PROCEDURE, WHETHER OR NOT IT REQUIRES DELEGATION.

A
  1. APPROPRIATE HEALTH CARE PROVIDER: Nurses must consider each situation to determine if the performance of the procedure promotes safe client care, and if it is appropriate for a nurse to perform the procedure
  2. AUTHORITY: Nurses ensure that they have the appropriate authority before performing procedures.
  3. COMPETENCE: Nurses ensure that they are competent in both the cognitive and technical aspects of a procedure prior to performing it
  4. MANAGING OUTCOMES: Prior to performing procedures, nurses ensure
    that they are able to identify the potential outcomes of procedures, have the authority and competence to manage the outcomes, or have the resources available to manage those outcomes.
29
Q

When a nurse is deciding to refuse an assignment or discontinue care the primary concern is client _____ & ________

A

safety and well being.

30
Q

RHPA

A

Regulated Health Professions Act,

31
Q

WHICH ACT consists of two elements: a scope of practice statement and a series of authorized or controlled acts.

Contains a procedural code applicable to all of
Ontario’s self-regulated health professions

A

RHPA

32
Q

RNs and RPNs are authorized to perform three of
the 13 _________ acts. They are:
1. Performing a prescribed procedure below the
dermis or a mucous membrane.
2. Administering a substance by injection or
inhalation.
3. Putting an instrument, hand or finger
i. beyond the external ear canal,
ii. beyond the point in the nasal passages
where they normally narrow,
iii. beyond the larynx,
iv. beyond the opening of the urethra,
v. beyond the labia majora,
vi. beyond the anal verge, or
vii. into an artificial opening into the body

A

controlled

33
Q

A Registered Nurse (RN) or Registered Practical
Nurse (RPN) may perform a ___________ within the
controlled acts authorized to nursing:

■ if it is ordered by a physician, dentist, chiropodist,
midwife or Nurse Practitioner (NP); or

■ if it is initiated by an RN or RPN in accordance
with conditions identified in regulation.

A

procedure

34
Q

The _________ ___ contains a scope of practice statement, as well as provisions and regulations specific to the nursing profession

A

Nursing Act

35
Q

Consent is _________ if, before giving it:
■ the person received the information about the treatment that a reasonable person in the same circumstances would require to make a decision; And
■ the person received responses to his/her requests for additional information about the treatment.
■ Informed consent does not always need to be written, but can be oral or implied.

A

informed

36
Q

MINUMUM AGE OF CONSENT

A

NO MINIMUM AGE

37
Q

The _______ must:
◗ relate to the treatment being proposed;
◗ be informed;
◗ be voluntary; and
◗ not have been obtained through misrepresentation or fraud.

A

consent

38
Q

The health care practitioner who proposes the treatment is responsible for determining _________ for consent to treatment

A

capacity

39
Q

When an RN accepts a position as an RPN, or
when an RN or RPN accepts a position as a UCP,
the nurse is expected to fulfil only the requirements
of the ____________ job description

A

position’s

40
Q

The means used to document and communicate to a substitute decision-maker a client’s preferences regarding treatment in the event that the client becomes incapable of expressing those wishes

A

ADVANCE DIRECTIVE

41
Q

A client is __________ when he or she can
understand the information that is relevant to
making a decision about treatment, and appreciate
the reasonably predictable consequences of a
decision or lack of decision

A

capable

42
Q

An invasive and immediate life-saving treatment that is administered to a client who has a sudden unexpected cardiac or respiratory arrest.

A

RESUSCITATION

43
Q

A client’s wishes about __________ may be expressed in:
■ a power of attorney for personal care;
■ any written form;
■ a verbal form; or
■ any other manner (such as sign language).

A

treatment

44
Q

IN REGARDS TO END OF LIFE CARE:

Client’s wishes about treatment:

  • can be changed at any time (nurses must respect the most current wishes and ensure the client has given informed consent for the treatment choice); and
  • are to be interpreted by the client’s _____________ ___________ if the client is found to be incapable; and the wishes do not constitute consent or refusal of consent
A

substitute decision-maker

PROFESSIONAL GROWTH (1 decks)

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