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BIOM*3090 > Midterm - Practice Questions > Flashcards

Midterm - Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of major receptor is most associated with a “refractory period” after it is activated
a. G-protein coupled receptors
b. Voltage activated sodium channels
c. Nuclear hormone receptors (intracellular receptors)
d. Tyrosine kinase-associated receptors

A

Voltage activated sodium channels

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2
Q

The sulfonylurea (SUR1) receptor regulates the ATPdependent Na+ channel in pancreatic ℬ-cells
a. True
b. False

A

False

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3
Q

Induction of cytochrome P450 metabolizing enzymes can ____________ the metabolism of a drug, which will _____________ the elimination half life of a drug
a. increase; decrease
b. decrease; increase
c. increase; increase
d. decrease; decrease

A

Increase; decrease

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4
Q

Which receptor regulation term best describes “repeated or persistent drug-receptor interaction results in the removal of the receptor from the site (plasma membrane) of drug-receptor
interaction”
A. Desensitization
B. Tachyphylaxis
C. Down-regulation

A

Down-regulation

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5
Q

Regarding the graph below depicting a semi-logarithmic plot of plasma drug X concentration (Y axis) versus time (X axis) after intravenous administration of 500 mg; the approximate elimination half life is:
a. 2 hrs
b. 4 hrs
c. 8 hrs
d. 1 hr

A

4 hrs

(from 64 to 32ug/mL, from time 0 to 4 hrs)

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about agonists and antagonists is MOST correct
    A. Partial agonists are able to achieve the same maximal responses to full agonists with increased agonist concentrations
    B. Negative allosteric modulators enhance agonist effects
    C. Competitive receptor antagonists depress the maximal response or Emax value of the agonist
    D. Non-receptor antagonists include chemical antagonists and physiologic antagonists
A

Non-receptor antagonists include chemical antagonists and physiologic antagonists

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7
Q

Which one of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system is FALSE?
a. Monoamine oxidase metabolizes norepinephrine
b. Acetylcholine is synthesized by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase
c. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system stimulates the secretion of epinephrine from the adrenal gland
d. All parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release acetylcholine
e. Activation of M2 receptors increases the rate and force of contraction of the heart

A

Activation of M2 receptors increases the rate and force of contraction of the heart

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8
Q

Which one of the following statements about autonomic drugs is TRUE?
a. Bethanechol is used to reduce the motility of the stomach or intestines
b. Epinephrine administration will contract smooth muscle in the bronchi
c. Dobutamine is an α2 receptor antagonist
d. Pilocarpine administration decreases blood pressure
e. Administration of muscarine will contract skeletal muscle

A

Pilocarpine administration decreases blood pressure

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9
Q

Which one of the following is an effect of a beta receptor antagonist?
a. Skeletal muscle contraction
b. Decreased heart rate
c. Bronchodilation
d. Increased intraocular pressure
e. Pupil dilation

A

Decreased heart rate

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10
Q

Which one of the following is an expected effect of a therapeutic dose of clonidine?
a. Decreased cAMP in presynaptic nerve terminals
b. Decreased DAG in intestinal smooth muscle
c. Increased cAMP in cardiac muscle cells
d. Increased cAMP in cells of the salivary gland
e. Increased EDRF release from endothelial cells that line blood vessels

A

Decreased cAMP in presynaptic nerve terminals

(b would also be accepted)

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11
Q

Which one of the following acts as a direct agonist at both nicotinic and muscarinic receptors?
a. Yohimbine
b. Atropine
c. Physostigmine
d. Acetylcholine
e. Butoxamine

A

Acetylcholine

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12
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Dobutamine can be used to treat hypertension
b. Atropine will dilate the pupil without relaxing the ciliary muscle
c. Isoproterenol will increase heart rate and blood flow to skeletal muscle
d. Amphetamine administration will dilate blood vessels and decrease heart rate
e. Trimethaphan increases norepinephrine release and can activate adrenergic receptors directly

A

Isoproterenol will increase heart rate and blood flow to skeletal muscle

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13
Q

Which one of the following effects of norepinephrine would be blocked by prazosin but not by metoprolol?
a. Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth muscle
b. Increased heart rate
c. Relaxation of smooth muscle cells in blood vessels
d. Dilation of the pupil
e. Relaxation of smooth muscle cells in the uterus

A

Dilation of the pupil

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14
Q

Blockers of α1 receptors can be used to treat which one of the following?
a. Asthma
b. Overactive bladder
c. Glaucoma
d. Hypertension
e. Anaphylactic shock

A

Hypertension

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15
Q

All of the following are symptoms of muscarinic excess EXCEPT:
a. Bronchodilation
b. Diarrhea
c. Constricted pupils
d. Sweating
e. Salivation

A

Bronchodilation

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16
Q

Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Cocaine can be used to reduce local blood flow
b. Propranolol administration will reduce blood pressure
c. Bethanechol can be used to treat hypotension
d. Epinephrine can be used to treat cardiac arrest
e. Physostigmine can be used to treat glaucoma

A

Bethanechol can be used to treat hypotension

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17
Q

Match Trimethaphan with the appropriate use or effect
1. Muscarinic receptor antagonist
2. Can be used to treat glaucoma
3. Bronchodilator
4. Ganglionic blocker
5. Irreversible acetylcholinesterase

A

Ganglionic blocker

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18
Q

Match Echothiophate with the appropriate use or effect
1. Muscarinic receptor antagonist
2. Can be used to treat glaucoma
3. Bronchodilator
4. Ganglionic blocker
5. Irreversible acetylcholinesterase

A

Can be used to treat glaucoma
AND
Irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

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19
Q

Match Atropine with the appropriate use or effect
1. Muscarinic receptor antagonist
2. Can be used to treat glaucoma
3. Bronchodilator
4. Ganglionic blocker
5. Irreversible acetylcholinesterase

A

Muscarinic receptor antagonist
AND
Bronchodilator

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20
Q

Match Pilocarpine with the appropriate use or effect
1. Muscarinic receptor antagonist
2. Can be used to treat glaucoma
3. Bronchodilator
4. Ganglionic blocker
5. Irreversible acetylcholinesterase

A

Can be used to treat glaucoma

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21
Q

Match Albuterol with the appropriate use or effect
1. Muscarinic receptor antagonist
2. Can be used to treat glaucoma
3. Bronchodilator
4. Ganglionic blocker
5. Irreversible acetylcholinesterase

A

Bronchodilator

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22
Q

You perform the following experiment: you inject drug X into a tissue bath preparation that contains a section of gastrointestinal (GI) tract smooth muscle. Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nerve terminals are present in the tissue and the ganglia located closest to this piece of GI tract are still attached. In this experiment drug X produces a contraction.
(a) From the list of drugs provided below, which drug(s) might be causing the contraction?
acetylcholine, nicotine, trimethaphan, clonidine, yohimbine, isoproterenol.

A

acetylcholine, nicotine, yohimbine

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23
Q

Next you add trimethaphan to the tissue bath followed by the addition of drug X. In the presence of trimethaphan drug X still increases the contraction of the GI smooth muscle.
(b) From the list below, which drug(s) have you eliminated as a candidate for drug X?
acetylcholine, nicotine, yohimbine

A

nicotine

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24
Q

You switch tissue preparations. You are now using isolated skeletal muscle cells with no presynaptic input present. When you add drug X to this preparation the skeletal muscle cells contract.
(c) What is the identity of drug X?
acetylcholine, yohimbine

A

acetylcholine

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25
Q

How might the following symptoms have been induced?
Blurred vision:

A

inhibition of muscarinic receptors = dilation of pupil + relaxation of ciliary muscles = loss of accommodation

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26
Q

How might the following symptoms have been induced?
Heat prostration:

A

inhibition of muscarinic receptors on sweat glands = decreased secretion

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27
Q

What autonomic pathways & neurotransmitters normally regulate these physiological responses?
Blurred vision:

A

PSNS / ACh

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28
Q

What autonomic pathways & neurotransmitters normally regulate these physiological responses?
Heat prostration:

A

SNS/ ACh

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29
Q

What symptoms would indicate exposure to organophosphates?

A

symptoms of muscarinic excess + effects of increased ACh in the CNS, at ganglia and skeletal muscle
“dumbbels”
Diarrhea
Urination
Miosis
Bradycardia
Bronchoconstriction
Excitation (CNS)
Lacrimation
Sweating and salivation

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30
Q

In case of nerve gas exposure, military personnel are issued injectors containing atropine and pralidoxime. Why are atropine and pralidoxime used?

A
  • atropine treats symptoms of muscarinic excess; short half life & does not help with nicotinic receptor effects
  • pralidoxime removes the organophosphate from acetylcholinesterase
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31
Q

(a) Which of the following drugs causes relaxation?
acetylcholine, albuterol, atropine, clonidine, isoproterenol, nicotine

A

albuterol, atropine, clonidine, isoproterenol

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32
Q

You add propranolol to the tissue bath followed by the addition of drug X. Drug X no longer causes relaxation.
(b) Which drug (s) from the list below have you eliminated as a candidate for drug X?
albuterol, atropine, clonidine, isoproterenol

A

atropine, clonidine

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33
Q

You switch tissue preparations. You are now using isolated cardiac muscle cells with no presynaptic input. When you add drug X the cells contract.
(c) What is the identity of drug X?
albuterol, isoproterenol

A

isoproterenol

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34
Q

A child has swallowed the contents of a bottle of nasal decongestant containing an alpha receptor agonist. Which of the following symptoms would be observed?
a) Elevated blood pressure
b) Constriction of pupils
c) Increased urinary frequency
d) Increased gastric secretion
e) Sweating

A

Elevated blood pressure

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35
Q

What drug would inhibit the effect of elevated blood pressure caused by alpha receptor agonist consumption?

A

Prazosin

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36
Q

Local anaesthetics are used to alleviate pain and improve patient comfort in a number of procedures (eg. tooth extraction, wound cleaning, stitches, surgical procedures). For some procedures the duration of action of the anaesthetic may be too short. What autonomic drugs could be combined with the local anaesthetic to increase its duration of action?

A

Any drug that vasoconstricts (activate alpha1)
- direct agonists = norepinephrine, epinephrine, phenylephrine
- indirect agonists = cocaine, amphetamine, tyramine

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37
Q

Match Prazosin with the most appropriate effect or use listed below.
a. Can be used to treat hypertension in asthmatics
b. Long acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
c. Can be used to treat glaucoma
d. Decreases skeletal muscle contraction following exposure to organophosphates
e. Can be used to treat frequent urination

A

Can be used to treat hypertension in asthmatics

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38
Q

Match Atropine with the most appropriate effect or use listed below.
a. Can be used to treat hypertension in asthmatics
b. Long acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
c. Can be used to treat glaucoma
d. Decreases skeletal muscle contraction following exposure to organophosphates
e. Can be used to treat frequent urination

A

Can be used to treat frequent urination

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39
Q

Match Propranolol with the most appropriate effect or use listed below.
a. Can be used to treat hypertension in asthmatics
b. Long acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
c. Can be used to treat glaucoma
d. Decreases skeletal muscle contraction following exposure to organophosphates
e. Can be used to treat frequent urination

A

Can be used to treat glaucoma

40
Q

Drug Y administered alone causes a decrease in blood pressure. In the presence of a ganglionic blocker, Drug Y reduces blood pressure even further while in the presence of a muscarinic blocker, Drug Y produces no change in blood pressure. Drug Y is probably a drug similar to?
a. Atropine
b. D-tubocurarine
c. Prazosin
d. Pralidoxime
e. Pilocarpine

A

Pilocarpine

41
Q

Which autonomic drugs could an ophthalmologist use to dilate the pupil to allow examination of the retina?

A

phenylephrine, atropine

42
Q

A patient is brought to the emergency room with a suspected overdose. Physical exam reveals the pupils are fixed and dilated and heart rate is increased. Which autonomic drugs could produce these symptoms?

A

atropine, cocaine, amphetamine

43
Q

What autonomic drugs could be used to treat the following:
Premature labour:

A

albuterol

44
Q

What autonomic drugs could be used to treat the following:
Hemorrhage:

A

phenylephrine

45
Q

What autonomic drugs could be used to treat the following:
Dry mouth:

A

pilocarpine

46
Q

What autonomic drugs could be used to treat the following:
Excess sweating:

A

atropine

47
Q

What autonomic drugs could be used to treat the following:
Hypertension:

A

prazosin, metoprolol, propranolol, clonidine

48
Q

Which receptor regulation term best describes a rapid drug-induced inhibition of a receptor.
a. receptor inactivation
b. receptor down-regulation
c. receptor tachyphylaxis
d. receptor desensitization

A

receptor tachyphylaxis

49
Q

Which one of the following regarding drug-receptor interactions is MOST correct
a. drugs that bind through strong chemical bonds or forces with their receptors are more selective for their receptors
b. covalent bonds between drugs and receptors are usually reversible
c. a racemic mixture of a drug is a 50:50 mixture of both enantiomers
d. enantiomers of a drug are usually equal at producing effects at the target site

A

a racemic mixture of a drug is a 50:50 mixture of both enantiomers

50
Q

Which one of the following is the correct order for the activation of a G-protein receptor
a. Ligand binding; effector activation, G-protein activation, GTP hydrolysis
b. Ligand binding, G-protein activation, GTP hydrolysis, effector activation
c. Ligand binding, GTP hydrolysis, effector activation, G-protein activation
d. Ligand binding, G-protein activation, effector activation, GTP hydrolysis

A

Ligand binding, G-protein activation, effector activation, GTP hydrolysis

51
Q

Regarding antagonists, which one of the following is MOST correct
a. A chemical antagonist type of non-receptor antagonist inactivates the receptor of interest by modifying or sequestering it thereby rendering it inactive
b. Competitive antagonists bind irreversibly to the receptor active site
c. Non-competitive antagonists can be “washed out” by higher agonist concentrations
d. An antagonist is a molecule that inhibits the action of the agonist by preventing its binding to the receptor

A

An antagonist is a molecule that inhibits the action of the agonist by preventing its binding to the receptor

52
Q

Which one of the following NAPRA schedules of drugs must involve a pharmacist
a. NAPRA I only
b. NAPRA III only
c. NAPRA I and II only
d. All NAPRA schedules

A

NAPRA I and II only

53
Q

A physician wishes to administer a drug for an emergency situation; which route of administration is MOST appropriate
a. Intravenous
b. Subcutaneous
c. Intramuscular
d. Oral

A

Intravenous

54
Q

Which form of transfer of drugs across membranes dominates for most drugs
a. Paracellular transport
b. Facilitated transport
c. Active transport
d. Passive diffusion

A

Passive diffusion

55
Q

What percentage (%) of drug X in the blood would be eliminated after 3 half-lives (t1/2)
a. 87.5%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 93.75%

A

87.5%

56
Q

Regarding the excretion of drugs; free (unbound) drug and metabolites are freely filtered at the __________, while active drug secretion into the urine occurs in the _________
a. Proximal convoluted tubules; Distal convoluted tubules
b. Distal convoluted tubules; Glomerulus
c. Glomerulus; Proximal convoluted tubules
d. Glomerulus; Distal convoluted tubules

A

Glomerulus; Proximal convoluted tubules

57
Q

Decreased clearance of a drug in a patient with hepatic (liver) failure could __________ the elimination half-life of a drug, while decreased distribution of a drug in an elderly person with reduced muscle mass could _________ the elimination half-life of a drug
a. Increase; decrease
b. Decrease; increase
c. Increase; increase
d. Decrease; decrease

A

Increase; decrease

58
Q

Which one of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system is TRUE?
a. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system decreases blood flow to skeletal muscles
b. Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons are located in the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord
c. Acetylcholinesterase breaks down norepinephrine
d. Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release acetylcholine
e. Ganglia of the parasympathetic nervous system are found near the spinal cord

A

Parasympathetic postganglionic neurons release acetylcholine

59
Q

When the seed (a bean) of the Calabar plant is ingested it produces signs of an indirect-acting cholinomimetic that enters the central nervous system. Which one of the following is the most likely active ingredient of the Calabar bean?
a. Nicotine
b. Physostigmine
c. Atropine
d. Muscarine
e. Trimethaphan

A

Physostigmine

60
Q

Which of the following effects of nicotine would be blocked by trimethaphan but not atropine
a. Decreased heart rate
b. Increase gastrointestinal motility
c. Contraction of vascular smooth muscle in blood vessels supplying the organs and skin
d. Constriction of the pupil
e. Increased secretion from sweat glands

A

Contraction of vascular smooth muscle in blood vessels supplying the organs and skin

61
Q

Pilocarpine and echothiophate will have significantly different effects on which one of the following?
a. Sweat gland secretion
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Skeletal muscle contraction
d. Gastrointestinal motility
e. Contraction of the sphincter muscle in the eye

A

Skeletal muscle contraction

62
Q

All of the following statements about prazosin are true EXCEPT
a. It is an alpha-1 receptor antagonist
b. It decreases blood pressure by relaxing vascular smooth muscle
c. It causes constriction of pupils
d. It will block phenylephrine-induced hypertension
e. It inhibits epinephrine-induced relaxation of bladder smooth muscle

A

It inhibits epinephrine-induced relaxation of bladder smooth muscle

63
Q

Both cocaine and epinephrine
a. Constrict blood vessels supplying the skin
b. Increase secretion from salivary glands
c. Dilate blood vessels in skeletal muscle
d. Constrict pupils without contracting the ciliary muscle
e. Are direct-acting adrenergic agonists

A

Constrict blood vessels supplying the skin

64
Q

Which one of the following is correct? Isoproterenol…..
a. Increases heart rate and causes bronchodilation
b. Can decrease muscle contraction following exposure to clonidine
c. increases the drainage of aqueous humor from the eye
d. Inhibits monoamine oxidase activity
e. Causes increased urination

A

Increases heart rate and causes bronchodilation

65
Q

Epinephrine and atropine will have significantly different effects on which one of the following?
a. Gastrointestinal motility
b. Heart rate
c. Sweat gland secretion
d. Pupil dilation
e. Bronchodilation

A

Sweat gland secretion

66
Q

A new drug is undergoing clinical trials. Following injection of this drug into healthy volunteers, increased heart rate is observed. This response is followed shortly after by vasodilation. Which one of the following does this new drug resemble?
a. Phenylephrine
b. Propranolol
c. Echothiophate
d. D-tubocurarine
e. Dobutamine

A

Dobutamine

67
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Cocaine inhibits monoamine oxidase activity
b. Bethanechol is a short-acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
c. Propranolol should be used to treat hypertension in asthmatic patients
d. Atropine can be used to treat frequent urination
e. Antagonists of α-receptors relax smooth muscle cells in bronchi

A

Atropine can be used to treat frequent urination

68
Q

When the seed (a bean) of the Calabar plant is ingested it produces signs of an indirect-acting cholinomimetic that enters the central nervous system. Which one of the following is the most likely active ingredient of the Calabar bean?
a. Physostigmine
b. Trimethaphan
c. Nicotine
d. Muscarine
e. Atropine

A

Physostigmine

69
Q

All of the following statements about prazosin are true EXCEPT
a. It causes constriction of pupils
b. It will block phenylephrine-induced hypertension
c. It decreases blood pressure by relaxing vascular smooth muscle
d. It inhibits epinephrine-induced relaxation of bladder smooth muscle
e. It is an alpha-1 receptor antagonist

A

It inhibits epinephrine-induced relaxation of bladder smooth muscle

70
Q

Which one of the following treatments would be an effective treatment for anaphylactic shock (cardiovascular and respiratory collapse)?
a. Metoprolol
b. Prazosin
c. Propranolol
d. Butoxamine
e. Epinephrine

A

Epinephrine

71
Q

Glaucoma can be treated by all of the following EXCEPT
a. Isoproterenol
b. Clonidine
c. Physostigmine
d. Propranolol
e. Pilocarpine

A

Isoproterenol

72
Q

Administration of drug X alone causes an increase in blood pressure but in someone pretreated with trimethaphan no change in blood pressure occurs. Drug X is probably a drug similar to?
a. Atropine
b. Nicotine
c. Muscarine
d. Pilocarpine
e. Pralidoxime

A

Nicotine

73
Q

All of the following drugs increase blood pressure EXCEPT
a. Epinephrine
b. Amphetamine
c. Albuterol
d. Yohimbine
e. Phenylephrine

A

Albuterol

74
Q

In a comparison between muscarine and acetylcholine, which one of the following statements is correct?
a. Both decrease sweating and constrict pupils
b. Neither causes vasodilation and decreased heart rate
c. Both cause increased gastrointestinal motility
d. Both are rapidly hydrolyzed by acetylcholinesterase
e. Both contract skeletal muscle

A

Both cause increased gastrointestinal motility

75
Q

Which one of the following would cause relaxation of vascular smooth muscle followed by a reflex increase in heart rate?
a. Phenylephrine
b. Metoprolol
c. Physostigmine
d. Prazosin
e. Bethanechol

A

Prazosin

76
Q

Which one of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system is FALSE?
a. Stimulation of b1 receptors results in decreased secretion from sweat glands and an increase in heart rate
b. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine
c. Acetylcholine is synthesized by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase
d. Monoamine oxidase breaks down norepinephrine
e. Activation of M2 receptors in the heart results in a decrease in heart rate

A

Stimulation of b1 receptors results in decreased secretion from sweat glands and an increase in heart rate

77
Q

A new drug is undergoing clinical trials. Following injection of this drug into healthy volunteers, increased heart rate is observed. This response is followed shortly after by vasodilation. Which one of the following does this new drug resemble?
a. Propranolol
b. Echothiophate
c. Phenylephrine
d. D-tubocurarine
e. Dobutamine

A

Dobutamine

78
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Both clonidine and muscarine decrease heart rate
b. Acetylcholine and nicotine activate muscarinic receptors in skeletal muscle
c. Atropine and norepinephrine have opposite effects on pupil dilation
d. All direct-acting adrenergic agonists increase blood pressure
e. Pralidoxime and nicotine can be used to treat organophosphate poisoning

A

Both clonidine and muscarine decrease heart rate

79
Q

Which one of the following receptors mediates the effect of pilocarpine in the smooth muscle of the bronchi?
a. M3
b. M1
c. NN
d. NM
e. M2

A

M3

80
Q

Which one of the following is correct? Isoproterenol…..
a. Increases the drainage of aqueous humor from the eye
b. Causes increased urination
c. Inhibits monoamine oxidase activity
d. Can decrease muscle contraction following exposure to clonidine
e. Increases heart rate and causes bronchodilation

A

Increases heart rate and causes bronchodilation

81
Q

All of the following drugs relax gastrointestinal smooth muscle EXCEPT
a. Atropine
b. Propranolol
c. Trimethaphan
d. Clonidine
e. Albuterol

A

Propranolol

82
Q

Regarding the excretion of drugs; free (unbound) drug and metabolites are freely filtered at the __________, while active drug secretion into the urine occurs in the _________
a. Proximal convoluted tubules; Distal convoluted tubules
b. Distal convoluted tubules; Glomerulus
c. Glomerulus; Proximal convoluted tubules
d. Glomerulus; Distal convoluted tubules

A

Glomerulus; Proximal convoluted tubules

83
Q

Which form of transfer of drugs across membranes dominates for most drugs
a. Facilitated transport
b. Paracellular transport
c. Active transport
d. Passive diffusion

A

Passive diffusion

84
Q

Administration of Drug X alone causes an increase in blood pressure but in someone pretreated with prazosin, no change in blood pressure occurs. Drug X is probably a drug similar to?
a. Phenylephrine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Trimethaphan
e. Nicotine

A

Phenylephrine

85
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Phenylephrine will dilate the pupil without contracting the ciliary muscle
b. Physostigmine is a direct agonist at nicotinic receptors
c. Butoxamine can be used to treat hypertension
d. Clonidine administration will dilate blood vessels and increase heart rate
e. Bethanechol will decrease gastrointestinal motility and decrease blood flow to skeletal muscle

A

Phenylephrine will dilate the pupil without contracting the ciliary muscle

86
Q

A six-year-old child is admitted to the emergency room with a suspected antimuscarinic overdose. The probable signs of this overdose include which one of the following?
a. Fever and increased sweating
b. Increased urination
c. Bronchoconstriction
d. Excessive salivation and cramping of gastrointestinal smooth muscle
e. Increased heart rate

A

Increased heart rate

87
Q

Which one of the following is an expected effect of a therapeutic dose of pilocarpine?
a. Increased cAMP in cells of the salivary gland
b. Decreased EDRF release from endothelial cells that line blood vessels
c. Reduction of sodium influx into skeletal muscle
d. Decreased cAMP in cardiac muscle
e. Decreased DAG in intestinal smooth muscle

A

Decreased cAMP in cardiac muscle

88
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding elimination of drugs from the body is MOST correct
a. Drugs are eliminated from the body primarily unchanged, and by excretion
b. First order elimination involves the elimination of a constant fraction (%) of drug in the blood (body) per unit time
c. The liver is the most important excretory organ

A

First order elimination involves the elimination of a constant fraction (%) of drug in the blood (body) per unit time

89
Q

Which one of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system is TRUE?
a. The sympathetic nervous system is activated when baroreceptors detect low blood pressure
b. Monoamine oxidase converts dopamine to norepinephrine
c. All sympathetic postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine
d. Ganglia of the parasympathetic nervous system are found near the spinal cord
e. Choline acetyltransferase breaks down acetylcholine

A

The sympathetic nervous system is activated when baroreceptors detect low blood pressure

90
Q

Which one of the following statements about the autonomic nervous system is FALSE?
a. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons release acetylcholine
b. Acetylcholinesterase breaks down acetylcholine
c. Chatechol-o-methyltransferase breaks down norepinephrine
d. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system increases sweating
e. Parasympathetic nervous system activity is increased when baroreceptors detect low blood pressure

A

Parasympathetic nervous system activity is increased when baroreceptors detect low blood pressure

91
Q

All of the following drugs increase cAMP levels EXCEPT
a. Muscarine
b. Yohimbine
c. Dobutamine
d. Albuterol
e. Isoproterenol

A

Muscarine

92
Q

Which one of the following statements is FALSE?
a. Pilocarpine causes relaxation of the ciliary muscle which results in blurred vision
b. Albuterol can be used to treat asthma
c. Cocaine can be used to reduce local blood flow
d. Physostigmine is an indirect-acting cholinomimetic
e. Muscarine causes vasodilation that can be blocked by atropine

A

Pilocarpine causes relaxation of the ciliary muscle which results in blurred vision

93
Q

All of the following drugs can increase intracellular IP3 and DAG levels EXCEPT
a. Pilocarpine
b. Phenylephrine
c. Muscarine
d. Acetylcholine
e. Albuterol

A

Albuterol

94
Q

A 72-year-old woman with diabetes was sent to a specialist to assess changes that may have occurred to her retinas as a result of her diabetes. Which one of the following drugs would be a good choice for pupil dilation to allow examination of the retina?
a. Dobutamine
b. Phenylephrine
c. Prazosin
d. Propranolol
e. Isoproterenol

A

Phenylephrine

95
Q

Will a weakly acidic drug (aspirin) with a pKa of 6.5 accumulate more in intestinal juices (assuming a pH = 5.4) or in the blood space (assuming a pH = 7.4)?

A

Blood space

96
Q

Will a weakly basic drug (methamphetamine) with a pKa of 10.0 accumulate more in the urine (assuming a pH = 6.0) or in the blood space (assuming a pH = 7.4)?

A

Urine

BIOM*3090 (3 decks)

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