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Human Pathophysiology > Midterm Patho > Flashcards

Midterm Patho Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cause of a disease called?

A

Etiology

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2
Q

A non-infected blister is an example of what?

A

Transudate

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3
Q

Keloid formation is an example of what type of cellular adaptation?

A

Hyperplasia

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4
Q

What chemicals cause fevers?

A

Pyrogens

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5
Q

What type of neoplasm does not metastasize?

A

Benign tumor

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6
Q

Narrowing of an open area, such as the esophagus, is called what?

A

Stricture

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7
Q

What is the microscopic study of tissues?

A

Histology

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8
Q

What mast cell chemical causes sneezing, a runny nose, and upper respiratory irritation?

A

Histamine

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9
Q

What term describes prolonged ischemia and necrosis in the extremities?

A

Gangrene

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10
Q

What is an abnormal connection between two structures?

A

Fistula

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11
Q

What is another word for pus?

A

Purulent exudate

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12
Q

What is the removal of necrotic tissue called?

A

Debridement

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13
Q

What is the term for new, disorganized, and uncontrolled growth?

A

Neoplasia

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14
Q

What are chemical signals that attract WBCs and platelets?

A

Chemotaxis

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15
Q

Shrinkage of skeletal muscle due to paralysis is called what?

A

Atrophy

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16
Q

Something the nurse would see on the patient, like a rash, is called what?

A

Sign

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17
Q

A subjective feeling a patient describes (like feeling cold) is called what?

A

Symptom

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18
Q

The general appearance of chromosomes in a species or individual is called what?

A

Karyotype

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19
Q

What are two causes of cellular injury?

A
  • Hypoxia (lack of oxygen)
  • Toxic exposure (chemicals, infections, radiation, etc.)
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20
Q

What is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?

A
  • Apoptosis = Programmed cell death (controlled, no inflammation)
  • Necrosis = Uncontrolled cell death due to injury (causes inflammation)
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21
Q

What type of genetic disorder is Cystic Fibrosis (CF)?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder affecting the lungs and digestive system

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22
Q

What are the symptoms of Cystic Fibrosis?

A
  • Thick mucus production
  • Chronic lung infections
  • Digestive problems (malabsorption, pancreatic insufficiency)
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23
Q

What is the treatment for Cystic Fibrosis?

A
  • Antibiotics
  • Airway clearance therapy
  • Pancreatic enzyme replacement
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24
Q

What type of genetic disorder is Tay-Sachs Disease?

A

Autosomal recessive disorder due to deficiency of Hexosaminidase A enzyme

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25
Q

What are symptoms of Tay-Sachs Disease?

A
  • Loss of motor skills
  • Seizures
  • Vision & hearing loss
  • Cherry-red macula on eye exam
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26
Q

What type of genetic disorder is Down Syndrome?

A

Chromosomal disorder (Trisomy 21 - extra chromosome 21)

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27
Q

What are the key symptoms of Down Syndrome?

A
  • Intellectual disability
  • Characteristic facial features (flat face, epicanthic folds, small ears, short neck)
  • Congenital heart defects
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28
Q

What type of genetic disorder is Huntington’s Disease?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder due to CAG repeat expansion in HTT gene

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29
Q

What are symptoms of Huntington’s Disease?

A
  • Chorea (involuntary dance-like movements)
  • Cognitive decline & behavioral changes
  • Progressive motor dysfunction
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30
Q

What is a cut that heals by Primary Intention?

A
  • Wound edges are well-approximated
  • Minimal scarring
  • Example: Surgical incision with sutures
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31
Q

What is a cut that heals by Secondary Intention?

A
  • Wound heals from the bottom up
  • More scarring & takes longer to heal
  • Example: Large burns, pressure ulcers
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32
Q

What is a cut that heals by Tertiary Intention?

A
  • Wound left open initially, then closed later
  • Allows drainage & reduces infection risk
  • Example: Infected wounds requiring debridement
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33
Q

What type of pathogen is Candida, and what body system does it affect?

A
  • Fungus
  • Affects the skin, mouth (thrush), and reproductive system (yeast infections)
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34
Q

What type of pathogen causes the Common Cold?

A
  • Virus (Rhinovirus, Coronavirus, Adenovirus, etc.)
  • Affects the respiratory system
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35
Q

What type of pathogen is Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)?

A
  • Virus
  • Affects the immune system (causes mononucleosis, aka “kissing disease”)
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36
Q

What type of pathogen is Escherichia coli (E. coli)?

A
  • Bacteria
  • Affects the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, causing food poisoning & UTIs
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37
Q

What type of pathogen is Haemophilus influenzae?

A
  • Bacteria
  • Affects the respiratory system (can cause bacterial meningitis & pneumonia)
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38
Q

What type of pathogen is Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?

A
  • Virus
  • Affects skin & nervous system (causes cold sores & genital herpes)
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39
Q

What type of pathogen causes Influenza?

A
  • Virus (Influenza A & B)
  • Affects the respiratory system
40
Q

What type of pathogen is Malaria, and what body system does it affect?

A
  • Parasite (Plasmodium species)
  • Affects the blood & liver
41
Q

What type of pathogen is MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella)?

A
  • Virus
  • Affects the immune system, respiratory system, skin, and nervous system
42
Q

What type of pathogen causes Pneumonia?

A
  • Can be bacterial, viral, or fungal
  • Affects the lungs
43
Q

What type of pathogen causes Staphylococcal infections?

A
  • Bacteria
  • Affects skin (boils, abscesses) & systemic infections (MRSA, toxic shock syndrome)
44
Q

What type of pathogen causes Streptococcal infections?

A
  • Bacteria (Streptococcus species)
  • Affects throat (strep throat), skin, and bloodstream (scarlet fever, rheumatic fever)
45
Q

What type of pathogen causes Varicella (Chickenpox)?

A
  • Virus (Varicella-Zoster virus, VZV)
  • Affects the skin & nervous system (can later cause shingles)
46
Q

What is Hypersensitivity, and give an example?

A
  • Excessive immune response to an antigen
  • Example: Anaphylaxis from a bee sting
47
Q

What is an Autoimmune disorder, and give an example?

A
  • Immune system attacks the body’s own tissues
  • Example: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
48
Q

What is an Immunodeficiency disorder, and give an example?

A
  • Weak or absent immune system function
  • Example: HIV/AIDS
49
Q

How does HIV infection progress in the body?

A
  1. Acute HIV Infection (2-4 weeks after exposure)
    * Flu-like symptoms (fever, rash, swollen lymph nodes)
    * High viral load, highly contagious
  2. Chronic HIV (Clinical Latency Stage - lasts years)
    * Asymptomatic or mild symptoms
    * Gradual immune system decline as CD4+ T-cells decrease
  3. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)
    * CD4+ count falls below 200 cells/mm³
    * Opportunistic infections (e.g., tuberculosis, pneumonia)
    * Increased risk of cancers (e.g., Kaposi’s sarcoma)
50
Q

What are complications of untreated HIV progression?

A
  • Severe immunosuppression (AIDS)
  • Opportunistic infections (e.g., Pneumocystis pneumonia, tuberculosis, candidiasis)
  • Cancers (e.g., Kaposi’s sarcoma, lymphoma)
  • Neurological decline (HIV-associated dementia)
  • Severe weight loss (wasting syndrome)
51
Q

Case Study A - Cecilia was stung by a bee and had severe dyspnea, laryngeal swelling, and hypotension. What is her condition and clues?

A
  • Condition: Anaphylaxis (Severe Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction)
  • Clues:
  • History of severe allergic reaction (bee sting)
  • Immediate symptoms: difficulty breathing, swelling, low blood pressure
  • Required EpiPen (epinephrine) and emergency care
52
Q

Case Study B - Charles developed a rash on his lower legs two days after hiking. What is his condition and clues?

A
  • Condition: Contact Dermatitis (Type IV Hypersensitivity Reaction - Delayed)
  • Clues:
  • History of outdoor exposure (likely contact with poison ivy)
  • Delayed rash appearance (2 days later)
  • Skin reaction is localized to the exposed area
53
Q

Case Study C - Sara has chronic low fever, muscle pain, joint pain, a butterfly-shaped rash, anemia, and thrombocytopenia. What is her condition and clues?

A
  • Condition: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE - Autoimmune Disease)
  • Clues:
  • Butterfly-shaped rash (malar rash) on face
  • Chronic joint and muscle pain
  • Positive lab tests (anti-nuclear antibodies, anti-double-stranded DNA, anti-Sm antibodies)
  • Blood abnormalities (anemia, thrombocytopenia)
54
Q

Case Study D - Annie has painful joints, deformed fingers, and trouble typing due to immune complex deposition. What is her condition and clues?

A
  • Condition: Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA - Autoimmune Disease)
  • Clues:
  • Joint pain and stiffness in hands
  • Splayed finger deformity
  • Chronic inflammation due to immune complex deposition in joints
55
Q

What is the term for an increase in white blood cells (WBCs) in the body?

A

Leukocytosis

56
Q

What is an overwhelming allergic response that can be severe and life-threatening?

A

Anaphylaxis

57
Q

What is the proliferation of cancerous white blood cells (WBCs)?

58
Q

What is the increase of red blood cells (RBCs) in the body?

A

Polycythemia

59
Q

What is the process of stopping bleeding?

A

Hemostasis

60
Q

What type of lymphoma is characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

61
Q

What is the destruction of RBCs without adequate replacement?

62
Q

What is the medical term for hives?

63
Q

What chemical breaks up blood clots?

64
Q

What is a blood clot within a vessel?

65
Q

What are solid, abnormal tumors of lymphoid cells?

66
Q

What is the buildup of lipids along blood vessel walls?

A

Atherosclerosis

67
Q

What is the general term for insufficient oxygen delivery due to absent or inadequate RBCs?

68
Q

What is the term for a weakened arterial wall that causes a bulging?

69
Q

What is Iron Deficiency Anemia, and how is it treated?

A
  • Cause: Low iron levels, leading to reduced hemoglobin production
  • Symptoms: Fatigue, pale skin, brittle nails
  • Treatment: Iron supplements, dietary changes (red meat, spinach)
70
Q

What is Pernicious Anemia, and how is it treated?

A
  • Cause: Lack of vitamin B12 due to intrinsic factor deficiency
  • Symptoms: Fatigue, tingling in hands/feet, glossitis
  • Treatment: Vitamin B12 injections or oral supplements
71
Q

What is Aplastic Anemia, and how is it treated?

A
  • Cause: Bone marrow failure, leading to pancytopenia
  • Symptoms: Easy bruising, infections, fatigue
  • Treatment: Blood transfusions, bone marrow transplant
72
Q

What is Sickle Cell Anemia, and how is it treated?

A
  • Cause: Genetic disorder causing misshapen RBCs
  • Symptoms: Pain crises, jaundice, increased infections
  • Treatment: Hydroxyurea, pain management, blood transfusions
73
Q

What are the risk factors for increased coagulation activity (hypercoagulability)?

A
  • Genetic disorders (Factor V Leiden mutation)
  • Prolonged immobility (surgery, bed rest, long flights)
  • Oral contraceptive use & hormone therapy
  • Obesity, smoking, and diabetes
  • Cancer (some tumors produce clot-promoting substances)
74
Q

What is Hypertension (HTN)?

A
  • Definition: Chronic high blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg)
  • Two Types:
  • Primary (Essential) Hypertension: No identifiable cause, most common
  • Secondary Hypertension: Caused by kidney disease, endocrine disorders, or medications
75
Q

What is Hypertension (HTN)?

A

Chronic high blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg)

Two Types: Primary (Essential) Hypertension: No identifiable cause, most common; Secondary Hypertension: Caused by kidney disease, endocrine disorders, or medications.

76
Q

What are the risk factors for Hypertension (HTN)?

A

Non-modifiable:
* Age
* Genetics
* Ethnicity (higher in African Americans)
Modifiable:
* High sodium intake
* Obesity
* Smoking
* Excessive alcohol use
* Stress
* Sedentary lifestyle

These factors can influence the development or exacerbation of hypertension.

77
Q

Name and describe the types of heart dysrhythmias (arrhythmias).

A
  1. Bradycardia: Slow heart rate (<60 BPM)
  2. Tachycardia: Fast heart rate (>100 BPM)
  3. Atrial Fibrillation (AFib): Irregular atrial contractions, increasing stroke risk
  4. Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach): Fast, abnormal beats from ventricles (can be life-threatening)
  5. Ventricular Fibrillation (VFib): Uncoordinated ventricular contractions—medical emergency!
  6. Heart Block: Delayed or blocked electrical impulses, causing slowed heart rate.
78
Q

What is angina pectoris, and what causes it?

A

Chest pain due to temporary lack of oxygen to the heart muscle.
Cause: Coronary artery disease (CAD) → Narrowed arteries reduce oxygen supply.

79
Q

Name two surgical or endovascular procedures for heart disease and CAD. How do they differ?

A
  1. Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG):
    * Open-heart surgery using a graft to bypass a blocked artery.
    * Used for severe blockages.
  2. Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) / Angioplasty:
    * Minimally invasive; a catheter is inserted to open arteries using a balloon or stent.
    * Less invasive than CABG, used for milder blockages.
80
Q

What are the four pathological changes in heart failure?

A
  1. Increased preload (fluid overload) → Heart overworks
  2. Increased afterload (high blood pressure) → Heart must pump harder
  3. Reduced contractility → Weak heart muscle
  4. Neurohormonal activation → Body compensates, worsening heart failure.
81
Q

What are the causes of heart failure?

A
  • Hypertension (HTN)
  • Coronary artery disease (CAD)
  • Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
  • Valvular heart disease
  • Diabetes & kidney disease.
82
Q

What is the difference between diastolic and systolic heart failure?

A

Systolic Heart Failure: Weak heart contractions → Reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)
Diastolic Heart Failure: Stiff heart muscle → Normal ejection fraction but impaired filling (HFpEF).

83
Q

Compare high-output and low-output heart failure.

A

High-output HF: Excessive demand on heart (e.g., anemia, hyperthyroidism)
Low-output HF: Poor cardiac pumping (e.g., myocardial infarction, hypertension).

84
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of left ventricular failure (LVF).

A

Blood backs up into lungs → Pulmonary congestion & edema.
Symptoms: Dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles in lungs, fatigue.

85
Q

What are the “backward effects” of right ventricular failure (RVF)? Give an example.

A

Blood backs up into the body → Peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, jugular vein distension (JVD).
Example: Swollen legs and ankles (peripheral edema).

86
Q

What are the three conditions of Virchow’s Triad (DVT risk factors)?

A
  1. Venous stasis (immobility, bed rest, long flights)
  2. Endothelial injury (trauma, surgery, IV catheters)
  3. Hypercoagulability (clotting disorders, smoking, pregnancy).
87
Q

How can a DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis) turn into a Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?

A

A clot (DVT) in a deep vein dislodges and travels to the lungs, blocking pulmonary artery, leading to decreased oxygenation.

88
Q

What are symptoms of a Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?

A
  • Sudden shortness of breath (dyspnea)
  • Chest pain, often sharp
  • Coughing up blood (hemoptysis)
  • Rapid heart rate (tachycardia).
89
Q

What pathogens cause common respiratory infections?

A

Disease:
* Acute Rhinitis: Rhinovirus (Virus)
* Acute Pharyngitis: Streptococcus pyogenes (Strep throat) (Bacteria)
* Acute Sinusitis: Streptococcus pneumoniae (Bacteria)
* Acute Tonsillitis: Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) (Virus)
* Epiglottitis: Haemophilus influenzae (Bacteria)
* Laryngitis & Tracheitis: Parainfluenza virus (Virus)
* Acute Bronchitis: Influenza virus (Virus)
* Pneumonia: Streptococcus pneumoniae (Bacteria)
* Tuberculosis: Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Bacteria).

90
Q

Fill in the blanks for lung pathology signs.

A

a. Hemoptysis = Blood in sputum
b. Atelectasis = Collapse of alveoli
c. Productive cough = Sputum-related cough
d. Expectoration = Process of coughing up sputum
e. Dyspnea = Shortness of breath
f. Hypoxia = Insufficient oxygen in body
g. Rhonchi = Low-pitched breath sound (inflamed bronchi)
h. Crackles (Rales) = Noncontinuous sounds (fluid in alveoli).

91
Q

How is hypoxia regulated in the body?

A

Erythropoietin stimulates RBC production in response to low oxygen levels.

92
Q

Compare Chronic Bronchitis COPD vs. Emphysema COPD.

A

Chronic Bronchitis: Excess mucus, chronic cough, “blue bloater”
Emphysema: Alveolar damage, air trapping, “pink puffer.”

93
Q

Name the types of pneumothorax and how they differ.

A
  1. Spontaneous Pneumothorax: Air enters pleural space without trauma
  2. Traumatic Pneumothorax: Air enters due to chest injury
  3. Tension Pneumothorax: Air trapped, life-threatening pressure buildup.
94
Q

COVID-19 or SARS-Coronavirus can lead to what respiratory disorder?

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS).

95
Q

What is FEV1/FVC ratio, and how does it assess COPD?

A

FEV1 (Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 sec) / FVC (Forced Vital Capacity).
Low FEV1/FVC ratio indicates airflow obstruction (COPD).

Human Pathophysiology (9 decks)

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