Midterm Patho Flashcards
1
Q
What is the cause of a disease called?
A
Etiology
2
Q
A non-infected blister is an example of what?
A
Transudate
3
Q
Keloid formation is an example of what type of cellular adaptation?
A
Hyperplasia
4
Q
What chemicals cause fevers?
A
Pyrogens
5
Q
What type of neoplasm does not metastasize?
A
Benign tumor
6
Q
Narrowing of an open area, such as the esophagus, is called what?
A
Stricture
7
Q
What is the microscopic study of tissues?
A
Histology
8
Q
What mast cell chemical causes sneezing, a runny nose, and upper respiratory irritation?
A
Histamine
9
Q
What term describes prolonged ischemia and necrosis in the extremities?
A
Gangrene
10
Q
What is an abnormal connection between two structures?
A
Fistula
11
Q
What is another word for pus?
A
Purulent exudate
12
Q
What is the removal of necrotic tissue called?
A
Debridement
13
Q
What is the term for new, disorganized, and uncontrolled growth?
A
Neoplasia
14
Q
What are chemical signals that attract WBCs and platelets?
A
Chemotaxis
15
Q
Shrinkage of skeletal muscle due to paralysis is called what?
A
Atrophy
16
Q
Something the nurse would see on the patient, like a rash, is called what?
A
Sign
17
Q
A subjective feeling a patient describes (like feeling cold) is called what?
A
Symptom
18
Q
The general appearance of chromosomes in a species or individual is called what?
A
Karyotype
19
Q
What are two causes of cellular injury?
A
- Hypoxia (lack of oxygen)
- Toxic exposure (chemicals, infections, radiation, etc.)
20
Q
What is the difference between apoptosis and necrosis?
A
- Apoptosis = Programmed cell death (controlled, no inflammation)
- Necrosis = Uncontrolled cell death due to injury (causes inflammation)
21
Q
What type of genetic disorder is Cystic Fibrosis (CF)?
A
Autosomal recessive disorder affecting the lungs and digestive system
22
Q
What are the symptoms of Cystic Fibrosis?
A
- Thick mucus production
- Chronic lung infections
- Digestive problems (malabsorption, pancreatic insufficiency)
23
Q
What is the treatment for Cystic Fibrosis?
A
- Antibiotics
- Airway clearance therapy
- Pancreatic enzyme replacement
24
Q
What type of genetic disorder is Tay-Sachs Disease?
A
Autosomal recessive disorder due to deficiency of Hexosaminidase A enzyme
25
What are symptoms of Tay-Sachs Disease?
* Loss of motor skills
* Seizures
* Vision & hearing loss
* Cherry-red macula on eye exam
26
What type of genetic disorder is Down Syndrome?
Chromosomal disorder (Trisomy 21 - extra chromosome 21)
27
What are the key symptoms of Down Syndrome?
* Intellectual disability
* Characteristic facial features (flat face, epicanthic folds, small ears, short neck)
* Congenital heart defects
28
What type of genetic disorder is Huntington’s Disease?
Autosomal dominant disorder due to CAG repeat expansion in HTT gene
29
What are symptoms of Huntington’s Disease?
* Chorea (involuntary dance-like movements)
* Cognitive decline & behavioral changes
* Progressive motor dysfunction
30
What is a cut that heals by Primary Intention?
* Wound edges are well-approximated
* Minimal scarring
* Example: Surgical incision with sutures
31
What is a cut that heals by Secondary Intention?
* Wound heals from the bottom up
* More scarring & takes longer to heal
* Example: Large burns, pressure ulcers
32
What is a cut that heals by Tertiary Intention?
* Wound left open initially, then closed later
* Allows drainage & reduces infection risk
* Example: Infected wounds requiring debridement
33
What type of pathogen is Candida, and what body system does it affect?
* Fungus
* Affects the skin, mouth (thrush), and reproductive system (yeast infections)
34
What type of pathogen causes the Common Cold?
* Virus (Rhinovirus, Coronavirus, Adenovirus, etc.)
* Affects the respiratory system
35
What type of pathogen is Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)?
* Virus
* Affects the immune system (causes mononucleosis, aka “kissing disease”)
36
What type of pathogen is Escherichia coli (E. coli)?
* Bacteria
* Affects the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, causing food poisoning & UTIs
37
What type of pathogen is Haemophilus influenzae?
* Bacteria
* Affects the respiratory system (can cause bacterial meningitis & pneumonia)
38
What type of pathogen is Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?
* Virus
* Affects skin & nervous system (causes cold sores & genital herpes)
39
What type of pathogen causes Influenza?
* Virus (Influenza A & B)
* Affects the respiratory system
40
What type of pathogen is Malaria, and what body system does it affect?
* Parasite (Plasmodium species)
* Affects the blood & liver
41
What type of pathogen is MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella)?
* Virus
* Affects the immune system, respiratory system, skin, and nervous system
42
What type of pathogen causes Pneumonia?
* Can be bacterial, viral, or fungal
* Affects the lungs
43
What type of pathogen causes Staphylococcal infections?
* Bacteria
* Affects skin (boils, abscesses) & systemic infections (MRSA, toxic shock syndrome)
44
What type of pathogen causes Streptococcal infections?
* Bacteria (Streptococcus species)
* Affects throat (strep throat), skin, and bloodstream (scarlet fever, rheumatic fever)
45
What type of pathogen causes Varicella (Chickenpox)?
* Virus (Varicella-Zoster virus, VZV)
* Affects the skin & nervous system (can later cause shingles)
46
What is Hypersensitivity, and give an example?
* Excessive immune response to an antigen
* Example: Anaphylaxis from a bee sting
47
What is an Autoimmune disorder, and give an example?
* Immune system attacks the body’s own tissues
* Example: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
48
What is an Immunodeficiency disorder, and give an example?
* Weak or absent immune system function
* Example: HIV/AIDS
49
How does HIV infection progress in the body?
1. Acute HIV Infection (2-4 weeks after exposure)
* Flu-like symptoms (fever, rash, swollen lymph nodes)
* High viral load, highly contagious
2. Chronic HIV (Clinical Latency Stage - lasts years)
* Asymptomatic or mild symptoms
* Gradual immune system decline as CD4+ T-cells decrease
3. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome)
* CD4+ count falls below 200 cells/mm³
* Opportunistic infections (e.g., tuberculosis, pneumonia)
* Increased risk of cancers (e.g., Kaposi’s sarcoma)
50
What are complications of untreated HIV progression?
* Severe immunosuppression (AIDS)
* Opportunistic infections (e.g., Pneumocystis pneumonia, tuberculosis, candidiasis)
* Cancers (e.g., Kaposi’s sarcoma, lymphoma)
* Neurological decline (HIV-associated dementia)
* Severe weight loss (wasting syndrome)
51
Case Study A - Cecilia was stung by a bee and had severe dyspnea, laryngeal swelling, and hypotension. What is her condition and clues?
* Condition: Anaphylaxis (Severe Type I Hypersensitivity Reaction)
* Clues:
* History of severe allergic reaction (bee sting)
* Immediate symptoms: difficulty breathing, swelling, low blood pressure
* Required EpiPen (epinephrine) and emergency care
52
Case Study B - Charles developed a rash on his lower legs two days after hiking. What is his condition and clues?
* Condition: Contact Dermatitis (Type IV Hypersensitivity Reaction - Delayed)
* Clues:
* History of outdoor exposure (likely contact with poison ivy)
* Delayed rash appearance (2 days later)
* Skin reaction is localized to the exposed area
53
Case Study C - Sara has chronic low fever, muscle pain, joint pain, a butterfly-shaped rash, anemia, and thrombocytopenia. What is her condition and clues?
* Condition: Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE - Autoimmune Disease)
* Clues:
* Butterfly-shaped rash (malar rash) on face
* Chronic joint and muscle pain
* Positive lab tests (anti-nuclear antibodies, anti-double-stranded DNA, anti-Sm antibodies)
* Blood abnormalities (anemia, thrombocytopenia)
54
Case Study D - Annie has painful joints, deformed fingers, and trouble typing due to immune complex deposition. What is her condition and clues?
* Condition: Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA - Autoimmune Disease)
* Clues:
* Joint pain and stiffness in hands
* Splayed finger deformity
* Chronic inflammation due to immune complex deposition in joints
55
What is the term for an increase in white blood cells (WBCs) in the body?
Leukocytosis
56
What is an overwhelming allergic response that can be severe and life-threatening?
Anaphylaxis
57
What is the proliferation of cancerous white blood cells (WBCs)?
Leukemia
58
What is the increase of red blood cells (RBCs) in the body?
Polycythemia
59
What is the process of stopping bleeding?
Hemostasis
60
What type of lymphoma is characterized by Reed-Sternberg cells?
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
61
What is the destruction of RBCs without adequate replacement?
Hemolysis
62
What is the medical term for hives?
Urticaria
63
What chemical breaks up blood clots?
Plasmin
64
What is a blood clot within a vessel?
Thrombus
65
What are solid, abnormal tumors of lymphoid cells?
Lymphomas
66
What is the buildup of lipids along blood vessel walls?
Atherosclerosis
67
What is the general term for insufficient oxygen delivery due to absent or inadequate RBCs?
Anemia
68
What is the term for a weakened arterial wall that causes a bulging?
Aneurysm
69
What is Iron Deficiency Anemia, and how is it treated?
* Cause: Low iron levels, leading to reduced hemoglobin production
* Symptoms: Fatigue, pale skin, brittle nails
* Treatment: Iron supplements, dietary changes (red meat, spinach)
70
What is Pernicious Anemia, and how is it treated?
* Cause: Lack of vitamin B12 due to intrinsic factor deficiency
* Symptoms: Fatigue, tingling in hands/feet, glossitis
* Treatment: Vitamin B12 injections or oral supplements
71
What is Aplastic Anemia, and how is it treated?
* Cause: Bone marrow failure, leading to pancytopenia
* Symptoms: Easy bruising, infections, fatigue
* Treatment: Blood transfusions, bone marrow transplant
72
What is Sickle Cell Anemia, and how is it treated?
* Cause: Genetic disorder causing misshapen RBCs
* Symptoms: Pain crises, jaundice, increased infections
* Treatment: Hydroxyurea, pain management, blood transfusions
73
What are the risk factors for increased coagulation activity (hypercoagulability)?
* Genetic disorders (Factor V Leiden mutation)
* Prolonged immobility (surgery, bed rest, long flights)
* Oral contraceptive use & hormone therapy
* Obesity, smoking, and diabetes
* Cancer (some tumors produce clot-promoting substances)
74
What is Hypertension (HTN)?
* Definition: Chronic high blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg)
* Two Types:
* Primary (Essential) Hypertension: No identifiable cause, most common
* Secondary Hypertension: Caused by kidney disease, endocrine disorders, or medications
75
What is Hypertension (HTN)?
Chronic high blood pressure (≥140/90 mmHg)
## Footnote
Two Types: Primary (Essential) Hypertension: No identifiable cause, most common; Secondary Hypertension: Caused by kidney disease, endocrine disorders, or medications.
76
What are the risk factors for Hypertension (HTN)?
Non-modifiable:
* Age
* Genetics
* Ethnicity (higher in African Americans)
Modifiable:
* High sodium intake
* Obesity
* Smoking
* Excessive alcohol use
* Stress
* Sedentary lifestyle
## Footnote
These factors can influence the development or exacerbation of hypertension.
77
Name and describe the types of heart dysrhythmias (arrhythmias).
1. Bradycardia: Slow heart rate (<60 BPM)
2. Tachycardia: Fast heart rate (>100 BPM)
3. Atrial Fibrillation (AFib): Irregular atrial contractions, increasing stroke risk
4. Ventricular Tachycardia (VTach): Fast, abnormal beats from ventricles (can be life-threatening)
5. Ventricular Fibrillation (VFib): Uncoordinated ventricular contractions—medical emergency!
6. Heart Block: Delayed or blocked electrical impulses, causing slowed heart rate.
78
What is angina pectoris, and what causes it?
Chest pain due to temporary lack of oxygen to the heart muscle.
Cause: Coronary artery disease (CAD) → Narrowed arteries reduce oxygen supply.
79
Name two surgical or endovascular procedures for heart disease and CAD. How do they differ?
1. Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG):
* Open-heart surgery using a graft to bypass a blocked artery.
* Used for severe blockages.
2. Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI) / Angioplasty:
* Minimally invasive; a catheter is inserted to open arteries using a balloon or stent.
* Less invasive than CABG, used for milder blockages.
80
What are the four pathological changes in heart failure?
1. Increased preload (fluid overload) → Heart overworks
2. Increased afterload (high blood pressure) → Heart must pump harder
3. Reduced contractility → Weak heart muscle
4. Neurohormonal activation → Body compensates, worsening heart failure.
81
What are the causes of heart failure?
* Hypertension (HTN)
* Coronary artery disease (CAD)
* Myocardial infarction (heart attack)
* Valvular heart disease
* Diabetes & kidney disease.
82
What is the difference between diastolic and systolic heart failure?
Systolic Heart Failure: Weak heart contractions → Reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)
Diastolic Heart Failure: Stiff heart muscle → Normal ejection fraction but impaired filling (HFpEF).
83
Compare high-output and low-output heart failure.
High-output HF: Excessive demand on heart (e.g., anemia, hyperthyroidism)
Low-output HF: Poor cardiac pumping (e.g., myocardial infarction, hypertension).
84
Describe the pathophysiology of left ventricular failure (LVF).
Blood backs up into lungs → Pulmonary congestion & edema.
Symptoms: Dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles in lungs, fatigue.
85
What are the “backward effects” of right ventricular failure (RVF)? Give an example.
Blood backs up into the body → Peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, jugular vein distension (JVD).
Example: Swollen legs and ankles (peripheral edema).
86
What are the three conditions of Virchow’s Triad (DVT risk factors)?
1. Venous stasis (immobility, bed rest, long flights)
2. Endothelial injury (trauma, surgery, IV catheters)
3. Hypercoagulability (clotting disorders, smoking, pregnancy).
87
How can a DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis) turn into a Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?
A clot (DVT) in a deep vein dislodges and travels to the lungs, blocking pulmonary artery, leading to decreased oxygenation.
88
What are symptoms of a Pulmonary Embolism (PE)?
* Sudden shortness of breath (dyspnea)
* Chest pain, often sharp
* Coughing up blood (hemoptysis)
* Rapid heart rate (tachycardia).
89
What pathogens cause common respiratory infections?
Disease:
* Acute Rhinitis: Rhinovirus (Virus)
* Acute Pharyngitis: Streptococcus pyogenes (Strep throat) (Bacteria)
* Acute Sinusitis: Streptococcus pneumoniae (Bacteria)
* Acute Tonsillitis: Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) (Virus)
* Epiglottitis: Haemophilus influenzae (Bacteria)
* Laryngitis & Tracheitis: Parainfluenza virus (Virus)
* Acute Bronchitis: Influenza virus (Virus)
* Pneumonia: Streptococcus pneumoniae (Bacteria)
* Tuberculosis: Mycobacterium tuberculosis (Bacteria).
90
Fill in the blanks for lung pathology signs.
a. Hemoptysis = Blood in sputum
b. Atelectasis = Collapse of alveoli
c. Productive cough = Sputum-related cough
d. Expectoration = Process of coughing up sputum
e. Dyspnea = Shortness of breath
f. Hypoxia = Insufficient oxygen in body
g. Rhonchi = Low-pitched breath sound (inflamed bronchi)
h. Crackles (Rales) = Noncontinuous sounds (fluid in alveoli).
91
How is hypoxia regulated in the body?
Erythropoietin stimulates RBC production in response to low oxygen levels.
92
Compare Chronic Bronchitis COPD vs. Emphysema COPD.
Chronic Bronchitis: Excess mucus, chronic cough, “blue bloater”
Emphysema: Alveolar damage, air trapping, “pink puffer.”
93
Name the types of pneumothorax and how they differ.
1. Spontaneous Pneumothorax: Air enters pleural space without trauma
2. Traumatic Pneumothorax: Air enters due to chest injury
3. Tension Pneumothorax: Air trapped, life-threatening pressure buildup.
94
COVID-19 or SARS-Coronavirus can lead to what respiratory disorder?
Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS).
95
What is FEV1/FVC ratio, and how does it assess COPD?
FEV1 (Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 sec) / FVC (Forced Vital Capacity).
Low FEV1/FVC ratio indicates airflow obstruction (COPD).
