MIDTERM PART 1 Flashcards

1
Q

RULE 128 is the?

A

General Provisions

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2
Q
  • is the means, sanctioned by these rules, of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a matter of fact.
A

EVIDENCE

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2
Q

means court

A

judicial

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2
Q

–rules of evidence is only applicable in the

A

COURT

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3
Q

PURPOSE/S OF THE LAW ON EVIDENCE:

A
  1. Prescribes the manner of presenting evidence: as by requiring that it shall be given in open court by one who personally knows the thing to be true, appearing in person, subject to cross-examination; or by allowing it to be given by deposition, taken in such and such a way; and the like;
  2. Fixes the qualifications and the privileges of witness, and the mode of examining them;
  3. Determines as among probative matters things which are logically and in their nature evidential, what classes of things shall not be received
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4
Q

Anti Wire Tapping Law

A

RA 4200

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5
Q

There is _____ only because of evidence.

A

proof

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5
Q

is not evidence itself

A

proof

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5
Q

It is merely the probative effect of evidence and is the conviction or persuasion of the mind resulting from a consideration of evidence.

A

proof

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6
Q

is the effect or result of evidence

A

proof

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7
Q

refers to the degree or kind of evidence which will produce full conviction, or establish the proposition to the satisfaction of the tribunal.

A

proof

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8
Q

is the generic term and “testimony” that of the species.

A

Evidence

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8
Q

is the medium of proof.

A

evidence

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9
Q

– any event or act or condition of things, assumed (for the moment) as happening or existing

A

FACT

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9
Q

is that kind of evidence which, in trial is presented by witnesses verbally

A

Testimony

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9
Q

– a fact as to the correctness of which the tribunal, under the law of the case, must be persuaded

A

FACT-IN-ISSUE

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10
Q

– any fact considered by the tribunal as data to persuade them to reach a reasoned belief upon a probandum

A

FACT-IN-EVIDENCE

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11
Q

– the process of thought by which the tribunal reasons from fact to probandum

A

INFERENCE

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11
Q

– the proposition to be established;

A

FACTUM PROBANDUM

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12
Q

– the remarks of counsel analyzing and pointing out or repudiating the desired inference, for the assistance of the tribunal

A

ARGUMENTS

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13
Q

-That, which a party wants to prove to the court.

E.g.: guilt or innocence; existence of a breach of contract; existence of an obligation; the fact of payment; the injury or damage incurred.

A

FACTUM PROBANDUM

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13
Q

-refers to the ultimate fact to be proven, or the proposition to be established.

A

FACTUM PROBANDUM

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14
Q

– the material evidencing the proposition;

A

FACTUM PROBANS

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15
Q

-conceived of for practical purposes as existent, and is offered as such for the consideration of the tribunal.

A

FACTUM PROBANS

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15
Q

necessarily conceived as hypothetical.

A

FACTUM PROBANDUM

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16
Q

Examples: the written contract; the promissory note to prove the existence of an unpaid debt.

A

FACTUM PROBANS

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17
Q

Example: The eye witness account; the scar to show the wound.

A

DIRECT EVIDENCE

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18
Q

– that which proves the fact in dispute without the aid of any inference or presumption.

A

DIRECT EVIDENCE

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19
Q

– the proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the existence of the particular fact in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence.

A

CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE

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20
Q

example: the original contract, the original Birth Certificate

A

PRIMARY EVIDENCE OR BEST EVIDENCE

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20
Q

– that which affords the greatest certainty of the fact in question

A

PRIMARY EVIDENCE OR BEST EVIDENCE

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20
Q

In circumstantial evidence, how many circumstances?

A

atleast 3 or more than 3

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21
Q

Section 4. CIRCUMSTANTIAL EVIDENCE when sufficient for conviction if:

A

I. THAT THERE BE MORE THAN ONE CIRCUMSTANCE;

II. THAT THE FACTS FROM WHICH THE INFERENCE ARE DERIVED ARE PROVEN;

III. THE COMBINATION OF ALL THE CIRCUMSTANCES IS SUCH AS TO PRODUCE A CONVICTION BEYOND REASONABLE DOUBT.

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22
Q

– that which is necessarily inferior to primary evidence and shows on its face that better evidence exists

A

SECONDARY EVIDENCE

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23
Q

example: photocopy of the original contract, hospital papers

A

SECONDARY EVIDENCE

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24
Q

is not a government or public document, it is a private document issued by the church or different congregations

A

Baptismal certificate

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25
Q

the original of a contract is the best evidence as to its contents; the marriage contract as to the fact of marriage; a receipt as to the fact of payment; the birth certificate as to filiation.

A

PRIMARY EVIDENCE

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26
Q

-when a witness affirms that a fact did or did not occur

A

POSITIVE EVIDENCE

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26
Q

-that affirms the occurrence of an event or existence of a fact, as when a witness declares that there was no fight which took place.

A

POSITIVE EVIDENCE

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27
Q

E.g.: Xerox copies of documents; narration of witnesses as to a written contract.

A

SECONDARY EVIDENCE

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28
Q
  • when the evidence denies the occurrence of an event or existence of a fact, as when the accused presents witnesses who testify that the accused was at their party when the crime was committed.
A

NEGATIVE EVIDENCE

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29
Q
  • additional evidence of the same kind bearing on the same point.
A

CUMULATIVE EVIDENCE

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29
Q

-Denials and alibi are what kind of evidence?

A

NEGATIVE EVIDENCE

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30
Q

-evidence of the same kind and character as that already given and tends to prove the same proposition

A

CUMULATIVE EVIDENCE

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31
Q

E.g.: testimonies of several eyewitnesses to the same incident.

A

CUMULATIVE EVIDENCE

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32
Q
  • additional evidence of a different kind or character but tending to prove the same point.
A

CORROBORATIVE EVIDENCE

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33
Q

-It is evidence which confirms or supports.

A

CORROBORATIVE EVIDENCE

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34
Q

-that which is incontrovertible evidence that when received, the law does not allow to be contradicted

A

CONCLUSIVE EVIDENCE

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35
Q

Thus:
(i) the medico legal certificate describing the injuries to have been caused by a sharp pointed instrument corroborates the statement that the accused used a knife to stab the victim

(ii) the positive results of a paraffin test corroborates the allegation that the person fired a gun and

(iii) the ballistics examination on the gun of the suspect corroborates the statement that he fired his gun at the victim.

A

CORROBORATIVE EVIDENCE

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36
Q

that which, standing alone and uncontradicted, is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.

A

PRIMA FACIE EVIDENCE

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36
Q

-that which suffices for the proof of a particular fact until contradicted and overcome by other evidence

A

PRIMA FACIE EVIDENCE

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37
Q

– may either be:

(i) that which the law does not allow to be contradicted as in judicial admissions or

(b) that the effect of which overwhelms any evidence to the contrary as the DNA profile of a person as the natural father over a denial.

A

CONCLUSIVE EVIDENCE

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38
Q

-In the eyes of the law it is sufficient to establish a fact until it has been disproved, rebutted or contradicted or overcome by contrary proof.

A

PRIMA FACIE EVIDENCE

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38
Q

Example: possession of stolen articles by one who is accused as a thieve.

A

PRIMA FACIE EVIDENCE

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39
Q

at first glance/ impression

A

PRIMA FACIE EVIDENCE

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40
Q

– evidence not excluded by law in a particular case

A

COMPETENT EVIDENCE

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40
Q

– that which has a tendency in reason to establish the probability or improbability of a fact in issue; materiality has been used interchangeably with relevancy

A

RELEVANT EVIDENCE

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41
Q

– signifies that the offered piece of evidence has no probative value

A

IRRELEVANT EVIDENCE

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42
Q

– signifies that an offered witness is not qualified, under the rules of testimonial evidence

A

INCOMPETENT EVIDENCE

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43
Q

– signifies that the offered evidence is excluded by some rule of evidence, no matter what the rule

A

INADMISSIBLE EVIDENCE

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43
Q

– signifies that the offered evidential fact is directed to prove some probandum which is not properly in issue

A

IMMATERIAL EVIDENCE

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44
Q

– the testimony of one possessing in regard to a particular subject or department of human activity, knowledge not usually acquired by other persons

A

EXPERT EVIDENCE

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44
Q

– that which is given to explain, repel, counteract or disprove facts given in evidence by the adverse party.

A

REBUTTAL EVIDENCE

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44
Q

evidence that will acquit/ exonerate/ establish the innocence of the accused.

A

EXCULPATORY EVIDENCE

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44
Q

– that which is addressed to the sense of the tribunal, as where objects are presented for the inspection of the court.

A

REAL /OBJECT EVIDENCE

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45
Q
  • evidence that connect the accused to an event.
A

INCULPATORY EVIDENCE

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45
Q
  • evidence that which tend to establish the guilt of the accused.
A

INCRIMINATING/ INCRIMINATORY EVIDENCE

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46
Q
  • paper based documents.
A

DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE

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47
Q
  • those consisting of evidence which are addressed to the senses of the court
A

REAL/OBJECT EVIDENCE

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48
Q
  • evidence consisting the narration made by a witness under oath.
A

TESTIMONIAL EVIDENCE

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49
Q

As the very materials presented in court consisting of objects, documents or oral narration of witnesses.

A

EVIDENCE

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50
Q

it would refer to providing answers to such questions as who may and who may not be witnesses , what may be allowed as proof, how they are to be presented; what requirements are to be observed, what weight and importance is to be given a certain evidence in relation to other pieces of evidence.

A

EVIDENCE

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50
Q

As a system, process or methodology of proving a fact

A

EVIDENCE

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51
Q

The relevancy of facts, or what sort of facts may be proved in order to establish the existence of the right, or liability defined by substantive law;

A

RULES OF EVIDENCE

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52
Q

The proof of facts, that is what sort of proof is to be given of those facts;

A

RULES OF EVIDENCE

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53
Q

The production of proof of relevant facts, that is who is to give it and how it is to be given, and the effect of improper admission or rejection of evidence.

A

RULES OF EVIDENCE

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53
Q

Any evidence inadmissible according to the laws in force at the time the action accrued, but admissible according to laws in force at the time of the trial, is receivable. (Aldeguer v. Hoskyn, 2 Phil. 500) But this is subject to the constitutional limitation on the enactment of _______

A

ex post facto laws

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54
Q

There is no law which requires that the testimony of a single witness has to be corroborated, except where expressly mandated in determining the value and credibility of evidence.

A

RULES OF EVIDENCE

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54
Q

shall be the same in all courts and in all trials and hearings, except as otherwise provided by law or these rules

A

rules of evidence

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54
Q

must be liberally construed so as not to frustrate substantial justice.

A

RULES OF EVIDENCE

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55
Q

includes that which alters the rules on evidence and receives less or different testimony that that required at the time of the commission of the offense in order to convict the accused.

A

ex post facto law

56
Q

________ may be waived. When an otherwise objectionable evidence is not objected, the evidence becomes admissible because of waiver.

A

rules on evidence

56
Q

A contract of insurance requiring the testimony of eyewitness as the only evidence admissible concerning the death of the insured person is ___

A

valid

57
Q

being components of the Rules of Court, apply only to judicial proceedings.

A

rules on evidence

58
Q

______ are not bound by the technical rules of evidence. It can accept documents which cannot be admitted in a judicial proceeding where the Rules of Court are strictly observed. It can choose to give weight or disregard such evidence, depending on its trustworthiness.

A

Administrative agencies

58
Q

If the rule of evidence waived by the parties has been established by law on grounds of public policy, the waiver is ___

A

void

59
Q

In the field of administrative law, while strict ______ are not applicable to quasi-judicial proceedings, nevertheless, in adducing evidence constitutive of substantial evidence, the basic rule that a mere allegation is not evidence cannot be disregarded. (Marcelo v. Bungubung, 552 SCRA 589)

A

rules of evidence

60
Q

The _______ do not apply to election cases, land registration, naturalization, and insolvency proceedings, and other cases not herein provided for, except by analogy or in a suppletory character and whenever practicable and convenient. (Section 4, Rule 1)

A

rules on evidence

60
Q

The _____ (Sec. 34, Rule 132) is not applicable to a case involving a petition for naturalization unless applied by analogy or in a suppletory character and whenever practicable and convenient. Thus, the Court of Appeals may validly consider the documents not earlier formally offered in the trial court, and raised for the first time on appeal. (Ong Chia v. Republic, 328 SCRA 749)

A

rule on formal offer of evidence

61
Q

The rule on formal offer of evidence (Sec. 34, Rule 132) is not applicable to a case involving a petition for naturalization unless applied by analogy or in a suppletory character and whenever practicable and convenient. Thus, the ______ may validly consider the documents not earlier formally offered in the trial court, and raised for the first time on appeal. (Ong Chia v. Republic, 328 SCRA 749)

A

Court of Appeals

62
Q

__________ provides that courts, as a rule, are not authorized to consider evidence which has not been formally offered.

A

Sec. 34, Rule 132

63
Q

____________ may consider evidence, such as documents and affidavits, submitted by the parties for the first time on appeal. Technical rules of evidence are not binding in labor cases.

A

NLRC (National Labor Relations Commission)

64
Q

The _________-, like other rules of evidence, should not be strictly applied in labor cases.

A

parol evidence rule

64
Q

Hence, a ________ is not precluded from accepting and evaluating evidence other than, and even contrary to, what is stated in the CBA. (Cirtek Employees Labor Union – FFW v. Cirtek Electronic, 650 SCRA 656)

A

Labor Arbiter

65
Q

In the Philippine judicial system, there is a ___________ of the official acts of the legislature and these acts cover statutes. Evidence is not required on matters of judicial notice and on matters judicially admitted.

A

mandatory judicial notice

66
Q

In the Philippine judicial system, there is a mandatory judicial notice of the official acts of the legislature and these acts cover statutes. _______ is not required on matters of judicial notice and on matters judicially admitted.

A

Evidence

67
Q

is required only when the court has to resolve a question of fact.

A

Evidence

68
Q

Where no factual issue exists in a case, there is no need to present this because where the case presents a question of law, such question is resolved by the mere application of the relevant statutes or rules of this jurisdiction to which no ____ is required.

A

Evidence

69
Q

In civil cases, the party having the burden of proof must prove his claim by a?

A

preponderance of evidence

69
Q

while in criminal cases, the guilt of the accused has to be?

A

proven beyond reasonable doubt.

70
Q

In _______, an offer of compromise is not an admission of any liability, and is not admissible in evidence against the offeror.

A

civil cases

71
Q

In ______, except those involving quasi-offenses or those allowed by law to be compromised, an offer of compromise by the accused may be received in evidence as an implied admission of guilt.

A

criminal cases

72
Q

In ________, the concept of presumption of innocence does not apply and generally there is no presumption for or against a party except in certain cases provided for by law.

A

civil cases

73
Q

In __________, the accused enjoys the constitutional presumption of innocence.

A

criminal cases

74
Q

— Evidence is admissible when it:

A
  1. is relevant to the issue or RELEVANCY
  2. is not excluded by the law or these rules or COMPETENCY
75
Q

THE TWO AXIOMS OF ADMISSIBILITY:

A
  1. None but facts having rational probative value are admissible;
  2. All facts having rational probative value are admissible, unless some specific rule forbids.
76
Q
  • the character or quality which any material must necessarily possess for it to be accepted and allowed to be presented or introduced as evidence in court.
A

ADMISSIBILITY

77
Q

-It answers the question: should the court allow the material to be used as evidence by the party?

A

ADMISSIBILITY

78
Q
  • the value given or significance or impact, or importance given to the material after it has been admitted; its tendency to convince or persuade.
A

WEIGHT

79
Q

-Hence a particular evidence may be admissible but it has no weight. Conversely, an evidence may be of great weight or importance but it is not admissible.

A

WEIGHT

80
Q

To admit _____ and not to believe it are not incompatible with each other

A

evidence

81
Q

The ______ depends on its relevance and competence while the weight of evidence pertains to its tendency to convince and persuade.

A

admissibility of the evidence

81
Q

The ______ should not be equated with the weight of the evidence.

A

admissibility of evidence

82
Q

– when the relevance of a piece of evidence is not apparent at the time it is offered but the relevance of which will readily be seen when connected to other pieces of evidence not yet offered

A

CONDITIONAL ADMISSIBILITY

83
Q
  • allows a party to introduce otherwise inadmissible evidence to answer the opposing party’s previous introduction of inadmissible evidence if it would remove any unfair prejudice caused by the admission of the earlier inadmissible evidence
A

CURATIVE ADMISSIBILITY

84
Q

In our jurisdiction, the ___________ should not be made to apply where the evidence was admitted without objections because the failure to object constitutes waiver of the inadmissibility of the evidence.

A

principle of curative admissibility

85
Q

In our jurisdiction, ______ not objected to becomes inadmissible

A

inadmissible evidence

86
Q

-when a material is asked by a party to be admitted as evidence, the party presenting must inform the court of the purpose which the material is intended to serve and the court then admits the material as evidence.

A

MULTIPLE ADMISSIBILITY

87
Q

may mean either:

(i) the evidence is admissible for several purposes or

(ii) an evidence is not admissible for one purpose but may be admitted for a different purpose if it satisfies all the requirements of the other purpose.

A

MULTIPLE ADMISSIBILITY

88
Q

-Exclusion as to evidence obtained through mechanical, electronic or other surveillance or intercepting devises. (Intercepted communications)

A

R.A. 4200 (THE ANTI-WIRE TAPPING LAW)

89
Q
  • All facts having rational probative value are admissible unless some specific law or rule forbids.
A

COMPETENCY

90
Q

declares that evidence is inadmissible if obtained through any of the following ways:

  1. By using any device (any device/technology that uses energy) to secretly eavesdrop, overhear, intercept or record any communication or spoken word
A

R.A 4200

91
Q

-In short the evidence is not excluded by law or rules.

A

COMPETENCY

92
Q
  • the principle which mandates that evidence obtained from an illegal arrest, unreasonable search or coercive investigation, or in violation of a particular law, must be excluded from the trial and will not be admitted as evidence.
A

THE EXCLUSIONARY RULE PRINCIPLE

93
Q

The principle judges the admissibility of evidence based on HOW the evidence is obtained or acquired and not WHAT the evidence proves.

A

THE EXCLUSIONARY RULE PRINCIPLE

94
Q

The principle is to be applied only if it is so expressly provided for by the constitution or by a particular law. Even if the manner of obtaining the evidence is in violation of a certain law but the law does not declare that the evidence is inadmissible, then such evidence will be admissible.

A

THE EXCLUSIONARY RULE PRINCIPLE

95
Q

Evidence will be excluded if it was gained in an illegal arrest, unreasonable search or coercive interrogation, or violation of a particular exclusionary law.

A

THE DOCTRINE OF THE FRUIT OF THE POISONED TREE

96
Q

The doctrine applies only to secondary or derivative evidence.

A

THE DOCTRINE OF THE FRUIT OF THE POISONED TREE

96
Q

It is an offshoot of the Exclusionary Rule which applies to primary evidence.

A

THE DOCTRINE OF THE FRUIT OF THE POISONED TREE

97
Q

It is based on the principle that evidence illegally obtained by the state should not be used to gain other evidence because the original illegally obtained evidence taints all those subsequently obtained.

A

THE DOCTRINE OF THE FRUIT OF THE POISONED TREE

97
Q

There must first be a primary evidence which is determined to have been illegally obtained then secondary evidence is obtained because of the primary evidence.

A

THE DOCTRINE OF THE FRUIT OF THE POISONED TREE

98
Q

must have such a relation to the fact in issue as to induce belief in its existence or non-existence.

A

Evidence

99
Q

________ on collateral matters shall not be allowed, except when it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability or improbability of the fact in issue.

A

Evidence

100
Q
  • facts or matters which are not in issue.
A

COLLATERAL MATTERS

100
Q

-Evidence on collateral matters shall __________, except when it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability or improbability of the fact in issue.

A

not be allowed

100
Q

There is no precise and universal test of ________ provided by law.

A

relevancy

101
Q

-They are not generally allowed to be proven except when relevant.

A

COLLATERAL MATTERS

102
Q

However, the determination of whether particular evidence is _____ rests largely at the discretion of the court, which must be exercised according to the teachings of logic and everyday experience.

A

relevant

103
Q

A matter is ______ when it is on a “parallel or diverging line,” merely “additional” or “auxiliary.” (Black’s Law Dictionary)

A

collateral

104
Q

Evidence on the credibility of witness, or the lack of it, is always ____

A

relevant

105
Q

is justified only if it was incidental to a lawful arrest.

A

Warrantless search

106
Q

RULE 129 title is?

A

What Need Not Be Proved

106
Q

In ________, the Prosecution is not permitted to prove a crime not described in the Information or to prove any aggravating circumstance not alleged in the Information.

A

criminal cases

107
Q

A Party Can Not Prove What He Did Not Allege

A

Non Alegata Non Proba

108
Q

Refers to the act of the court in taking cognizance of matters as true or as existing without need of the introduction of evidence, or the authority of the court to accept certain matters as facts even if no evidence of their existence has been presented.

A

JUDICIAL NOTICE

109
Q

Purpose: To save time, labor and expenses. It is based on expediency and convenience.

A

JUDICIAL NOTICE

110
Q

— A court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of evidence

A

JUDICIAL NOTICE, WHEN MANDATORY.

111
Q

— A court shall take judicial notice, without the introduction of evidence, of:

A
  1. the existence and territorial extent of states, their political history, forms of government and symbol s of nationality,
  2. the law of nations,
  3. the admiralty and maritime courts of the world and their seals,
  4. the political constitution and history of the Philippines,
  5. the official acts of legislative, executive and judicial departments of the Philippines,
  6. the laws of nature,
  7. the measure of time, and
  8. the geographical divisions. (1a)
111
Q

3 BRANCHES OF THE GOVERNMENT

A

LEGISLATIVE
EXECUTIVE
JUDICIARY

112
Q
  • coming from the Office of the President
A

EXECUTIVE

112
Q
  • is the Congress
A

LEGISLATIVE

113
Q

-The solar system, the planets and stars.

A

THE LAWS OF NATURE

114
Q

-The composition and decay of matter, the birth and period of gestation of human beings. The occurrence of natural phenomenon provided these are constant, immutable and certain, otherwise these occurrences are “freaks of nature”, the changing of the season

A

THE LAWS OF NATURE

115
Q

-any article for that matter, is not evidence when it is simply marked for identification;

A

DOCUMENT

116
Q

-it must be formally offered, and the opposing counsel given an opportunity to object to it or to cross-examine the witness called upon to prove or identify it. (Candido v. CA, 253 SCRA 78)

A

DOCUMENT

116
Q

— A court may take judicial notice of matters which:
1. are of public knowledge, or
2. are capable to unquestionable demonstration, or
3. ought to be known to judges because of their judicial functions. (BAR)

A

JUDICIAL NOTICE, WHEN DISCRETIONARY.

116
Q

— A court may take judicial notice of matters which:

A
  1. are of public knowledge, or
  2. are capable to unquestionable demonstration, or
  3. ought to be known to judges because of their judicial functions. (BAR)
117
Q

Are matter subject to discretionary judicial notice are subject or hearing or required the presentation of evidence?

A

YES

118
Q

– those facts that are so commonly known in the community as to make it unprofitable to require proof, and so certainly known to as make it indisputable among reasonable men.

A

are of public knowledge

118
Q
  1. The matter must be one of common knowledge;
  2. The matter must be settled beyond reasonable doubt (if there is any uncertainty about the matter, then evidence must be adduced); and
  3. The knowledge must exist within the jurisdiction of the court.
A

DISCRETIONARY JUDICIAL NOTICE

119
Q

— During the trial, the court, on its own initiative, or on request of a party, may announce its intention to take judicial notice of any matter and allow the parties to be heard thereon.

A

SECTION 3. JUDICIAL NOTICE, WHEN HEARING NECESSARY.

119
Q

A ______ cannot take judicial notice of any fact which, in part, is dependent on the existence or non-existence of a fact of which the court has no constructive knowledge. (Expertravel and Tours v. CA, 459 SCRA 147)

A

court

120
Q

It is well-settled in our jurisdiction that our courts cannot take ________ of foreign laws. Like any other facts, they must be alleged and proved. (Garcia v. Garcia-Recio, 366 SCRA 437) BAR

A

judicial notice

120
Q

-After the trial, and before judgment or on appeal, the proper court, on its own initiative or on request of a party, may take judicial notice of any matter and allow the parties to be heard thereon if such matter is decisive of a material issue in the case. (n)

A

SECTION 3. JUDICIAL NOTICE, WHEN HEARING NECESSARY.

121
Q

The mere personal knowledge of the judge is not the judicial knowledge of the court, and he is not authorized to make his individual knowledge of a fact, not generally or professionally known, as the basis of his action. (State Prosecutors v. Muro, 236 SCRA 505) BAR

T OR F?

A

TRUE

122
Q

In the absence of proof, the foreign law will be presumed to be the same as the laws of the jurisdiction hearing the case.

A

Doctrine of processual presumption

123
Q

should take judicial notice of municipal ordinances in force in the municipality in which they sit. (U.S. v. Blanco, 37 Phil. 126)

A

MUNICIPAL TRIAL COURTS (MTC)

124
Q

-should take judicial notice of municipal ordinances in force in the municipalities within their jurisdiction but only when so required by law.

A

REGIONAL TRIAL COURT (RTC)

125
Q

cannot take judicial notice of proprietary acts of GOCCs.

A

Courts

126
Q

admission, VERBAL OR WRITTEN, made by the party in the course of the proceedings in the same case, does not require proof.

A

JUDICIAL ADMISSIONS.

127
Q

cannot take judicial notice of an administrative regulation or of a statute that is not yet effective

A

court

128
Q

-The admission may be contradicted only by showing that it was made through palpable mistake or that no such admission was made. (BAR)

A

JUDICIAL ADMISSIONS.

129
Q

are conclusive and binding to the party making it and he cannot later on present evidence to contradict it.

A

JUDICIAL ADMISSIONS.

130
Q

maybe contradicted only by showing that it was made though:
1. Palpable mistake; and
2. No such admission was made

A

judicial admission

130
Q

Hayagang kamalian

A

palpable mistake

130
Q

WHERE JUDICIAL ADMISSION ARE MADE:

A
  1. IN THE PLEADINGS;
  2. DURING THE TRIAL, EITHER BY VERBAL OR WRITTEN MANIFESTATIONS OR STIPULATIONS;
  3. IN OTHER STAGES OF THE JUDICIAL PROCEEDING.
131
Q

If signed by the party, it is deemed an _________. If signed by the attorney, it is not even an admission by the party (Jackson v, Schine Lexington Corp) BAR

A

extrajudicial admission

131
Q

An admission made in a document drafter for purposes of filing a pleading but never filed is not a ____

A

judicial admission.

132
Q

The admission in the superseded pleading are to be considered as

A

EXTRAJUDICIAL ADMISSION

132
Q

Admissions obtained through depositions, written interrogatories or requests for admission are also considered

A

judicial admissions

133
Q

Admissions by a counsel are generally _________ upon a client

A

conclusive

133
Q

Despite the presence of judicial admission, the ________ is still given leeway to consider other evidence presented because said admission may not necessarily prevail over documentary evidence (Asean Pacific Planners v. City of Urdaneta, 566 SCRA 219)

A

trial court

133
Q

RULE 130 TITLE?

A

RULES OF ADMISSIBILITY

134
Q

Where the physical evidence runs counter to the testimonial evidence, the ________ should prevail.

A

physical evidence

134
Q

are those addressed to the senses of the court. When an object is relevant to the fact in issue, it may be exhibited to, examined or viewed by the court. (1a)

A

OBJECT (REAL) EVIDENCE

135
Q
  • going out of the courtroom to observe places and objects
A

VIEW

136
Q
  • are things that represents the real object evidence
A

DEMONSTRATIVE EVIDENCE

137
Q

BASIC REQUISITES FOR THE ADMISSIBILITY OF AN OBJECT OR REAL EVIDENCE:

A
  1. THE EVIDENCE MUST BE RELEVANT;
  2. THE EVIDENCE MUST BE AUTHENTICATED;
  3. THE AUTHENTICATION MUST BE MADE BY A COMPETENT WITNESS; AND
  4. THE OBJECT MUST BE FORMALLY OFFERED IN EVIDENCE.
138
Q

The right against self-incrimination finds no application in a case where _________ is offered as evidence because no testimonial compulsion was involved. (People v. Malimit, 264 SCRA 167) BAR

A

object or real evidence

139
Q

CATEGORIES OF OBJECT EVIDENCE:

A

UNIQUE OBJECTS
OBJECTS MADE UNIQUE
NON-UNIQUE OBJECTS

140
Q

Object that are readily identifiable

A

UNIQUE OBJECTS

141
Q

Objects that are made readily identifiable

A

OBJECTS MADE UNIQUE

142
Q

Objects with no identifying marks and cannot be marked

A

NON-UNIQUE OBJECTS

143
Q

The _____ is not required to elicit testimony from every custodian or every person who had an opportunity to come in contact with the evidence sought to be admitted. As long as one of the “chains” testifies and his testimony negates the possibility of tampering and that the integrity of the evidence is preserved, his testimony alone is adequate to prove chain of custody.

A

prosecution

143
Q
  • a method of authenticating evidence which requires that the admission of an exhibit be preceded by evidence sufficient to support a finding that the matter in question is what the proponent claims it to be
A

CHAIN OF CUSTODY RULE

144
Q
  • the duly recorded authorized movements and custody of seized drugs of controlled chemicals or plant sources of dangerous drugs or laboratory equipment of each stage, from the time of seizure/confiscation to receipt in the forensic laboratory to safekeeping to presentation in court of destruction.
A

CHAIN OF CUSTODY

145
Q

4 STEPS OF CHAIN RULE CUSTODY

A
  1. SELLER TO THE BUYER (POSEUR BUYER)
  2. POSEUR BUYER TO THE INVESTIGATOR
  3. INVESTIGATOR TO THE LABORATORY
  4. CHEMIST TO THE COURT
146
Q

there is an EXCHANGE OF ITEM and EXCHANGE OF MONEY

A

SELLER TO THE BUYER

147
Q

–they will conduct quantitative examination wherein gaano ka bigat or ilang grams and qualitative examination ay what are the contents

A

INVESTIGATOR TO THE LABORATORY

148
Q

HOW MANY YEARS DOES DRUGS STAY ON HAIR

A

10 YRS

149
Q

HOW MANY DAYS DOES DRUGS STAY ON URINE

A

3 TO 5 DAYS