midterm material Flashcards

1
Q

What is a “locus”?

A

Specific place on a chromosome occupied by a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the 2 types of recessive mutations

A

Null/Amorphic alleles produce a non-functional protein OR no protein at all.

Hypomorphic alleles produce a poorly functioning protein OR reduced amounts of a normally functioning protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the 2 types of dominant mutations

A

Hypermorphic alleles cause negative phenotypic consequences due to over-production of a normal protein OR production of a protein with increased activity levels.

Neomorphic alleles cause negative phenotypic consequences due to the presence of an altered protein that has a new function OR an altered protein that interferes with the wildtype protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Incomplete Dominance?

A

The heterozygous is an intermediate between the homozygous phenotypes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Co-dominance?

A

The heterozygous exhibits phenotypes of both of the homozygotes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an allelic series?

A

An allelic series describes the dominance hierarchy of multiple alleles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a wildtype allele?

A

A functional enzyme or other protein is produced.

Sometimes wildtype is used to refer to the most common genotype or phenotype found in a population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name the term:

Half as much protein is synthesized but this is not enough to achieve the wildtype phenotype. Give an example.

A

Haploinsufficiency, example Manx cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T or F:

A dominant allele can be a loss of function allele.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the difference between dominant lethal alleles and recessive lethal alleles? Give examples.

A

Dominant lethal alleles can be expressed in both the homozygote dominant and the heterzygote. eg. Huntington’s.

Recessive lethal alleles are only expressed in the homozygote recessive. eg. Tay Sachs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name the term:

The proportion of individuals that have a particular genotype and express the expected phenotype.

A

Penetrance (variation in the population).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the term:

The degree to which a phenotype is expressed.

A

Expressivity (variation in the individual).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name the 4 environmental factors that can affect phenotypic expression.

A

Age, sex, temperature, chemicals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the “norm of reaction”?

A

The range of phenotypes expressed by a single genotype under different environmental conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the himalayan allele in rabbits.

A

The himalayan allele produces dark fur at the extremities, as the enzyme necessary for pigment production is inactive at high temperatures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a phenocopy? Give an example.

A

A phenocopy is a change in phenotype caused by the environment that mimics the effects of a gene mutation.

The chemical thalidomide can produce a phenocopy of a rare trait called phocomelia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the term:

The inheritance pattern of one trait will not affect the inheritance pattern of another trait.

A

Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Complementation?

A

Complementation occurs when two strains of an organism with different homozygous recessive mutations that produce the same phenotype produce offspring with the wildtype phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

T or F:

Complementation only occurs if the mutations are in different genes.

A

True. The other genome supplies the wildtype allele to complement the mutated allele.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a Heterogenous Trait?

A

A mutation in any of a number of genes results in the same phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Epistasis? Which is the epistatic gene and which is hypostatic?

A

Epistasis is the masking of the expression of one gene by another, where no new phenotypes are created.

The epistatic gene does the masking while the hypostatic gene is masked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Compare “dominant epistasis” and “recessive epistasis”.

A

In dominant epistasis one dominant allele at one gene masks expression from another gene whereas in recessive epistasis homozygous recessive alleles at one gene pair mask expression from the other gene. In both cases only 3 distinct phenotypes are produced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Pleiotropy? Give an example.

A

A single gene can cause a number of distinct and seemingly unrelated phenotypic effects.

Sickle cell and cystic fibrosis occur at the same gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T or F:

Inbreeding increases the frequency of homozygotes and decreases the frequency of heterozygotes.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is “heterosis”?

A

Heterosis, AKA hybrid vigor, occurs when two different inbred lines are crossed and the hybrid is heterozygous for many genes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T or F:

The X and Y chromosomes pair during meiosis even though they are not homologous.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is an Autopolyploid?

A

A polyploid organism where are the chromosome sets are identical, and the chromosomes are all derived from the same species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an Allopolyploid?

A

A polyploid organism that is the cross between 2 or more species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the main issue with polyploidy, and what is the solution?

A

Many polyploids are sterile because their multiple sets of chromosomes separate irregularly. This is solved by doubling the number of chromosomes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Aneuploidy?

A

Occurs when a diploid genome either lacks a chromosome or has an extra one.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In humans autosomal monosomies are lost during pregnancy. Name the 3 autosomal trisomies that are live births.

A
Down Syndrome (trisomy 21)
Patau Syndrome (trisomy 13)
Edwards Syndrome (trisomy 18)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

XXY is known as?

A

Klinefelter Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

XO is known as?

A

Turner Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Name 2 chemicals that can cause non-disjunction.

A

Colchicine and Bisphenol A (BPA)

35
Q

Why is there a correlation between trisomies and maternal age?

A

Bivalents with crossovers near the ends become increasingly unstable over time.

36
Q

What is a “reciprocal translocation”?

A

This is when pieces of 2 non-homologous chromosomes are exchanged without any net loss of genetic info.

37
Q

What are compound chromosomes?

A

These are formed by the fusion of homologous chromosomes, homologous chromosome segments or sister chromatids.

38
Q

What are “Robertsonian Translocations”?

A

These are formed by the fusion of non-homologous chromosomes at their centromeres.

39
Q

Name the 2 people associated with linked genes.

A

T.H. Morgan and A.H. Sturtevant

40
Q

When does homologous recombination occur?

A

Prophase of meiosis I

41
Q

How is chromosome mapping calculated?

A

(# of recombinants / total # of offspring) x 100

42
Q

What are the 2 possible configurations for a dihybrid parent’s genotype?

A

Trans and cis

43
Q

What is Nail Patella caused by?

A

A rare dominant allele on chromosome 9.

44
Q

T or F:

Pedigree analysis can provide estimates of recombination frequencies.

A

True.

45
Q

What 4 contributions have bacteria and viruses made to genetic studies?

A
  • Evidence of DNA
  • First characteristics and definitions of a gene
  • First evidence for gene interactions at the molecular level
  • Basic principles of inheritance
46
Q

What makes bacteria useful for research?

A
  • Small size
  • Rapid reproduction
  • Selective media
  • Simple physiology
  • Genetic variability
47
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

A virus that infects bacteria.

48
Q

What are “plaques”?

A

Clearances produced by bacteriophages on a lawn of bacteria cultures.

49
Q

Describe Bacteriophage T4.

A
  • Protein head
  • 168,800 base pairs and 150 genes
  • Lytic
50
Q

Describe Bacteriophage Lambda.

A
  • 48,502 base pairs and 50 genes

- can be lytic or lysogenic

51
Q

Why do viruses want to have replication errors?

A

Errors in replication allow for mutations to provide resistance.

52
Q

What is the difference between a lytic pathway and a lysogenic pathway?

A

A lytic pathway means that the phage causes the bacteria cell to burst and infect other cells, whereas in a lysogenic pathway the phage’s DNA is inserted into the bacteria’s genome and lies dormant.

53
Q

Name the term:

This is when Bacteriophage Lambda is in its integrated state and its lytic genes are turned off.

A

Prophage

54
Q

Gene mutations can be observed in bacteria due to 4 characteristics:

A
  • Colony colour and morphology
  • Nutritional mutants
  • Antibiotic resistance
  • Prototrophic or auxotrophic
55
Q

T or F:

Bacterial genomes are circular and called bacterial chromosomes.

A

True

56
Q

What is a “plasmid”?

A

Additional genetic info that replicates independently of the bacterial chromosome.

57
Q

T or F:

Bacteria have chiasmata.

A

False. Bacteria do not undergo meiosis so they do not have chiasmata.

58
Q

T or F:

Bacteria exchange genetic info through 3 parasexual processes.

A

True.

59
Q

Describe the 3 parasexual processes that bacteria use.

A

Transformation - free floating DNA pieces are taken up by the recipient cell and used to create a recombinant chromosome.

Conjugation - direct transfer of replicated DNA from one cell to another via a cytoplasmic bridge, where the DNA is used to create a recombinant chromosome.

Transduction - transfer of genes using a vector such as a bacteriophage as it infects different cells.

60
Q

Is cell contact required for:

  • Transformation
  • Conjugation
  • Transduction
A
  • No
  • Yes
  • No
61
Q

Are the following sensitive to DNase:

  • Transformation
  • Conjugation
  • Transduction
A
  • Yes
  • No
  • No
62
Q

T or F:

Transformation can be used to determine the distance between bacterial genes.

A

True.

63
Q

Conjugation is “sexual reproduction” and is mediated by?

A

The Fertility factor or F factor.

64
Q

Conjugation between an F+ cell and an F- cell usually results in?

A

2 F+ cells

65
Q

T or F:

Plasmids are usually required for survival of the host cell.

A

False. Plasmids serve as genetic auxillary elements.

66
Q

What is the function of genetic material?

A

The genetic material must:

  • replicate
  • control growth and development
  • allow the organism to adapt
67
Q

Nucleic acids are composed of?

A

Nucleotides.

68
Q

What are the 4 DNA nitrogen bases?

A

Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine.

69
Q

What are the 2 pentose sugars?

A

Deoxyribose and Ribose.

70
Q

What are the 2 types of nitrogen bases? Which bases are in which group?

A

Purines - Adenine, Guanine

Pyrimidines - Cytosine, Thymine

71
Q

Nucleotides are joined by _____ and link?

A

Phosphodiester bonds, which link C-3 of one sugar to C-5 of another sugar.

72
Q

Who discovered the base composition of DNA?

A

Erwin Chargaff.

73
Q

Who discovered that DNA is a stacked polymer?

A

William Astbury.

74
Q

Who discovered that DNA is a helix?

A

Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins.

75
Q

How many hydrogen bonds are between T and A?

A

2 H-bonds.

76
Q

How many hydrogen bonds are between C and G?

A

3 H-bonds.

77
Q

T or F:

DNA is a double helix and the strand are anti-parallel.

A

True.

78
Q

What is the total length of the diploid genomes?

A

~ 2 metres

79
Q

Each eukaryotic chromosome consists of?

A
  • 1 large linear molecule of DNA
  • Large amounts of histones
  • Large amounts of non-histone proteins
80
Q

How many levels of DNA packaging are there?

A

3.

81
Q

The nucleosome core consists of 4 histones. What are they and how many of each?

A

2 each of: H2a, H2b, H3, H4.

82
Q

T or F:

The complete nucleosome contains histone H1.

A

True.

83
Q

How big is a nucleosome?

A

11 nm