MIDTERM ish Flashcards

filler of not known terms after searching quizlet

1
Q

Is CO2 (carbon dioxide) and acid or a base

A

Acid; H2O is its counterpart (base)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

is NH4 (ammonium) an acid or a base

A

Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

is HCO3 (bicarbonate) an acid or a base

A

Base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

is H+ (hydrogen) an acid or a base

A

Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Kidneys regulate secretion and resorption of

A

H+ (acid) and HCO3 (base)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does hyperventilating affect CO2 levels

A

Increases the amount of CO2 exhaled, raising the pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

difference between hyperventilating, hypoventilating, and Kussmaul breaths; and how does each affect CO2 levels?

A

hypoventilating (slow, shallow breaths): the body produces more CO2 than it can eliminate causing an increase in CO2 in the body, lowering the pH
Kussmaul breaths (fast, deep breaths; a form of hyperventilating): the body is purposely trying to rid the body of excess CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

normal range of PaCO2

A

35 to 45 mm Hg
Rise in CO2 = blood O2 decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

normal range of HCO3

A

22 to 26 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Metabolic Acidosis

A

(ketoacidosis)
pH: below 7.35
PaCO2: normal (38 to 42 mm Hg)
HCO3: <22 mEq/L $

Increased H+ (hydrogen) / decreased HCO3
Kidneys compensation: retain HCO3, resorption to attempt to raise pH; secretion of H+
Lungs compensation: hyperventilate

Causes: prod./ingestion of acids, renal failure, loss of alkali

Signs: Rapid, deep breaths (Kussmaul); Increased HR; fatigue

Tx: bicarbonate to raise pH;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Respiratory Acidosis

A

pH: below 7.35
PaCO2: > 45 mmHg $
HCO3: increase 1-3.5 mEq/L for every 10 mmHg CO2 (acute - chronic)

Kidneys compensation: increase production of HCO3; acid in urine
Lungs compensation: Hypoventilate

Signs: Hypoventilation; Abdominal distention, evidence of hypoxia

Tx: treating the underlying illness; use suction to remove mucus from the airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

pH: above 7.45
PaCO2: Normal
HCO3: > 26 mEq/L $
Kidneys compensation: excrete HCO3 or conserve H+
Lungs compensation: hyperventilation or hypoventilation

Causes: excess loss of acids, HCO3 retention, ingestion of alkali

Signs: numbness, prolonged muscle spasms, nausea

Tx: treat the underlying condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

A

pH: above 7.45
PaCO2: <35 mmHg $
HCO3: Normal

Kidneys compensation: decreasing production of HCO3 and decreasing acid in urine; acid retention
Lungs compensation:

Signs: hyperventilation; excessive exhalation of CO2

Tx: supplemental O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the chemicals in constant acid-base equilibrium

A

CO2, H2O, HCO3, H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

edema

A

clinical manifestation: accumulation of interstitial fluid. Presentation in the extremities is more notable and palpable; however, presentation in the lungs may cause shortness of breath

Tx: typically diuretics are used to aid in elimination of fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hyponatremia

A

Low sodium

Labs: <135 mEq/L

Causes: fluid loss from vomiting and diarrhea or other GI depletion, or an effect from (diuretics); renal dysfunction, adrenal insufficiency (i.e., Addison disease), syndrome of improper ADH secretion, or diabetic ketoacidosis

Signs/symptoms: decreased serum osmolality, headache, anxiety, nausea, hypotension, tachycardia, anorexia, muscle cramps

Tx: focus on underlying etiology, intake/ouput monitoring,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hypernatremia

A

High sodium

Labs: >145 mEq/L

Causes: increased output or decreased intake of water; excessive intake of sodium, diarrhea, burns, and heat stroke

Signs/symptoms: increased serum osmolality, hypotension, tachycardia, dry skin/mucus membranes, headache, decreased skin turgor

Tx: intake/ouput monitoring, nurse lookout for fever or thirst; increase fluid intake if PT excess water output (diabetes insipidus) - synthetic ADH is warranted … seizure watch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

isotonic

A

solutions have the same osmolality as body fluids.
Normal saline (0.9% sodium chloride) is an example.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

hypotonic

A

the extracellular fluid (ECF) has a lower osmolarity than the fluid inside the cell; water enters the cell
example of a hypertonic solution is 3% sodium chloride.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

hypertonic

A

the extracellular fluid has a higher osmolarity than the fluid inside the cell; water leaves the cell
example of a hypotonic solution is 0.45% sodium chloride.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

hypervolemia

A

Isotonic fluid volume excess typically results from ECF volume excess; increase in ECF sodium

Cause: a decreased excretion of water and sodium, as in acute kidney injury or chronic kidney disease

Clinical manifest: weight gain, decreased hematocrit, dilution of plasma

Signs: distended neck veins, increased BP, and increased capillary hydrostatic pressure contribute to presence of edema.

Tx: restricting fluid intake and correcting the underlying etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

hypovolemia

A

Isotonic fluid volume deficit; Normal sodium levels

Causes: hemorrhage, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, excess sweating, burns, diabetes insipidus, and uncontrolled diabetes mellitus

Clinical manifest: decrease in urine output, weight loss, and an increased hematocrit.

Signs: tachycardia, decreased skin turgor and blood pressure, and, potentially, hypovolemic shock

Tx: addressing the cause of the fluid deficit and replacing lost volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

RAAS

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone-system

responds to low blood pressure and low serum sodium

Ex:
decrease in BP will stimulate the secretion of renin and subsequent activation of RAAS, resulting in sodium retention, increased fluid volume and BP increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

renin

A

controls production of aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

aldosterone

A

mineralcorticoid hormone synthesized and secreted by adrenal cortex, in response to hemodynamic changes

helps control the balance of water and salts in the kidney by retaining sodium in and releasing potassium from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

decreased/increased serum osmolality

A

low serum osmolality will suppress the release of ADH, resulting in decreased water reabsorption and more concentrated plasma

increase of only 2% to 3% in plasma osmolality will produce a strong desire for thirst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

hyperchloremia

A

High chloride ions

Labs:

Causes:

Signs/symptoms:

Tx:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

obstructive shock

A

caused by an obstruction of blood flow
least common for nurse to encounter in ICU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

cariogenic shock

A

failure of hear to pump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

distributive shock

A

abnormal redistribution of blood
types: anaphylactic, septic, neurogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

hypovolemic shock

A

low blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

septic shock

A

(or anaphylatic shock) due to inflammatory vascular response
a type of distributive shock = most common in ICU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

sepsis (general)

A

the bodys extreme response to infection; can lead to tissue damage, organ failure, and death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

all shock types (etiology)

A

development of acute circulatory failure resulting in hypotension and inadequate tissue perfusion; heart failure, low blood volume, redistribution of ECF to extravascular sites, and obstruction of blood flow
OUTCOME: poor tissue perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

perfusion

A

flow rate of blood through capillaries and extracellular spaces, responsible for transport of O2, nutrients, and waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

hypoperfusion (clinical manifestation)

A

cold, clammy skin (a result of vasoconstriction and cyanosis), renal output decrease (oliguria), confusion (obtundation), hyperlactatemia, and hypercoagulability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

oliguria

A

production of abnormally small amount of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

hypovolemic shock (cause)

A

loss of >15% of body fluid
severe dehydration, inadequate ECF, sig. blood loss, excess vomit/diarrhea, MODS, burn injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

cardiogenic shock (s/s)

A

decreased CO (cardiac output), MI, HF, cardiac tamponade, restrictive cardiomyopathy, constrictive pericarditis, MODS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

obstructive shock (s/s)

A

clinical : disturbance of consciousness, oliguria, hypotension, and tachycardia

obstruction of major blood vessels, obstruction of cardiac pumping, cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolism, MODS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

distributive shock (s/s)

A

clinical :

imparied distribution of blood flow, extensive vasodilation, loss of vascular tone, septic shock, anaphylactic shock, neurogenic shock, MODS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

sepsis (s/s)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

hemodynamics (factors that influence circulation)

A

blood volume, systemic vascular tone, heart rate, force of contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MODS

A

multi-organ dysfunction syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

stage 1 shock

A

early, reversible, compensated
sympathetic activation cause tachycardia and vasoconstriction
kidneys respond with active RAAS to reabsorb sodium and water to maintain fluid
strong chance of recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

stage 2 shock

A

intermaediate, progressive
compensation begins to fail, decrease in persuion = hypoxia
PT experience confusion, disorientation, angina (d/t decreased O2 delivery to myocardium), muscle pain
reversible if right treatment is implemented promptly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

stage 3 shock

A

refractory, irreversible
permanent toll on body and organs
heart func. decline, kidneys shutdown, cells = hypoxia and cell death
PT death due to MODS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

qSOFA

A

(Quick Sequential Organ Failure Assessment)
bedside diagnosis criteria for septic shock
(altered mentation) Glasgow coma scale <10, systolic BP of 100mmHg or less, and respiratory rate of 22/min +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

blockage of sympathetic nervous system outflow to the intrathoracic sympathetic chain
caused by any factor that increases parasympathetic stim
common in spinal cord injury above T6, 2nd to parasym. outflow from T1-L2
more severe = higher on spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

neurogenic shock (s/s)

A

decrease in vascular resistance, loss of vascular capacitance with assoc. vascular dilation and bradycardia in the absence of hypovolemia
hypovolemia = tachycardia

Clinical : systolic hypotension, bradycardia, hypothermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

SOFA

A

evaluates multiple different systems (cardiovascular, respiratory, coagulation, renal, hepatic, neurologic)

predicting potential mortality and can guide clinical intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

anaphylactic shock (s/s)

A

stridor, tachycardia, dyspnea, wheezing, coughing, edema, laryngospasm, bronchoconstriction, angioedema, urticaria, pruritus, hives, gastrointestinal cramps, and hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

MODS

A

multi-organ dysfunction syndrome
2+ system dysfunction; homeostasis in PT cannot be maintained without intervention
most commonly caused by septic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

MODS (s/s)

A

6 primaries (respiratory, renal, hepatic, cardio, gastro, neuro)
Renal & hepatic = serum creatinine or bilirubin levels. Hematologic = thrombocytopenia
Cardio = changes in blood pressure and the heart
Neuro = level of consciousness
Gastro = tenderness of abdomin, palpable masses
Assessment will focus on Glasgow Coma scale scores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

ischemia

A

drop in bloodflow to the brain; a lack of O2 and glucose that lead to tissue dmg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

hematoma

A

increasing pressure in the skull (bleeding in tissue or excess prod. of CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

CSF

A

(cerebral spinal fluid)
choroid plexi produces CSF within ventricles
flows in the subarachnoid space surrounding the brain and spinal cord, providing buoyancy and nourishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

hydrocephalus

A

excessive accumulation of CSF in brain can cause increased pressure within skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

BBB

A

(blood brain barrier)
specialized endothelium in brain capillaries that permits selective entry of substances
Highly lipophilic subs are able to cross, H2O by diffusion and most others by facilitated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

cerebral autoregulation

A

critical to providing a steady flow of O2 and nutrients to brain and removing metabolic waste; maintains blood flow to brain and spinal cord despite fluctuation in mean arterial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

cerebral blood flow

A

blood supply to the brain in a given time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

intracranial pressure

A

pressure exerted by contents of cranium: brain tissue, blood, and CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

TIA

A

(transient ischemic attack)
temporary episode of neurologic dysfunction cause by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia without acute infarction
cause : clot that blocks bld supply to brain; does not cause permanent damage
buildup of fatty deposits on arterial walls (atherosclerosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

TIA (s/s)

A

facial drooping, extremity weakness (esp. one sided), speech difficulty, sudden trouble seeing, difficulty walking with dizzy, lack of balance, severe headache unkown cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

TIA (Tx)

A

(w/in 24-48hrs) urgent evaluation, risk stratification, and PT education of stroke prevention therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

TIA mimics

A

hypoglycemia, seizure, intracranial hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

stroke

A

interruption in bld supply to brain or bleeding vessel that results in brain tissue dmg or infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

ischemic stroke

A

partial or complete occlusion od cerebral bld flow to an area of the brain d/t a thrombus or embolus
athersclerosis = most common lead

(conditions = increased risks pg. 672)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

thrombotic stroke

A

occlusion of bld vessel as a result of plaque buildup along vessel wall, usually involve internal carotid, mid-cerebral, or basilar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

hemorrhagic stroke

A

bleeding in brain d/t bursted bld vessel
(intraparenchymal) intracerebral = bld in brain tissue (parenchyma)
intraventricular = bld in ventricles
extracerebral = bld in membrane surrounding brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

aneurysm

A

abnormal bulge along vessel wall that fills with bld and is caused by a weak or thin area of wall
symptoms occur when it puts pressure on brain or it leaks/ruptures causing a hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

AVM

A

(arteriovenous malformation)
tangle of abnormal/poorly formed bld vessels
can occur anywhere and are at the greatest risk of bleeding
Dural AVM = acquired disorder (usually trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

AVM (s/s)

A

(would be considered a stroke)
sudden onset of neurologic deficit that lasts 24hr and is due to a reduction or occlusion of cerebral circulation or rupture of blood vessels
s/s : fig. 27.3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

ischemic stroke (Tx)

A

restore bld flow and reduce area of infarction (brain tissue death); area surrounding the infarction (penumbra) can be salvaged if perfusion is restored quickly

Acute stroke : O2 is used to improve oxygenation, glycemic control to norm rng, and BP managed for adequate perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

DCI

A

(delayed cerebral ischemia)
neurologic deficit, cognitive deficit, or both that occur in 3-14 days after hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

hemorrhagic stroke Tx

A

priority of care = ventilation and BP management
osmotic dieuretics = decreased intrcranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

subdural hemorrhage

A

bleed from the bridging veins below inner layer of dura (between dura mater and arachnoid membrane)

does not directly occlude bld vessels, so is not considered a stroke; can become large enough to cause a stroke though

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

subdural hemorrhage (s/s)

A

headache, confusion, behavior change, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, weakness, apathy, seizures

size of hemorrhage and age of PT affect response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

subdural hemorrhage (Tx)

A

surgery must be considered
before surgery, ventilation and BP are priority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

spinal cord hemorrhage

A

rare but may occur with trauma, vascular malformation, or bleeding disorders
(epidural, subdural, subarachnoid, or intramedullary)
intramedullary = bleed in white + gray matter
epidural/subdural = compression on spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

spinal cord hemorrhage (s/s)

A

sudden, severe, localized back pain with or without radiculopathy
intramedullary = hemiparesis, paraparesis, or quadriparesis; sensory loss below the lesion; and loss of sphincter control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

hemiparesis

A

weakness or inability to move one side of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

paraparesis

A

partially unable to move legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

quadriparesis

A

(tetraparesis) muscle weakness in all four limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

tetraplegia

A

inability to move upper and lower body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

spinal cord hemorrhage (Tx)

A

surgical resection for decompression or catheter-based intervention, raditation therapy (photon or gamma knife)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

HF

A

(heart failure)
inability of heart to pump adequate bld to meet bodys metabolic needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

HF (causes)

A

muscular contraction = decreased ejection
muscular relaxation = heart not filling adequately
combo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

HF (s/s)

A

fatigue, SOB, inability to exercise, extremity edema, death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

CO

A

(cardiac output)
amount of bld pumped out of heart in L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

RAAS (response to CO)

A

if CO decreases = RAAS & SNS are activated
fluid retention and vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

left side HF

A

left = responsible systemic circulation; failure results in vol. overload & venous congestion in lungs

s/s : fatigue and SOB;
decreased CO = RAAS & SNS active = bld volume increase = pulmonary congestion = dyspnea

pulmonary congestion = right side works harder against the pressure and may fail as a result

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

right side HF

A

right = responsible lungs circulation; failure results in systemic venous congestion = elevated jugular ven. pressure, hepatic congestion, peripheral edema

everything behind the failure gets backed up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

systolic failure

A

HF with reduced EF
amount of bld present at end of diastole (preload) is important

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

diastolic failure

A

EF is preserved, contractility is preserved or slightly impaired, but muscle relaxtion impaired = inadequte filling, decreased preload = reduced CO

impaired fill (bigger issue) = tachycardia + diastolic fill time decreased = even more reduced SV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

SV

A

(stroke volume)
amount of blood pumped out of heart with each beat in mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

EF

A

(ejection fraction)
measurement of percentage of blood ejected from left ventricle with each contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

High output HF

A

heart still pumping high amount of blood (8L/min);
vasodilation + BP decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Low output HF

A

(simply HF)
CO reduced = decreased perfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

acute HF

A

isolated event without prior hx
rapid prog. to critical illness; MI, myocarditis, drug toxicity
PT may suffer chronic HF after

Tx : underlyting cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

chronic HF

A

management : low-salt diet, medications, monitor symptoms/vitals, lifestyle decisions

(ADHF; acute decompensted HF) chronic HF PT can still develop acute HF = worsening symptoms
any stress to the heart can result in decomp. (inf./diet/lifestyle/meds)

Tx : hospital and underlying cause to be idetnified and treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

NYHA Class 1

A

does not affect daily activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

NYHA Class 2

A

comfortable resting, but slight limit in activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

NYHA Class 3

A

markedly limited in physical activity, still comfort at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

NYHA Class 4

A

experience symptoms at any level of activity and sometimes at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

ACC/AHA Stages of HF

A

Stage A: high risk for HF w/o structural dis or symptoms
Stage B: structural dis but w/o s/s of HF
Stage C: structural dis w/ prior or current symptoms
Stage D: refractory HF requiring specialized interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Killip Classification

A

Class I: No heart failure. No clinical signs of cardiac decompensation

Class II: Heart failure. Diagnostic criteria include rales, S3 gallop and venous hypertension

Class III: Severe heart failure. Frank pulmonary edema

Class IV: Cardiogenic shock. Signs include hypotension (systolic blood pressure of ≤90 mmHg) and evidence of peripheral vasoconstriction such as oliguria, cyanosis, and diaphoresis. Heart failure, often with pulmonary edema, has been present in a majority of these patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

systolic HF (cause)

A

dilated cardiomyopathy (weakening of heart muscle) idiopathic, ischemic (related to Coronary Artery Disease), or genetic

CAD w/ MI, diabetes, thyroid, hormonal
alcohol or cocaine
nutritional deficiencies, chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Preload

A

amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction, at the end of diastole
affected by: body fluid volume, venous return to heart, and EF (ejection fraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Afterload

A

amount of pressure the heart needs to generate to pump blood out of the ventricle

the ventricle must contract strongly enough to overcome the blood pressure in that system

Reducing afterload typically allows the heart to work more efficiently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

contractility

A

strength of muscular contraction in the heart muscle. Greater contractility typically leads to increasing stroke volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

SVR

A

(systemic vascular resistance)
resistance to forward flow of blood generated by the blood vessels in the systemic circulation

Normal SVR is 800-1200 dynes-sec/cm^5.

Low SVR = lower pressure needed to provide fwd flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

blood flow through the heart

A

right atrium > tricuspid > right ventricle > pulmonary valve > lungs > left atrium > mitral > left ventricle > aortic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

cardiac remodeling

A

physical hypertrophy of heart muscle, becomes less coordinated with opposing ventricles, less elongated fibers, shorter and more rounded
Angiotensin II contributes to promoted hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

systolic HF (s/s)

A

fatigue, sleep disturbances, weight loss, anorexia, and dyspnea

depression and cognitive dysfunction is also common

peripheral edema, diminished distal pulses, hypotension, tachycardia, and narrow pulse pres-sure

pulmonary edema and hepatic congestion may also develop, manifesting in cough, frothy sputum, and right upper quadrant tenderness or pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

systolic HF (Tx)

A

reducing symptoms by decreasing fluid retention and counteracting the neurohormonal effects of HF. ACE inhibitors are considered first-line therapy in the treatment of systolic HF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

diastolic HF (cause)

A

stiffnes of hear muscles, abnormal electrolyte movement into and out of the myocardial cells causing failure of the heart muscle to completely relax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

diastolic HF (s/s)

A

dyspnea with exercise, more fluid retention in abdomin (PT describe as bloating or fullness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

diastolic HF (Tx)

A

No therapy has been shown to improve survival in patients
treat PT according to underlying disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

left-side HF (cause)

A

cardiomyopathy, coronary artery disease, alcohol or cocaine abuse, or hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

left side HF (s/s)

A

hypertrpophic heart, increase in pulmonary venous pressure = paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, activation of RAAS = increase in preload and afterload

reduced CO = hypotension, fatigue, decreased urine output, exercise intolerance, dizziness, syncope, distal pulse decrease, cool skin, tachycardia, BP low, weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

A

sudden shortness of breath while sleeping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

orthopnea

A

difficulty breathing while laying flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

left-side HF (Tx)

A

similar to systolic HF: reversing the effects of the body’s natural responses to the HF, Fluid retention is alleviated by the use of diuretics, RAAS is blocked by the use of ACE inhibitors

PT educated to weigh themselves, monitor vitals, and low-sodium diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

right-side HF (cause)

A

typically caused by left-side HF
pulmonary HTN (pressure too great for afterlod of right ventricle to pump), ischemia, contractility reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

right-side (s/s)

A

In right ventricular failure, the left ventricle is inadequately filled, leading to reduced CO.
Patients may exhibit s/s of reduced CO, including cool extremities, poor distal pulses, fatigue, exercise intoler-ance, and syncope

Patients may complain of nausea, vomiting, and early satiety as the liver enlarges and causes pressure on the stomach, liver function may be impaired

elevated jugular venous pressure, distended neck veins, peripheral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

pulmonary vascular resistance

A

the resistance to flow of blood generated by the blood vessels in the pulmonary circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

right-side HF (Tx)

A

dependent on underlying cause; help reduce RV afterload and improve RV failure; low sodium diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

high output HF (cause)

A

marked by unusually low SVR and elevated CO; caused by dilation of vascular bed or arteriovenous fistula

decrease SVR = anemia (nitric oxide > vasodilation), sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

arteriovenous fistula

A

abnormal connection between 1+ arteries and 1+ veins = systemic shunting
(caused by): Paget disease, multiple myeloma, liver disease, or an artificially created fistula such as one created for dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

high output HF (s/s)

A

similar to systolic, (and right side HF) signs of volume overload such as hepatic congestion, elevated jugular venous pressure, and peripheral edema. Patients may also experience fatigue and dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

high output HF (Tx)

A

treating cause of vasodilation, control symptoms, and support vital functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

cardiac index

A

value obtained when the CO is divided by body surface area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

CAD

A

(coronary artery disease)
bloodflow to myocardium is reduced

sometimes interchangeable w/

(coronary heart disease)
buildup of plaque (made of cholesterol) [fatty] deposits in the coronary arteries (atherosclerosis)

Dx included with CHD: silent myocardial ischemia, myocardial infarction, angine pectoris, acute coronary syndrome (ACS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

angina

A

(angine pectoris)
chest pain, discomfort, pressure, squeezing symptoms of CAD when the heart is not receiving enouhg perfusion blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

CVD

A

(cardiovascular disease)
commonly atherosclerosis, causes disease of the heart and coronary and systemic circulation

Dx include: stroke, TIA, claudication, and limb ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

claudication

A

leg pain that is induced by exercise, typically caused by decreased arterial blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

myocardial ischemia

A

restriction or decrease in bld supply to the heart muscle tissues = shortage of O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

myocardial infarction

A

complete occlusion of bld flow leading to cell death, or necrosis

athersclerosis > thromboembolism
thrombus (blood clot) is carried through the vessel and becomes lodged (embolism)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

ideal cardiovascular health

A

w/o cardiovascular disease
Life Simple 7: BP, physical activity, cholesterol, diet, weight, smoking habits, blood glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

thrombosis

A

process of formation of a thrombus that obstructs blood flow to organs depending on where it comes from; when formed in coronary artery, the block can cause an MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

vasospasm

A

a sudden contstriction of a blood vessel that decreases the vessels diameter and thus decreases blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

aneurysm

A

a localized, blood-filled, balloon-like bulge in the wall of a blood vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

a name for atherosclerosis that can affect all arteries in the body?

A

ASCVD (atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

dysrhythmia

A

abnormal heart rhythm that can be irregularly slow or fast (aka arrhythmia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

coronary angiography

A

(aka coronary arteriography)
invasive procedure that is usually used to confirm the diagnosis of CAD after noninvasive test have been inconclusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

coronary perfusion pressure

A

the pressure of blood through coronary circulation as a result of the pressure gradient between the aortic pressure and the right atrial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

autoregulation

A

the phenomenon that maintains the constant regulation of coronary blood flow through the myocardium despite changes in coronary perfusion pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

tachycardia

A

(abnormal rapid heart rate, generally more than 100 beats per minute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

stable angina

A

occurs with increased myocardial oxygen demand and reduced blood flow during exertion or emotional stress, commonly caused by atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

stable angina (cause)

A

gradual narrowing of the arteries: endothelial dysfunction, coronary microvascular disease (MVD), vasospasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

stable angina (s/s)

A

chest discomfort {usual complaint}, may also result as postpandrial (after eating), dyspnea, fatigue, belching

same as angina pectoris, sqeezing, tightness, crushing, suffocating, and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

stable angina (Tx)

A

stress test (cardio-vascular magnetic resonance (CMR) myocardial perfusion imaging)
Beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, or ARBs when ACE are not tolerated

short-acting nitroglycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

silent ischemia

A

higher prevalence being likely for patients with diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

silent ischemia (cause)

A

thought to be due to defective anginal warning as a result of an issue with peripheral and neural processing of pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

silent ischemia (s/s)

A

chest pain may not always be present; ST-segment depression may or may not be present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

IHD

A

ischemic heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

silent ischemia (Tx)

A

tx of symptomatic and asymptomatic ischemia would be similar = nitrates, beta blockers, CCBs (reduce or eliminate episodes)
lipid-lowering therapy as secindary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

MVD (cause)

A

not currently known, could be d/t ischemic process or other causes such as endothelial and microvascular dysfunction, coronary vaso-spasms, or myocardial metabolism problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

MVD

A

(microvascular dysfunction or coronary microvascular dysfunction)
damage to the walls and inner linings of small coronary arteries that can lead to narrowing, spasms, and decreased blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

MVD (s/s)

A

angina in the absence of ischemia caused by CAD is a common characteristic, difficult to differentiate from angina with ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

MVD (Tx)

A

standard test used to detect CAD do not work for MVD;
noninvasive methods: Doppler echocardiography, SPECT scan, and CMR myocardial perfusion imaging, have proved helpful in detecting MVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

ACS

A

(acute coronary syndrome)
acute form of CAD; any cluster of clinical signs and symptoms that are related to acute myocardial ischemia and infarction

Types:
- non–ST-segment elevation acute coronary syndrome (NSTE-ACS), which formerly was known as unstable angina
- non–ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI)
- ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

NSTE-ACS

A

(non–ST-segment elevation acute coronary syndrome)
formerly known as unstable angina

presents as myocardial ischemia without ST elev.

accelerates in frequency and severity but does not result in myocardial necrosis

{ischemic}

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

NSTEMI

A

(non-ST-segment elevation mycardial infarction)

myocardial ischemia in the absence of ST elevation on ECG but the presence of elevated biomarkers of myocardial necrosis = acute MI

major difference between NSTEMI and unstable angina is the biomarker of necrosis

{infarction}

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

STEMI

A

(ST-segment elevation mycardial infarction)
myocardial necrosis

more precise term for heart attack

{infarction}

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

unstable angina

A

chest discomfort or pain related to lack of blood flow through coronary arteries and subsequent myocardial ischemia that is less predictable than stable angina and may occur at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

STEMI (cause)

A

state of heightened inflammation and prothrombotic components
adv. atherosclerosis, nonobstructive plaque rupture, embolus

exposure to fine particle pollution could increase risk of ACS,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

atrial fibrillation

A

dys-rhythmia that may cause pooling and clotting of blood and the risk of embolization if the clot breaks free and obstructs an artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

STEMI (s/s)

A

ischemic nerve endings cause pain, but necrotic myocardium will not
angina, dyspnea, malaise (radiate to shoulder, arms neck), fatigue, diaphoresis, palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

bradycardia

A

less than 60BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

STEMI (s/s)

A

ischemic nerve endings cause pain, but necrotic myocardium will not
angina, dyspnea, malaise (radiate to shoulder, arms neck), fatigue, diaphoresis, palpitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

STEMI (Tx)

A

ECG alone is not sufficient to Dx a STEMI

timely reperfusion and function of caridomyocytes

Timely Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), also known as coronary angioplasty, is a nonsurgical technique for treating obstructive coronary artery disease, including unstable angina, acute myocardial infarction (MI), and multivessel coronary artery disease (CAD) will greatly increase survival chance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

automaticity

A

ability of specialized myocardial cells, or pacemaker cells, to generate an electrical impulse (depo-larize) to regulate the heart rate in accordance to the body’s needs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

absolute refractory period

A

time after the firing of a nerve fiber during which the nerve fiber can-not be stimulated, regardless of the strength of the stimulus applied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

VF

A

(ventricular fibrillation)
most serious dysrhythmia; has greatest risk of occurence within first hour of MI

related to absolute refractory period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

which electrolyte imbalances have the greatest risk for heart dysrhythmias?

A

hypokalemia and/or hypomagnesemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

ventricular aneurysm

A

defect in the left or sometimes right ventricle wall in which there is bulging outward dur-ing both systole and diastole, usually as a result of a MI

(cause) female, LAD artery occlusion, no Hx of angina

(s/s) 3-4 heart sound present, systolic murmur

TTE (transthoracic echocardiography) used to identify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

ventricular septal rupture

A

type of ventricular septal defect in which there is an abnormal opening between the left and right ventricles causing oxygenated blood (from the left ventricle) to mix with deoxygenated blood (from the right ventricle) as a result of left-to-right shunting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

pericarditis

A

swelling and inflammation of the pericar-dium, the thin double-layered sac surrounding the heart, as a result of injury such as an acute MI, infection, inflam-matory disorder, trauma, cancer, or congenital causes

10% chance to accour 23-96hrs post-MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Dressler syndrome

A

also known as post-MI syndrome, is the late pericarditis and possibly has an autoimmune pathogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

pericarditis (s/s)

A

pleuritic chest pain, pain worsens with deep inspiration, cough, swallow, lying down
pericardial friction may rub and be auscultated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

pericarditis (Tx)

A

hospitalization for management and OBS of possible cardiac tamponade, aspirin every 4-6hr to reduce inflammation and treat pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

cardiac tamponade

A

life-threatening condition of increased pericardial pressure as a result of blood or fluid buildup between the myocardium and the pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

cardiac tamponade (cause)

A

pericardial effusion (fluid accumulation), trauma, inf, cancer, med side effect, HF, MI, raditation, Dressler, PCI, surgery, inflammatory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

cardiac tamponade (s/s)

A

dyspnea, edema, oliguria (low urine output), jugular venous distention, tachypnea {pant}, and tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

cardiac tamponade (Tx)

A

prompt surgical Tx is needed, MRI can confirm presence, fluid removed and examined to identify cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

valvular disorders

A

problems that disrupt blood flow through the atria and ventricles as a result of abnormal func-tioning of one or more of the four heart valves such as stenosis, regurgitation, or prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

the four heart valves?

A

atriventricular: tricuspid and mitral
semilunar: pulmonic and aortic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

valvular disorders (cause)

A

Increased risk of valvular disorders is associated with age, gender, tobacco use, high cholesterol levels, hypertension, and diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

regurgitation

A

leaking valve; not closing completely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

prolapse

A

valves don’t close smoothly, or overextend into next chamber (balloon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

stenosis

A

hardening or fusion; in the case of mitral valve, may be fused together and restrict blood flow; or could be hardened in an open state and function improperly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

valve disorder (Tx)

A

surgical replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

coronary collateral circulation

A

can develop in the heart as an adaptation to ischemia; as an alternative path for blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

PVD

A

(peripheral vascular disease)
general term referring to conditions affecting circulation in the tissues other than the brain or heart

affects veins; chronic venous insuffi-ciency, deep vein thrombosis, leg ulcers, and varicose veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

PAD

A

(peripheral artery disease)
affects arteries, caused by arteriosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

arteriosclerosis

A

thickening, loss of elasticity, clacification of walls of arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

atherosclerosis

A

build up of plaque within artery that harden and narrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

plaque is made of

A

cholesterol, calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

hyperlipidemia

A

(form of dyslipidemia)
elevated level of blood lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

LDL

A

(Low-density lipoproteins)
primary carriers of cholesterol

“Less-Desireable Lipoproteins”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

HDL

A

(high-density lipoproteins)

help to clear cholesterol from the arteries

“highly-desireable lipoproteins”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

atheroma

A

region of plaque consists of calcium, macrophages, lipids, and fibrous connective tissue, where atherosclerotic narrowing begins to build up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

vulnerable plaque

A

more inflammation and thinner fibrous cap, more susceptible to rupture with subsequent thrombi formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

arterial dissection

A

caused by a tear in the tunica intima in which the blood vessel splits and blood goes between the inner and outer layers, separating the walls

trauma, heredity, cocaine use, pregnancy, and hyperten-sion are associated risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

angioplasty

A

stent placement is the minimally invasive procedure

A balloon-tipped catheter is placed into an artery and advanced to the area of blockage. The balloon is inflated, pressing the plaque against the arterial wall. Once opened, the balloon is deflated, and a small wire mesh tube called a stent is placed in the vessel to keep it from narrow-ing or closing again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

NAPAD

A

(Nonatherosclerotic peripheral arterial disease)
group of disorders in which blood flow is decreased for reasons other than plaque buildup

coarctation of the aorta, thoracic outlet syndrome, and Raynaud disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

TOS

A

(thoracic outlet syndrome)
thoracic outlet starts at the base of the neck and goes behind the clavicle, over the first rib, and down the arm

If the path is narrowed, it can restrict the flow of blood and nerve function

(s/s) poor bld flow or decreased nerve function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

coarctation

A

birth defect resulting in narrowing of aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Raynaud disease

A

condition characterized by attacks of vasospasm in the small arteries and arterioles in the fingers

often triggered by cold weather and emotional stress

Primary (idiopathic), secondary (caused by another condition)

(s/s) skin devoid of color, cyanotic, numbness, tingling, ischemia may result in ulceration or necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Raynaud (Tx)

A

events may not be severe enough for medical attn.
tx for 2nd addresses underlying condition

prime med is calcium channel blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

CVI

A

(chronic venous insufficiency)
disorder in which the veins are unable to return adequate blood to the heart
long-term disorder that most com-monly occurs as a result of blood clots in the deep veins of the legs, a condition called deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

CVI (causes)

A

genetic predisposition, gender (the disorder is more com-mon in women), pregnancy, age over 50 years, smoking, lack of physical activity, obesity, and occupations requiring long periods of standing or sitting. Use of oral contracep-tives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

CVI (s/s)

A

leg cramps and pain that worsens when standing, edema of leg, thickening or discoloration of skin on calves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

leg ulcers

A

(CVI is most common cause)
sores on the skin that persist for more than 6 weeks and take several months or longer to heal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

varicose veins

A

veins that have become enlarged and twisted because of the rupture of valves

superficial thrombophlebitis = inflam of varicose veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

DVT

A

(deep vein thrombosis)
a thrombus (blood clot) occurs in a vein deep in the body; the thrombus may become an embolism that can travel to the heart, lungs, brain, or other vital organs of the body.

(s/s) pressure builds, fluid starts to leak out of the swollen veins, causing edema and additional pain. The area may become reddened, hard, and warm as a result of blood backing up in the area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

DVT (Tx)

A

a positive D-Dimer indicates high amount of fibrin degradation and suggests clot formation

Obesity is the main culprit for DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Elevated BP

A

120-129 AND < 80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Stage 1 HTN

A

130-139 OR 80-89

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Stage 2 HTN

A

> 140 OR >90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Stage 3 HTN

A

> 190 AND/OR >120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

essential HTN

A

(primary HTN)
HTN that does not have a known cause
90% of the cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

secondary HTN

A

identifiable and categorized cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

hypertensive urgency

A

patient presents with severe HTN without evidence of organ damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

hypertensive crisis (s/s)

A

myocardial ischemia or infarction. Renal function is diminished, and blood or protein may be found in the urine. Acute renal failure may occur. In the brain, thrombotic or hemorrhagic stroke may occur. The capillaries in the brain become leaky, producing hypertensive encephalopathy (edema of the brain), with symptoms of headache, paralysis, seizures, or coma. Reti-nal hemorrhages and edema of the retina (papilledema) are signs of severe HTN.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

hypertensive crisis

A

rare condition that occurs when systolic pressure exceeds 180 and/or diastolic pressure exceeds 120 mmHg.
formerly called malignant hypertension or hypertensive emergency
Organ damage occurs primarily in the cardiovascular system, kidneys, or brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

HTN lifestyle changes

A

□■Restrict sodium consumption
□■Limit alcohol consumption
□■Stop smoking
□■Maintain an optimal weight
□■Reduce intake of saturated fat and cholesterol, and increase consumption of fruits and vegetables
□■Increase physical activity
□■Reduce stress levels

230
Q

hemostasis

A

cessation of blood flow, particularly through the action of coagulation

related to conditions of excess coagulation or bleeding

231
Q

hemorrhage

A

copious bleed-ing, which can be outside of the skin (as from a laceration) or in the skin (ecchymoses) bruise

232
Q

ecchymoses

A

(bruise)
bleeding within skin

233
Q

thrombocytes

A

(platelets)

234
Q

phases of hemostasis

A

vascular (initiation): constriction of vessels + platelet activation
aggregation (amplification): platelet begin to clump and form plug
coagulation (propagation): platelet rel. factors = form fibrin = layer over plug to stop blood loss

235
Q

thrombocytopenia

A

(reduction in number of platelets)

236
Q

primary hemostasis

A

associated with abnormalities in the number or function of platelets

Ex: von Willebrand, a lack of a certain factor prevents platelets from adhering to the site of injury, prevent clot

237
Q

secondary hemostasis

A

lack of, or reduction in, factors tied to coagulation

Ex: lack of factor VIII = hemophilia

238
Q

hereditary hemostasis

A

vWD and hemophilia

239
Q

aquired hemostasis

A

liver disease and vitamin K utilization

240
Q

thrombocythemia

A

an excess of platelets can lead to spontaneous blood clot formation

241
Q

bleeding precautions

A

Patients who are at risk of excessive bleed-ing need to be educated about their condition and provided with instructions about preventing bleeding.

soft toothbrush, wearing shoes at all times, avoiding contact sports, and using stool softeners to prevent straining

242
Q

intrinsic factor pathway

A

XII > PF3 > VIII & IX > X

243
Q

extrinsic factor pathway

A

III > VII > X

244
Q

common pathway

A

X > Prothrombin activator > Prothrombin > Thrombin > Fibrinogen > Fibrin

245
Q

hematopoiesis

A

the process behind the formation of blood cells

246
Q

megeakaryocytopoiesis

A

(aka thrombocytopoiesis)
formation of thrombocytes, reflecting their emergence from megakaryocytes

247
Q

vWD

A

(von Willebrand Disease)
most common bleeding disorder;
a lack of a certain factor prevents platelets from adhering to the site of injury, prevent clot

1% population, M&F

248
Q

type 1 vWD

A

70–80% of all cases of the disease and is characterized by either a failure to manufacture the factor or an increase in clearance

249
Q

type 2 vWD

A

binding ability of the factor is either significantly enhanced or delayed, resulting in functional deficits

250
Q

type 3 vWD

A

more severe form in which there is a complete absence of production of the factor

251
Q

D-dimer

A

measures a fragment of fibrin degradation

252
Q

aPTT

A

(Activated partial thromboplastin time)
Measures the same parameters as PTT but with the addition of a clotting activator to enhance the speed of clotting. This results in a test that is seen as more sensitive

253
Q

PTT

A

(Partial thromboplastin time)
Measures the effectiveness of factors I (fibrinogen), II (prothrombin), V, VIII, IX, X, XI, and XII

254
Q

PT

A

(Prothrombin time)
Measures the functional ability of the extrinsic clotting pathway. Examines factors II (prothrombin), V, VII, and X and fibrinogen

255
Q

vWD (s/s)

A

varies per type and blood type
type 1: asymp.; becomes apparent during surgery = excess bleeding
type 3: similar to hemophilia, life-threat + internal bleed

256
Q

Tx for spontaneous bleeding episode

A

DDAVP (desmopressin) and transfusion with plasma-derived vWD products

257
Q

thrombocytopenia

A

norm platelet range : 150,000-450,000 /muL
increased bleed occurs : 80,000-100,000

258
Q

thrombocytopenia (causes)

A

artifact, deficient prod.; increased destruction, consumption, or both

pseudothrombocytopenia = use of anticoagulant

259
Q

HIT

A

(heparin-induced thrombocytopenia)
type 1 : modest transient decrease in platelet count within the first 2–3 days after initiation of heparin therapy

type 2 : (heparin-induced thrombocytopenic thrombosis or white clot syndrome)
antibodies to platelet factor IV on the heparin complex. It is seen about 4–14 days after initiation of heparin therapy

260
Q

ITP

A

(immune thrombocytopenic purpura)
autoimmune disease that causes increased destruction of platelets

261
Q

TTP

A

(Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura)

262
Q

purpura

A

bleeding associated with thrombocytopenia is usu-ally mucocutaneous in nature—on the skin in the form of tiny pinprick hemorrhages or bruises

263
Q

TTP (s/s)

A

(1) microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
(2) thrombocytopenia
(3) renal insufficiency
(4) fever
(5) mental status changes that can wax and wane

264
Q

TTP (Tx)

A

plasmapheresis = cornerstone of therapy, slowing the destruction of platelets

265
Q

hemophilia

A

hereditary bleeding disorder resulting from the loss of select clotting factors

2 forms: A&B

Male; carrier females have a 50% chance to pass on

266
Q

hemophilia A

A

a lack of factor VIII

267
Q

hemophilia B

A

a deficiency in factor IX

268
Q

hemophilia (Tx)

A

episodic home administration of factor deficient concentrates

269
Q

DIC

A

(Disseminated intravascular coagulation)
life-threatening condition in which the proteins that control clot-ting become overactive; individual faces an increased risk of hemorrhage.

(s/s) increased tissue ischemia and bleeding

270
Q

DIC (cause)

A

sepsis, shock, trauma
Dmg to blood vessels and tissue and inflammation can lead to an increase in the concentration of a protein known as tissue factor

271
Q

DIC (s/s)

A

formation of numerous clots, organ dysfunction
DVT or pulmonary embolism testing is critical

dyspnea, hemoptysis, SOB, tachycardia, hypotension

272
Q

DIC (Tx)

A

evaluation of vital signs, assessment of intake and output, and monitoring circulatory status for either the obstruction of blood flow or the presence of hemorrhage

determine underlying cause

273
Q

what presents similarly as DIC

A

thrombocythemia (excess platelets = numerous clots)

274
Q

anemia

A

characterized by a reduction in the number RBCs or a decline in the ability of erythrocytes to carry oxygen

275
Q

erythrocytes

A

RBC

276
Q

Hb

A

(hemoglobin)

277
Q

polcythemia vera

A

excess of RBCs
blood is more viscous = decrease in flow of blood = depriving organs of O2

278
Q

anemia (cause)

A

1) decrease in prod of erythrocytes
2) reduction in survival time of erythrocytes
3) loss of erythrocytes d/t acute/chronic blood loss
4) func. change in structure of erythrocytes

279
Q

MVC

A

(mean corpuscular volume)
Changes in erythrocyte size; this reflects average RBC size

HCT/number of cells in blood

280
Q

fL

A

(femoliters)
unit of measurement equal to 1mm^3; reported value of MVC
norm: 80-100

281
Q

HCT

A

(hematocrit)
the proportion of red blood cells in a volume of blood

282
Q

microcytic/macrocytic anemia

A

presence of small or large erythrocytes

micro: cells are smaller than normal, generally as a result of lack of mat-uration time or lower levels of iron

macro (megablastic): cells that are larger than normal, generally because of a lack of certain nutrients necessary for successful (DNA) replication

283
Q

MCH

A

(mean corpuscular hemoglobin)
Cell color is determined and reported in picograms

norm: 27-34 pg

284
Q

hypochromic

A

Cells with a lower amount of hemoglobin appear washed out and pale

285
Q

normochromic

A

Cells that resemble the normal cell color

normochrom. anemia = decreased in cell number through blood loss or premature destruction

286
Q

folic acid

A

B vitamin that is necessary for cell maturation and DNA repair

287
Q

thalassemia

A

a group of genetic disorders that affect hemoglobin

288
Q

aplastic anemia

A

reduction in number of stem cells present

289
Q

erythropoietin

A

hormone commonly provided in the clinical setting as a pharmacologic therapy to aid in the treatment of anemia (hemolytic anemia = destruction of RBC)

290
Q

anemia risk factors

A

(1) patients with nutritional deficits (iron and B vitamins)
(2) patients with intestinal disorders preventing the ability to absorb nutrients
(3) patients with chronic health problems
(4) patients who are pregnant
(5) patients who are experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding
(6) patients who have genetic risks such as those with sickle cell disease

291
Q

anemia (s/s)

A

decreased O2 can lead to muscle weakness, headaache, dizziness (not enough O2 to brain), pallor, tachycardia, hypotension, increased respirations,

292
Q

anemia (Tx)

A

blood transfusions, replacement of iron or B12, stim factors to promote maturation of RBCs

293
Q

iron deficiency anemia

A

occur through either a reduc-tion in dietary iron or a loss of iron
loss of iron most commonly occurs through hemorrhage, menstrual blood loss in females, and gastrointestinal bleeding in males and females

294
Q

cobalamin deficiency

A

(vitamin b12)
Intrinsic factor is a necessary step in the utilization of cobalamin; changes in the release or absorption of this factor can have adverse effects on red blood cell function.

most common cause: pernicious anemia

295
Q

Folic Acid Deficiency

A

Folic acid works in conjunction with cobalamin, and in its absence, a macrocytic anemia can result

296
Q

folate

A

B vitamin that is essential for maintenance of DNA

297
Q

SCD

A

(sickle cell disease)
cluster of autosomal recessive disorders that results in misshapen forms of hemoglobin that resemble a sickle or crescent in shape

individual has inherited a mutated form of hemoglobin referred to as hemoglobin S (HbS) from both parents
chrom 11

298
Q

SCD (s/s)

A

ischemia anywhere in body, resulting in pain, swelling, tenderness, rapid respiratory rate, HTN
chronic tissue hypoxia and tissure dmg

299
Q

SCD (Tx)

A

prevention, screening, sup-portive care, disease-modifying strategies, and curative procedures
O2 supp, blood transfusion, chronic pain management (vaso-occlusive crisis) opiod analgesics

300
Q

thalassemia (cause)

A

a defect in production of one or more of the globin chains. Hemoglobin comprises four protein chains: a set of two alpha chains and two beta chains

alpha: mutation occurs on chromosome 16

beta: mutation of a gene on chromosome 11 is the causative agent

301
Q

thalassemia (s/s)

A

Growth retardation and cognitive deficits, often identified in early infancy
jaundice

302
Q

aplastic anemia (cause)

A

immune-mediated attack: Activated T cells lead to a process of apoptosis (programmed cell death) within the bone mar-row. These apoptotic processes result in a relative deple-tion of both immature and stem cell populations within the bone marrow.

303
Q

ACD

A

(anemia of chronic disease)
aka anemia of chronic inflammation
patients with chronic disease, being associated with inflammatory infectious processes such as infection, chronic immune activation, or malignancy

304
Q

normocytic

A

the cell size is within the normative range

305
Q

hypoproliferative

A

number of RBCs are reduced

306
Q

ACD (cause)

A

iron is a necessary nutrient for bacterial growth, in ACD the body is attempting to deplete iron so not to feed the bacteria

307
Q

ACD (s/s)

A

generally mild, tired, SOB; no differnt from other anemic forms

308
Q

ACD (Tx)

A

focused on chronic condition underlying disease as ACD is an adaptive response

309
Q

Polycythemia vera

A

disorder of the bone marrow in which too many red blood cells are produced; white blood cells and platelets may increase as well

primary (absolute): increase in the production of erythrocytes on the part of bone marrow (myeloproliferative)

secondary: genetic modifications related to the production of erythropoietin

310
Q

polycythemia vera (s/s)

A

headache, dizziness, and blurred vision associated with the increased blood volume, increased preload = HTN, blood viscosity = blood clots

311
Q

polycythemia vera (Tx)

A

anitcoagulation to prevent thrombi, blood-letting to reduce RBC amount and dilute concentration

312
Q

benign

A

grwoths that contain nonmalignant cells

313
Q

malignant lung tumors (cause)

A

smoking (responsible for 80-90%)
- cigarettes
- cigar/pipe
- weed/cocaine
- 2ndhand smoke
- occupational exposure
- genetics
- benign chronic lung conditions
- viral inf
- diet
- gender : women more susceptible to carcinogen

314
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

most common form of lung cancer
more common in F than M

315
Q

large cell carcinmoa aka…

A

undifferentiated tumors, least common form of NSCLC
(Non–small cell lung cancer)

316
Q

lung cancer (s/s)

A

persistent cough w/ or w/o sputum, (cough is usually attributed to smoking, COPD, respiratory inf)
blood in sputum, recurrent pneumonia or bronchitis, dyspnea, chest pain, hoarseness, and paraneoplastic syndromes (adv lung cancer)

317
Q

NSCLC (Tx)

A

Clinical staging is based on the tumor size (T), location of cancer in lymph nodes (N), and metastases (M)

stage 0-1 : surgery
stage 2-4: surgery is performed, radiation and/or chemotherapy

318
Q

SCLC (Tx)

A

surgery typically is not indicated
multiple chemotherapeu-tic agents and radiation

untreated survival = 2-4 months

319
Q

TB

A

(tuberculosis)

primary TB infection: M. tuberculosis organisms have seeded areas in the lung but have not caused significant tissue damage
(s/s) : fever and pleural effusion are infrequent

disease tuberculosis: clinically significant tissue damage has occurred and the infection is contagious

320
Q

risk factors of TB

A

□■HIV/AIDS
□■Foreign immigration
□■Low income, homelessness, and/or malnourishment
□■Residing in crowded urban conditions
□■Incarceration
□■Ethnic minorities (e.g., Hispanics, African Americans, Asians)
□■Old age
□■Chronic disease (e.g., diabetes mellitus, chronic lung disease, Hodgkin disease, chronic renal failure, alcohol-ism, immunosuppression)
□■Currently smoking cigarettes

321
Q

TB (causes)

A

in US, primary transmitted between infected person and susceptible person via inhalation of aerosolized droplet

322
Q

secondary TB

A

reactivation of latent TB

323
Q

TB (s/s)

A

cough, weight loss and anorexia, fever, night sweats, dull aching chest pain, and hemoptysis,

324
Q

TB (Tx)

A

10 meds; 2-7 months

325
Q

BCG

A

(bacillus Calmette-Guérin)
vaccine that provides immunity to TB

326
Q

dimorphic fungal infection

A

endemic to particular geo-graphic areas and cause primary infections in both healthy and immunocompromised individuals.

327
Q

histoplasmosis

A

caused by inhaling spores of Histoplasma capsulatum, is endemic to the Ohio, Missouri, and Mississippi; Caribbean and Central and South America

328
Q

Coccidioidomycosis

A

(San Joaquin Valley fever)
caused by Coccidioides immitis, which is endemic in the soil in the southwestern United States but can be found throughout the world
grows best in bird feces

329
Q

Blastomycosis

A

caused by Blastomyces dermatitidis, an uncommon fungus that is found in Ohio, the Great Lakes region, and the Mississippi; common in dogs, horse, bats, and cows
pulmonary granulomas

330
Q

fungal inf (s/s)

A

competent immune systems: asymp and discovered incidentally
immunocompromised: cough and fever plus hemoptysis, dyspnea, and chest pain, weight loss, and hepatosplenomegaly

331
Q

URI

A

(upper respiratory tract infections)
acute infection of one or more structures of the upper respi-ratory tract, including the nose, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, larynx, trachea, and bronchi

332
Q

URI increased risk

A

very old or very young
malnourished = alcoholics
cigarette smoke
COPD, CF
Impaired immune status (HIV, immunosuppressive therapy)

333
Q

URI (cause)

A

most are passde between human contact

334
Q

URI (s/s)

A

rhinorrhea (profuse, watery discharge from nose), cough that may or may not be productive, localized mucosal edema with erythema (redness)

335
Q

URI (Tx)

A

increase the individual’s comfort as well as treating the specific cause of the infection
rest, increased fluids to dilute respiratory secretions and replace fluid loss, and antipyretics for systemic symptoms, lozenges, antihistamines

336
Q

croup

A

(laryngotracheobronchitis)
acute viral infection of the upper respiratory tract commonly caused by parain-fluenza viruses that spread among children younger than 5 years of age

acute inflammation of the larynx and trachea, narrowing obstructs breathing upon inhalation, wheezy, hoarse cough, fever, dyspnea, and restlessness

s/s improve within 3-4 days

Tx: moisture and nebulized bronchodilators

337
Q

Epiglottitis

A

rapidly progressive inflammation of the epiglottis and adjacent structures that is usually caused by bacterial infection, most commonly Haemophilus influen-zae type b (Hib)

peaks in children at 3 y/o; but incidence has decreased with infant vaccination

338
Q

acute bronchitis

A

very common, self-limited lower respiratory tract inflammation, that is often referred to as a “chest cold.”

can occur at the same time as a URI or follow one. Acute bronchitis is most often diagnosed in children younger than 5 years of age

339
Q

acute bronchitis (s/s)

A

broncial inflammation w/ mucousal congestion

cough lasting 10-20 days, can persist longer with pertussis

hyperreactivity can last 5-6 weeks

340
Q

pertussis aka

A

(whooping cough)
highly contagious respira-tory infection that is usually caused by Bordetella pertussis

common among young adults, outgrew child vaccination immunity

(s/s) spasmatic cough that ends in loud inspiratory whoop; inf 6 weeks, cough 3-4months

341
Q

bronchiolitis

A

inflammation of the bronchioles; similar causation as acute bronchitis

increased risk for bronchiolitis in premature infants and children with underlying pulmonary problems

recurrent = d/t CF

342
Q

bronchiolitis

A

Symptoms of fine crackles and expiratory wheezing with deep breaths are similar to asthma symptoms, but asthma is uncommon in children under 2 years of age

343
Q

influenza

A

highly contagious viral infection that sweeps through a geographic region as an epidemic that lasts 6–8 weeks during the winter months

flu + pneumonia = 8th leading cause of death in US

344
Q

those at risk for influenza

A

children < 5, esp. < 2
pregnant
>50 y/o
chronic medical cond.
care home worker, healthcare worker

345
Q

flu types

A

Type A: most severe vs B or C

346
Q

antigenicity

A

ability to stimulate the formation of antibodies

Major shifts in antigenicity are associated with epidemics and pandem-ics of influenza

347
Q

flu (s/s)

A

fever, headache, myalgias, and severe malaise after 1–2 days (photophobia and pain with eye movements can occur early)

postinfluenza asthenia (postflu syndrome) can occur

348
Q

flu (Tx)

A

yearly flu shot is recommended

alleviate symptoms if intiated within 48hrs

349
Q

pneumonia

A

inflammation of the lung parenchyma that is typically characterized by lung consolidation with alveoli filled with exudate

350
Q

HAP

A

(hospital-aquired pneumonia)
not incubating at the time of hospital admission and develops 48 hours or more after hospital admission

351
Q

VAP

A

(ventilator-aquired pneumonia)
develops more than 48–72 hours after tracheal intu-bation

352
Q

HCAP

A

(healthcare-associated pneumonia)
patients who were hospitalized in an acute care hospital for 2 or more days within 90 days of developing the infection, or who resided in a long-term care facility or nursing home at the time of infection.

353
Q

CAP

A

(community-aquired pneumonia)
bacteria or viruses, and bacterial pneumonias frequently follow URIs

354
Q

bacterial pneumo vs viral pneumo

A

bacterial: consolidation of lung tissue primarily by bacterial exudates within alveoli, but there is very little interstitial involvement

viral: interstitial pneumonitis with patchy inflammatory changes in the lung interstitium and septa

355
Q

egophony

A

increased resonance of voice sounds heard on auscultation

Lung consolidation is indicated by these bronchial breath sounds

356
Q

pneuomnia (Tx)

A

supp O2 in serious cases, may be treated with antibiotics for bacterial inf, antiviral meds for viral

357
Q

PH

A

(pulmonary HTN)
increased blood pressure in the pulmonary arteries

may represent disease (pulmonary arterial hypertension)

can occur secondary to adv. COPD

358
Q

PH (cause)

A

increased blood flow d/t septal defects of heart, increased vascualr resistance in response to hypoxemia,
inflam that cause vasoconstriction,
left side HF,
drugs like coke and meth

359
Q

PH (s/s)

A

dyspnea on exertion, lethargy, and fatigue because the heart is not able to increase cardiac output with exercise

left side HF progresses to right ventricular failure, individuals may experience angina or syncope with exercise and develop edema

hepatic congestion, jugular vein distention, abdominal pain

360
Q

PH (Tx)

A

vasodilators, specifically prostacyclin

361
Q

PAH

A

(Pulmonary arterial hypertension)
increased pulmonary arterial resistance in the absence of left ventricular failure or chronic thromboembolism

(cause): idiopathic

362
Q

embolus

A

substance or object that travels via the bloodstream to a blood vessel and subsequently lodges in the blood vessel, creating a partial or complete obstruction

363
Q

embolism

A

a condition in which an embolus travels via the bloodstream and subsequently lodges in a blood vessel

364
Q

PE

A

(Pulmonary embolism)
an embolus is pumped from the right heart into progressively smaller pulmonary arteries until it wedges in a vessel that is too small for it to pass through

365
Q

those at risk of PE

A

prior Hx of DVT
prolonged immobilization
recent surgery
pregnancy and 6-12 wks post delivery
oral contraceptive
older adults
CVD
active cancer
hypercoagulability, burns, HIV, drug abuse

366
Q

PE (s/s)

A

shortness of breath or dyspnea that is not related to activity; hemoptysis; and chest pain that is worse with a deep breath, cough, eating, or bending. The chest pain is worse with exertion but does not go away with rest.

367
Q

PE (Tx)

A

thrombolytic therapy to dis-solve the clot, anticoagulation to prevent further clots, and oxygen supplementation

368
Q

pulmonary contusion

A

bruising in lung tissue from a shock wave of force
common in motor vehicle accidents or explosion in young adults; potentially lethal

369
Q

alveloar hemorrhage sydromes

A

(Goodpasture syndrome and granulomatous vasculitis)

autoimmunie disorders that affect lung and kidneys of young white adults

cause : idiopathic

370
Q

goodpasture syndrome

A

uncommon antiglomerular basement antibody disease that targets the lungs and kidneys
antibodies initiate inflammation of the basement membranes of alveoli and renal glomeruli

(s/s): cough, dyspnea, fatigue, hemop-tysis, and burning on urination

(Tx): Treatment includes immunosup-pressant drugs combined with intensive plasmapheresis

371
Q

Wegener granulomatosis

A

rare systemic vasculitis that restricts blood flow, causing damage that may be limited to the upper and lower respiratory tracts but can involve the kidneys and other organs;

ANCAs (Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies)
dmg tissue and intiate inflam

(Tx) longer term immunosuppression with cytotoxic agents

372
Q

COPD

A

(chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)

373
Q

air trapping

A

during exercise, increased inspiratory volume combined with exhalation through contricted airway leads to air trapping

impairs venitlation and gas exchange = lung hyperinflation

374
Q

TV

A

(tidal volume)
Volume of air inhaled and exhaled during one cycle of normal unconscious breathing

375
Q

IRV

A

(Inspiratory reserve volume)
after TV, IRV is the maximal volume of air that can be inhaled

take a max deep breath

376
Q

ERV

A

(expiratory reserve volume)
maximal amount of air you can exhale

377
Q

RV

A

(residual volume)
the amount of air still in the lungs after ERV

378
Q

FRC

A

(func residual capacity)
ERV + RV

379
Q

IC

A

(insp. capacity)
TV + IRV

380
Q

vital capacity (VC)

A

ERV + TV + IRV

381
Q

hyperreactivity

A

an exaggerated response to a stimulus

382
Q

asthma

A

chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways characterized by recurrent episodes of reversible airway obstruction and hyperreactive airways

383
Q

risk factors of asthma

A

genetic atopy (predisposition to develop allergies)
females after puberty
obesity
exposure to allergens, irritants, smoke (maternal smoking)

384
Q

classes of asthma

A

allergic (extrinsic or atopic): triggered by allergens that are external to the individual; type 1 hypersensitivity

nonallergic (intrinsic or nonatopic): generate an inflammatory response that involves IgE

385
Q

asthma (s/s)

A
  • chest tightness/SOB
  • wheeze
  • cough that is worse in am/pm
  • prod. thick sputum strings
386
Q

asthma (Tx)

A

environmental control, asthma education for patients and families, and bronchodilator and anti-inflammatory medications

The gold standard treatment for persistent asthma is inhaled corticosteroids

387
Q

hypercapnia

A

Air trapping and impaired ventilation produce an increase in retained carbon dioxide

388
Q

hyperinflation

A

overexpansion of the lungs due to air trapping

389
Q

chronic bronchitis

A

increase in the thickness of the basement membrane and loss of structural support for small airways = airway fixation

390
Q

Emphysema

A

irreversible loss of walls between alveoli with no evidence of fibrosis = loss of alveoli results in fewer walls available for diffusion of gases

(cause) cig smoking prime

391
Q

pulmonary acini

A

functional units of the lung in which gas exchange occurs

392
Q

chronic bronchitis (s/s)

A

defined by a productive cough in the absence of a pulmonary infection on most days for 3 months in 2 consecutive years

393
Q

hemoptysis

A

expectorationof blood from the airways as a result of an erosion through a pulmonary or bronchial blood vessel wall

394
Q

emphysema

A

common case:
smoker in his 60s who reports increased DOE but has little or no cough or sputum production unless he has a pulmonary infection

395
Q

DOE

A

(dyspnea on exertion)

396
Q

bronchiectasis

A

characterized by excessive mucus accumulation leading to irreversibly dilated bron-chi that readily collapse, airway obstruction, and frequent inf

congenital = infants and children
acquired = children and adults

397
Q

bronchiectasis (s/s)

A

severe persistent cough with a daily production of tenacious, mucopurulent (mucus and pus) sputum that can persist over months or years

Tx: long term antibiotics, bronchial hygiene w/ chest physiotherapy

398
Q

volatile acid

A

dissociate, forming a gas that is eliminated by the lungs

carbonic acid (H2CO3) = volatile

399
Q

nonvolatile

A

(fixed acids) not gases and therefore cannot be eliminated by the lungs; eliminated by kidneys in urine

lactic acid, ketoacids, sulfuric acid, and phosphoric

400
Q

base

A

an acceptor of H+

401
Q

sodium normal range

A

135-145 mEq/L

402
Q

potassium normal range

A

3.5-5.0 mEq/L

403
Q

pKa

A

the dissociation constant of the weak acid

404
Q

compensation

A

when the renal or respiratory function return the pH closer to or actually back within the normal range

405
Q

correction

A

condition responsible for the acid–base imbalance is controlled or no longer present

406
Q

antiport

A

transport molecule that moves two different electrolytes in opposite directions across a cell membrane

407
Q

symport

A

transport molecule that moves two different electrolytes in the same direc-tion across a cell membrane

408
Q

simple acid/base imbalance

A

presence of one type of acid–base imbalance
□■Respiratory acidosis
□■Respiratory alkalosis
□■Metabolic acidosis
□■Metabolic alkalosis

409
Q

chvostek sign

A

when there is increased neuromuscular excitability, the facial nerve causes contraction of the lips, nose, and face on the side that was tapped

410
Q

trousseau sign

A

(during inflation of BP cuff) if neuromuscular excitability is present, the pressure will result in a carpal spasm of the hand

411
Q

ABG

A

(arterial blood gas)
measure of the pH, PaCO2, PaO2, and bicarbonate in the arterial blood.

412
Q

TCO2

A

(total CO2)
measure of carbon dioxide in the form of HCO3 - ions, H2CO3, and CO2attached to proteins such as hemoglobin, as well as the CO2dissolved in plasma

413
Q

venous blood gases

A

measure of the pH, PaCO2, PaO2, and bicarbonate in the venous blood

414
Q

BE

A

(base excess)
measure of all bases in the blood, including bicarbonate, phosphate, and proteins such as albumin and hemoglobin

415
Q

mixed acid/base imbalances

A

2+ types of acid–base imbalances in an individual at the same time

416
Q

ROME

A

respiratory opposite: pH up / CO2 dwn; pH dwn / CO2 up

metabolic equal: pH up / HCO3 up; pH dwn / HCO3 dwn

417
Q

hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis

A

Cl- deficit due to the loss of gastric fluid results in the next most abundant anion, which is bicarbonate

418
Q

hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

A

administration of intravenous fluids containing chloride, can cause metabolic acidosis if the chloride accumulates because the increase in chloride results in increased renal excretion of HCO3 -

419
Q

electrolyte

A

any substance that dissociates into ions in water

420
Q

Chloride normal levels

A

95-105 mEq/L

421
Q

Calcium normal levels

A

4.5-5.5 mEq/L

422
Q

ICF

A

(intracellular fluid)
largest portion of fluid spacing in the body; 63–70% of the total volume

423
Q

ECF

A

(extracellular fluid)
component includes the remaining 30–37% of the fluid volume;
3 categories: intravascular, interstitial, and transcellular

sodium is prime cation for ECF

424
Q

intravascular ECF

A

fluids within blood and lymphatic vessels and includes blood plasma and lymphatic and transcellular fluids

K, Mg, Ph, proteins

425
Q

interstitial ECF

A

fluid in tissues and surrounding the cells; transport nutrients, waste, and gas exchange

426
Q

transcellular ECF

A

reflects fluid found in defined spaces, such as the cerebral spinal fluid, synovial fluid

Na, Cl, HCO3

427
Q

osmosis

A

flow from less concentrated to more concentrated; movement between ICF and ECF

428
Q

osmolality

A

amount of solute per kilogram of solution

429
Q

diffusion

A

higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

430
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

pressure of fluids or their properties when in equilibrium

431
Q

colloid osmotic pressure

A

(oncotic pressure)
concentration of proteins, particularly albumin, that gives rise to water-pulling forces of a particular compartment at the arterial end of the capillary, resulting in the movement of fluid to the interstitial space

432
Q

increased hydrostatic pressure (cause)

A

sodium and water retention, usually results from an increased systemic venous pressure due to HF

433
Q

decreased colloid osmotic pressure

A

may cause edema,

434
Q

third spacing

A

class of edema: accumulation of fluid in areas (typically the intestinal space) that normally have no fluid or a minimal amount of fluid

Ex: ascites and edema associated with burns

435
Q

RAAS

A

(renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system)
sodium retention, increased fluid volume and subsequent blood pressure increase

436
Q

ANP

A

(atrial natriuretic peptide)
produced by atrial cells

released in response to the elevated atrial pressure result-ing from the increased circulating volume, due to sodium retention.

437
Q

BNP

A

(brain natriuretic peptide)
originating from ventricular cells

released in response to the elevated atrial pressure result-ing from the increased circulating volume, due to sodium retention.

438
Q

hypernatremia (cause)

A

increased output or decreased intake of water, increased sodium consumption

dehydration, diarrhea, burns, heat stroke

diabetes insipidus, isotonic fluid vol. deficit, lack of ADH

439
Q

hypernatremia (s/s)

A

thirst, fever, dry membranes, hypoten-sion, tachycardia, low jugular venous pressure, and restlessness

440
Q

hypernatremia (Tx)

A

injection of hypotonic or isotonic fluids

diabetes inspidius: desmopressin acetate

proper intake output manage.

seizure precaution

441
Q

hyponatremia (cause)

A

loss of fluids (vomit, diarrhea, diuretics), inadequate excretion renal dysfunction (Addison), SIADH, diabetic ketoacidosis

442
Q

hyponatremia (s/s)

A

neurologic: lethargy, headache, confusion, seizures, and coma
possible hypovolemia contributes to symptoms of hypotension, tachycardia, and a deceased urine output

443
Q

hyponatremia (Tx)

A

Correcting the underlying etiology of the hyponatremia is as important as returning the sodium concentration to within the normal range

hypertonic fluids, if mild increase dietary intake,

444
Q

hyperchloremia (cause)

A

metabolic acidosis (most common), water loss, dehydration, head injury that causes endocrine abnormalities, hypernatremia, severe diarrhea, respiratory alkalosis, and hyperparathyroidism

445
Q

hyperchloremia (s/s)

A

resemble those of hypernatremia, presenting like dehydration

446
Q

hyperchloremia (Tx)

A

IV hypotonic fluids, lactated Ringer, sodium bicarbonate, diuretic in line with hypernatremia

447
Q

hypochloremia (cause)

A

fluid loss (vomiting and/or diarrhea or nasogastric suctioning), elevated bicarbonate level, as in alkalosis, burns

448
Q

hypochloremia (s/s)

A

Acute fluid volume excess = cerebral edema (confusion and convulsions)
headache, weakness, nausea, tetany (muscle spasms), weight gain

449
Q

hypochloremia (Tx)

A

isotonic or hypertonic fluids, monitor of intake output

450
Q

hyperkalemia (cause)

A

oversupplementation, renal fail (decreased excretion, tissue trauma and breakdown, hypoxia, acidosis, and insulin deficiency)

451
Q

hyperkalemia (s/s)

A

muscle weakness, paralysis, and dysrhythmias

452
Q

hyperkalemia (Tx)

A

intravenous calcium gluconate (counter cariac arrest), Intake and output management, dietary education

453
Q

hypokalemia (cause)

A

GI loss through suctioning, laxatives, incomplete K replacement

454
Q

hypokalemia (s/s)

A

elevated blood sugar and elevated serum cortisol
elevated BNP, BUN, and creatinine
flattened T wave, U wave develop-ment, and cardiac arrest in severe

455
Q

hyperaldosteronism

A

(cushing disease)

456
Q

hypokalemia (Tx)

A

correcting underlying disease. , supplementation

457
Q

hypercalcemia (cause)

A

malignancy, hyperparathyroidism that increases PTH lev-els, immobilization, thiazide diuretics, thyrotoxicosis, and excessive ingestion of calcium and/or vitamin D

458
Q

hypercalcemia (s/s)

A

Cardiac, musculoskeletal, and neuromuscular effects: fatigue, weakness, lethargy, and possibly nausea

459
Q

hypercalcemia (Tx)

A

intramuscular calcitonin (serum calcium >17mg/dL), in most PT, IV fluid to dilute serum and enhance renal excretion, corticosteroids

460
Q

hypocalcemia (cause)

A

renal failure, para-thyroid gland removal, hypoparathyroidism, hypomagnesemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypoalbuminemia, vitamin D deficiency, pancreatitis, alkalosis

461
Q

hypocalcemia (s/s)

A

Tingling, spasms, tetany, and possibly convulsions, Chvostek, Trousseau, intestinal cramp

462
Q

hypocalcemia (Tx)

A

IV calcium gluconate & calcium chloride, Vit D supp. dietary education

463
Q

hyperphosphatemia (cause)

A

both primary and acute care is chronic renal failure
other: respiratory acidosis, metabolic acidosis, hypocalcemia

464
Q

hyperphosphatemia (s/s)

A

correlate with hypocalcemia, both Chvostek & Trousseau, decreased BP and arrhythmias in extreme

465
Q

hyperphosphatemia (Tx)

A

restriction of diet, Vit D to increase calcium absorbtion = dropping serum phosphorus

466
Q

Hypophosphatemia (cause)

A

malnu-trition, alcohol withdrawal, heat stroke, respiratory alkalosis, hepatic encephalopathy, major burns, hyperparathyroidism, diarrhea, Vit D deficiency

467
Q

Hypophosphatemia (s/s)

A

similar to hypercalcemia, RBC and thrombo dysfunc, neuromuscular dys-function, altered mental status, convulsions, excessive bone resorption, and possible respiratory failure

468
Q

Hypophosphatemia (Tx)

A

oral phosphorus, IV managed with caution

469
Q

Hypermagnesemia (cause)

A

renal failure, laxatives, burns, trauma, shock, lithium toxicity

470
Q

Hypermagnesemia (s/s)

A

(danger to cardio ) bradyarrhythmias, tall T wave, widened QRS, prolonged QT interval, atrioventricular blocks, and finally cardiac arrest

Hypotension, shallow respirations, decreased deep tendon reflexes, and decreased level of consciousness

471
Q

Hypermagnesemia (Tx)

A

restriction of any Mg., Intravenous calcium gluconate to reverse neuromuscular systems,

472
Q

Hypomagnesemia (cause)

A

(most common) excessive alcohol intake

hypocalcemia, hypokalemia, decreased albumin level, decreased dietary intake, decreased absorption in the small intestine, GI losses, acute pancreatitis, starva-tion, diuretic therapy, and diabetic ketoacidosis

473
Q

Hypomagnesemia (s/s)

A

premature ventricular contractions, ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and torsades de pointes (very fast HR)

changes in mental status and personality along with nystagmus (eyes make repetitive uncontrol move) and hypertension

474
Q

Hypomagnesemia (Tx)

A

intravenous magnesium sulfate and usually oral magnesium, supplementation can cause diarrhea, intake output management

seizure precautions

475
Q

gene

A

segment of DNA that codes for prod. of certain protein

like a sentence

476
Q

genome

A

like a book

477
Q

chromosome

A

double helix is combined with proteins called histones and is compacted to form structures

like a chapter

478
Q

genetics

A

study of gens ans their impact on inheritence and single-gene/chromosomal disorder

479
Q

genomics

A

study of structure, function, analysis of human genome

480
Q

epigenetics

A

external mod of DNA that affect gene expression

481
Q

epigenomics

A

study of chem. compounds that instruct the genomw where and when to be expressed

482
Q

nucleotides

A

each gene is made of a sequence of these

3 components: phosphate, a deoxyribose, and one of four nitrogenous bases, ATGC

483
Q

alleles

A

alternative forms of an individual gene

484
Q

Barr body

A

inactivated X chromosome in each cell

485
Q

central dogma

A

process of DNA to RNA to protein

486
Q

how many chromosomes in each cell of the body

A

46

487
Q

mitosis

A

process of cell division used to create identical copies of a cell

488
Q

gonadal cells contain

A

23 chromosomes, total

489
Q

meiosis

A

cell division of sex cells so each cell has one of each chromosome pair

begins with a cell w/ 46 chrom. (diploid cell) = 2 sets of cell divisions = 4 daughter cells (haploid cells)

490
Q

somatic cells

A

this is where mitosis occurs; everything that not a sperm or egg

491
Q

transcription

A

process of reading a gene, RNA is formed from DNA

492
Q

mRNA

A

template for protein synthesis

493
Q

tRNA

A

carries appropriate amino acids to the template mRNA during protein formation

494
Q

rRNA

A

make ribosomes

495
Q

transcription factors

A

(regulatory proteins)
in order for transcription to begin, these must bind to the promoter region at the beginning of the gene

496
Q

splicing

A

mRNA transcript needs to go through this process ro become a mature message

497
Q

exons & introns

A

are the useful part, introns split each exon and are throwaways when splicing begins

498
Q

translation

A

process of protein synthesis with mRNA directing assembly of a string of amino acids to create a protein product

499
Q

codon

A

3 nucleotides grouped together; 64 possible codons, only 20 amino acids; more than one codon to each amino acid

500
Q

mutation

A

grammatical error in gene, varying in severity

501
Q

point mutation

A

a change in one nucleotide

502
Q

silent mutation

A

if amino acid is not changed by a point mutation

503
Q

missense mutation

A

casues a change in amino acid

504
Q

nonsense mutation

A

little or no protein prod. and almost always results in serious clinical consequences

505
Q

genetic imprinting

A

differential expression based on the parent from whom the genes are inherited

506
Q

SNP

A

(single-nucleotide polymorphism)
Not all genetic changes among individuals are pathogenic

507
Q

aneuploidy

A

when the wrong number of chromosomes occurs in pregnancy, the embryo is said tobe affected by

508
Q

chromosome nondisfunction

A

can cause an embryo to have an extra (trisomy) or missing chromosome (monosomy), which most often can result in an early miscarriage but in some cases can result in a live-born baby

509
Q

mosaicism

A

the presence of more than one genetic cell line in a person

510
Q

triploidy

A

embryo with 69 chromosomes

511
Q

down syndrome

A

trisomy 21

512
Q

penetrance

A

reduced = not everyone who inherits a mutation will have clini-cal symptoms

513
Q

neurofibromatosis

A

dominant
causes numerous cutaneous lesions

514
Q

pedigree

A

visualization of several generations genetic disease pattern

515
Q

Marfan

A

dominant
connective tissue disorder that causes pathogenic skeletal, ocular, and cardiac features

38

516
Q

syndrome

A

refers to a group of signs and symptoms that emerge from a disease state

517
Q

prevelance

A

the number of individuals of a defined population who already have a disease or condition

518
Q

incidence

A

number of new cases of a disease or condition within a defined period and defined population

519
Q

public health

A

science of protecting and improving the health of families and communities through promotion of healthy lifestyles, research for disease and injury pre-vention, and detection and control of infectious diseases

520
Q

mortality

A

the number of deaths in a given population

521
Q

morbidity

A

departure from physiologic or psychologic well-being and encompasses disease, injury, and disability

522
Q

EBP

A

(evidence-based practice)

523
Q

illness

A

the individual experience that a person has with a disease

524
Q

disorder

A

disruption of physiologic or psychologic function

525
Q

epidemiology

A

the study of how disease is distributed in populations and identification of the factors influencing the distribution

526
Q

proto-oncogenes

A

category of genes: regulate cell proliferation

527
Q

tumor suppressor genes

A

category of genes: responsible for curbing cell growth

528
Q

preimplantation genetic diagnosis

A

screening of embryos that are produced through in vitro fertilization for the presence of genetic or chromosome abnormalities

529
Q

cytogenetics

A

laboratory field involving the character-ization of chromosome structure and number

530
Q

karyotyping

A

test used to examine the visual appearance of chromo-some structure and number

531
Q

FISH

A

(Fluorescence in situ hybridization)
utilized both for rapid detection of chromosome number and for targeting specific DNA sequences

532
Q

pharmacogenomics

A

discipline that blends pharmacology with genomic capabilities

533
Q

antisense oligonucleotide

A

(sequence of complementary nucleotides)
is used to directly bind the DNA or RNA to block the aberrant gene product

Imantinib

534
Q

transcription factor modulators

A

selectively increase or decrease transcription levels of certain genes

535
Q

GWAS

A

(Genome-wide association studies)
genomic tests used in both research and clinical practice that were originally designed to identify relationships between common genome variation and particular traits of interest

536
Q

lymphoma

A

hematolgic malignancies that originate in the lymphatic tissue

537
Q

AML

A

(Acute myelogenous leukemia)
30% of cases

538
Q

ALL

A

(Acute lymphocytic leukemia)
2/3 cases likely to be children

539
Q

CML

A

(Chronic myelogenous leukemia)

540
Q

CLL

A

(Chronic lymphocytic leukemia)

541
Q

NHL

A

(Non-Hodgkin lymphoma)

542
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

a group of B cells (plasma cells), these produce large amounts of antibodies

543
Q

Multiple myeloma (causes)

A

not well understood
obesity, toxin exposure, substance abuse, and genetic influence play a role

544
Q

AML (cause)

A

unknown, but risk factors (not inherited)
(1) chemotherapeutic treatment
(2) ionizing radiation
(3) long-term exposure to benzenes or other petroleum products
(4) smoking
those with down syndrome

545
Q

AML (s/s)

A

depend on degree of pancytopenia (a lower-than-normal number of red and white blood cells and platelets in the blood)
weakness and fatigue related to anemia, unresolved fever and fection related to neutrotpenia (inf: pneumonia, UTI, upper respiratory)
bleeding issues (ecchymoses, petechiae, menorrhagia)

546
Q

menorrhagia

A

heavy bleeding; menstrual bleeding that lasts more than 7 days

547
Q

metrorrhagia

A

bleeding at irregular intervals, particularly between expected menstrual periods

548
Q

menometrorrhagia

A

excessive and prolonged uterine bleeding occurring at irregular intervals

549
Q

polymenorrhea

A

menstrual interval of less than 21 days

550
Q

dysmenorrhea

A

severe mentral cramping

551
Q

leukocytosis (s/s) w/ AML

A

(an abnormally elevated white blood cell count)
headache, diplopia, cranial nerve palsies, and mental status changes

552
Q

AML (Tx)

A

Restoring normal hematopoiesis is the goal
systemic chemotherapy is the cornerstone
(induction and consolidation)

553
Q

AML complete remission is defined as

A

restoration of normal peripheral blood cell counts, maturation of all cell lines, and fewer than 5% blasts

554
Q

ALL (causes)

A

can occur ant any age but considered to be particularly childhood malignant

features of the leukemic cells:
Morphologic (change in shape)
cytochemical (change in biochemical properties)
cytogenetic (change in genetic properties)
immunologic (change in immunologic properties, such as surface proteins)

555
Q

ALL is considered to be a clonal disease

A

(one in which all malignant cells derive from a single errant cell) via a progeny (initially transformed leukemic cell divides and passes on the alterations in genetic material to descendant cells)

556
Q

ALL (s/s)

A

fever, bleeding, bone pain, and lymphadenopathy, but persist beyond treatment
bone pain is common among children but if they refuse to bear weight

uncommon: mediastinal mass which is concurrent with NHL, making it difficult to differentiate

557
Q

ALL (Tx)

A

eradicate the malignant immature lymphoid cells and restore normal hematopoiesis
induction and consolidation, but aimed at CNS (diff from AML)

558
Q

CML (causes)

A

characterized by overproliferation of mature granulocytes

exposure to high-dose radiation consistent with surviving an atomic bomb
- direct result of a genetic alteration that results in aberrant cellular proliferation.

(diff btwn AML) increased myeloid cell proliferation

559
Q

CML (s/s)

A

asymptomatic; disease is frequently found during routine blood work
thrombocytosis or thrombocytopenia

symp: excessive sweating or night sweats, weakness and fatigue, splenomegaly, Acute gouty arthritis

560
Q

CML (Tx)

A

normalizing the white blood cell count, eliminating immature myeloid cells

chemo: hemotologic remission, difficult to achieve cytogenic

tyrosine kinase inhibitors: target genetic defect material

561
Q

CLL (cause)

A

overproduction of B cells

prime in older (white) adults, asians have lowest rates
split into Rai (US) and Binet (EU) stages

trisomy 12 was the most common cytogenetic abnormality, 11,13,14 were 2nd most

562
Q

CLL (s/s)

A

25% asymp. blood tests; spleno/hepatomegaly
fever for 2 weeks w/o inf., night sweat, weight loss

563
Q

CLL (Tx)

A

no known cure; determined by stage, aimed at restoring normal lymphocyte counts

Chemotherapy is given to stop the cancer cells from progressing, and immunotherapy is used to stimulate the body’s own defenses in fighting the disease

564
Q

NHL (cause)

A

heterogeneous group of malignancies that originate in the lymphatic system

rates are higher in older individuals,

classified on basis on cell lineage and maturity of malignant cells; rate of cell prolif. indolent/aggressive

565
Q

indolent

A

(low grade tumor)
grow slow and do not result in PT feeling symp.

566
Q

aggressive

A

(high-grade tumor)
grows fast and result in PT feelling symp

567
Q

NHL (s/s)

A

enlarged lymph nodes is most common
extranodal: commonly in GI, abdomin pain, swelling, loss of appetite; red patches

A for absent, B for present

568
Q

NHL (Tx)

A

depends on pathology, stage, and tumor, age comorbidity
surgery, chemotherapy, radiation therapy, immunotherapy, stem cell transplant, and waiting

569
Q

Multiple myeloma (cause)

A

characterized by the proliferation of malignant plasma cells

toxin and hazardous chemical exposure, obesity, and possible genetic influence

most common genetic: inactivation of tumor-suppressing genes

570
Q

Multiple myeloma (s/s)

A

Anemia (normocytic or normochromic) is a common
bone pain, and renal issues

571
Q

Multiple myeloma (Tx)

A

combo: radiation and chemotherapy and often involves stem-cell transplantation
ferrous supplementation, hydration and biphosphate to str. bone.; braces applied to back and extremities