Midterm II Flashcards
1
Q
Which subnet mask defines a network that can have 65534 hosts
A
255.255.0.0
2
Q
Same subnet?
Source
Destination
Subnet
Mask
99.18.97.1
99.18.125.2
255.255.224.0
A
True
3
Q
the source and destination host on the same network?
Source
Destination
Subnet
Mask
150.222.255.1
150.222.25.1
255.255.0.0
A
True
4
Q
What is the first valid host on the subnetwork that the node 192.168.37.73/29 belongs to?
A
192.168.37.73
5
Q
What is the broadcast address of the network 172.23.255.0 255.255.255.0?
A
172.23.255.255
6
Q
Enter the subnet the host 10.82.84.139/18 belongs to:
A
10.82.64.0
7
Q
Given the following IP Address 200.240.15.68/28
What is the subnet mask in dotted binary
A
11111111.11111111.11111111.11110000
8
Q
Describe why the following IP address is not valid Internet Host configurations
IP 172.18.5.2 Mask 255.255.255.0
A
Private Addresses cannot be used for Internet Hosts
9
Q
What is the class full subnet masks for Class A network
A
255.0.0.0
10
Q
Are these hosts on the same network?
IP1: 99.23.65.45 IP2: 99.24.214.63 Subnet: 255.128.0.0
A
True
11
Q
What is the last valid host on the subnetwork 172.31.0.0 255.255.240.0?
A
172.31.15.254
12
Q
What is the class full subnet mask for the IP address 99.187.60.50?
A
255.0.0.0
13
Q
Can they talk?
Source
Destination
Subnet
Mask
220.15.90.62
220.15.90.1
255.255.255.192
A
True
14
Q
If a NIC does not have a link light, there is a failure at which of the following OSI layers?
A
Physical
15
Q
Why are networks set up with multi-layer models?
A
To make them easier to fix and update with technology changes
16
Q
What is the primary function of a router in a network?
A
To connect devices within the same local network
17
Q
When configuring a router interface, what essential information must typically be assigned?
A
IP Address and Subnet Mask
18
Q
What type of connection uses the cellular network (e.g., 4G LTE, 5G) to provide internet access?
A
Mobile Hotspot / Cellular Modem
19
Q
Troubleshooting a WAN connection often starts by checking the status lights on the modem or Customer Premises Equipment (CPE).
A
True
20
Q
A user reports intermittent connectivity over their DSL line. Which is a possible cause?
A
Interference from AM radio stations
21
Q
Slow speeds on a satellite internet connection can be caused by high latency due to the distance signals must travel.
A
True
22
Q
Which IEEE standard defines Wi-Fi networking?
A
802.11
23
Q
Which Wi-Fi standard operates exclusively in the 5 GHz frequency band and offers higher speeds than 802.11n?
A
802.11ac (Wi-Fi 5)
24
Q
Which Wi-Fi security protocol is considered the most secure currently?
A
WPA3
25
The 2.4 GHz Wi-Fi band offers longer range but potentially more interference than the 5 GHz band.
True
26
What is the name of the wireless network identifier that is broadcasted by an Access Point?
SSID (Service Set Identifier)
27
What process involves surveying a location to determine optimal AP placement, signal strength, and potential interference sources?
Site Survey
28
Using overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band (e.g., channels 1, 2, and 3 simultaneously) is recommended to maximize performance.
True
29
A user complains of slow Wi-Fi speeds. Which is NOT a likely cause?
Having a strong WPA3 password
30
What tool can help identify nearby Wi-Fi networks, their signal strengths, and the channels they are using?
Wi-Fi Analyzer / Stumbler
31
Changing the Wi-Fi channel on your Access Point can sometimes resolve interference issues.
True
32
What software layer creates and manages virtual machines (VMs) on a physical host?
Hypervisor (or Virtual Machine Monitor - VMM)
33
In cloud computing, which service layer provides access to raw computing resources like virtual machines, storage, and networks?
IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
34
Which cloud service layer provides a platform for developing, running, and managing applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure?
PaaS
35
Office 365 or Google Workspace are examples of which cloud service model?
SaaS
36
Which technology allows mobile devices to connect to Wi-Fi networks for data communication?
WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network)
37
Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for logical addressing (IP addresses) and routing?
Network Layer
38
5G cellular technology aims to provide lower latency and higher bandwidth compared to 4G LTE.
True
39
What is the purpose of Mobile Device Management (MDM) software?
To manage, monitor, and secure mobile devices used within an organization
40
What does BYOD stand for in the context of mobile device deployment?
Bring Your Own Device
41
Which security measure helps protect data on a mobile device if it is lost or stolen?
Remote Wipe
42
Using a strong passcode/biometric authentication is a fundamental security practice for mobile devices.
True
43
Connecting a mobile device to a corporate network using a VPN client helps to:
Secure data transmission over public networks
44
Private IP address ranges (like 192.168.x.x, 10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x-172.31.x.x) are routable over the public internet.
False
45
Which layer of the TCP/IP model is responsible for providing reliable, connection-oriented communication between hosts?
Transport Layer
46
A router rebuilds its routing table every time a packet needs to be forwarded.
False
47
The command 'show ip route' on a Cisco router displays what information?
The IP routing table
48
Which TCP flag is used to initiate a connection?
SYN
49
Which TCP flag is used to acknowledge received data?
ACK
50
UDP guarantees delivery of packets.
false
51
What is the function of ARP (Address Resolution Protocol)?
To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
52
A DHCP server is used primarily for what purpose?
To automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration to clients
53
Which Transport layer protocol provides connectionless, best-effort delivery and is often used for streaming media or DNS?
UDP
54
What does the 'TTL' (Time to Live) field in an IP header represent?
A hop limit to prevent packets from looping indefinitely
55
Port numbers are only used by TCP, not UDP
False
56
Which port is typically used by DNS for queries?
53
57
Which port is typically used by SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)?
25
58
Which port is typically used by IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol version 4)?
143
59
Which secure port is typically used for IMAPS (IMAP over SSL/TLS)?
993
60
Which Transport layer protocol establishes a connection before data transfer, ensures data arrives in order, and retransmits lost packets?
TCP
61
802.1X is a standard for what?
Port-Based Network Access Control (PNAC)
62
How are IPv6 addresses typically shortened?
By omitting leading zeros in each block and using '::' once for consecutive blocks of zeros
63
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) operates at the Transport layer and is used for error reporting and diagnostics.
False
64
Which Wi-Fi standard introduced MU-MIMO (Multi-User Multiple Input Multiple Output) and operates in both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands?
802.11ac (Wave 2) / Wi-Fi 5
65
What is WPA2-Enterprise (or WPA3-Enterprise) security typically used for?
Corporate/Organizational networks requiring individual user authentication (often via RADIUS)
66
Hiding the SSID (network name) significantly improves Wi-Fi security.
False
67
What is a potential downside of using the 5 GHz Wi-Fi band compared to 2.4 GHz?
Shorter effective range and poorer penetration through obstacles
68
Virtual machines running on the same physical host are completely isolated and cannot communicate, even through a virtual switch.
False
69
What is the primary function of IP (Internet Protocol) at the Network layer?
Logical addressing and routing packets
70
What distinguishes TCP from UDP?
TCP is connection-oriented, UDP is connectionless
71
How does a router determine the best path for forwarding a data packet?
By examining the packet's destination IP address and consulting its routing table
72
What is the purpose of port numbers in TCP and UDP communication?
To identify the specific application or service on the host machine
73
Port numbers ranging from 0 to 1023 are known as:
Well-Known Ports
74
A web server typically listens for standard HTTP requests on which well-known port?
80
75
Which port number is commonly used for secure web traffic (HTTPS)?
443
76
Which protocol is used for sending email messages from an email client to an email server (and between servers)?
SMTP
77
Which protocol provides secure, encrypted remote command-line access to a server?
SSH
78
Routers operate primarily at the Data Link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model.
False
79
What is the primary function of DNS (Domain Name System)?
To resolve human-readable domain names into IP addresses
80
What type of DNS record maps a hostname to an IPv4 address?
A
81
Which type of routing requires manual configuration of routes by a network administrator?
Static Routing
82
What type of DNS record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address?
AAAA
83
Which DNS record type specifies the mail exchange servers responsible for handling email for a domain?
MX
84
What does a CNAME record represent in DNS?
An alias or canonical name for a host
85
Which command-line utility is commonly used on both Windows and Linux/macOS to query DNS servers?
nslookup
86
If you can ping an IP address but not the corresponding hostname, a likely cause is a DNS resolution problem.
True
87
When troubleshooting DNS, what should you check first on a client machine?
The configured DNS server addresses
88
An Access Control List (ACL) on a router typically filters traffic based on what criteria?
Source/Destination IP address, Port numbers, Protocol
89
Using WPA3 encryption is a method for securing TCP/IP traffic specifically on wired Ethernet networks.
False
90
Which security standard provides a framework for secure communication at the Network layer (Layer 3)?
IPsec
91
WPA2/WPA3 are security standards primarily associated with securing which type of network?
Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs)
92
What is the primary purpose of a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?
To create a secure, encrypted connection over a public network (like the Internet)
93
Which VPN type typically requires client software to be installed on the user's device?
Site-to-Site VPN
94
Which VPN technology commonly uses IPsec to secure tunnels between entire networks (e.g., connecting two office locations)?
Site-to-Site VPN
95
SSL/TLS VPNs often provide access through which common application?
Web Browser
96
What distinguishes a managed switch from an unmanaged switch?
Managed switches offer configuration options (VLANs, QoS, etc.), while unmanaged switches are plug-and-play.
97
Managed switches offer configuration options (VLANs, QoS, etc.), while unmanaged switches are plug-and-play.
Management Interface (Web GUI or CLI)
98
Managed switches typically support protocols like SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) for monitoring.
True
99
What information is typically found in a routing table entry?
Destination Network, Subnet Mask, Next Hop/Interface, Metric
100
What is the primary benefit of using VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks)?
To segment a physical network into multiple logical broadcast domains
101
Which IEEE standard defines VLAN tagging, commonly used for trunk ports?
802.1Q
102
Devices in different VLANs can communicate directly without a router if they are connected to the same switch.
False
103
What switch feature allows you to limit which specific MAC addresses can connect to a particular switch port?
Port Security
104
Which switch feature enables the switch to provide electrical power to connected devices like IP phones or wireless access points over Ethernet cables?
Power over Ethernet (PoE)
105
How many bits are in an IPv6 address
128 bits
106
IPv6 addresses are typically represented using which notation?
Hexadecimal Colon
107
IPv6 eliminates the need for NAT (Network Address Translation) because of its vast address space.
True
108
Which type of IPv6 address is routable over the public internet?
Global Unicast Address (GUA)
109
What is the prefix for IPv6 Link-Local Addresses?
FE80::/10
110
Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) allows an IPv6 host to automatically configure its own address without a DHCP server.
True
111
Which protocol is used by IPv6 for neighbor discovery and replacing ARP?
NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)
112
What is the IPv6 loopback address?
::1
113
Which technique allows IPv6 packets to be transmitted over an IPv4 network infrastructure?
Tunneling (e.g., 6to4, Teredo, ISATAP)
114
Running both IPv4 and IPv6 simultaneously on network interfaces and routers is known as:
Dual Stack
115
When implementing IPv6, you must disable IPv4 completely on the network.
False
116
What is the primary configuration needed on a host to use IPv6 on a local network (assuming router advertisements are enabled)?
Often, no manual configuration is needed due to SLAAC
117
Which high-speed, fiber-optic standard is commonly used for backbone networks and defines transmission speeds in OC (Optical Carrier) levels?
SONET/SDH
118
Which 'last-mile' technology typically uses existing telephone lines to provide digital internet access?
DSL (Digital Subscriber Line)
119
Which 'last-mile' technology uses the same coaxial cable that delivers television signals?
Cable Internet
120
Which 'last-mile' technology generally offers the highest potential speeds and uses light pulses over glass strands?
Fiber to the Home (FTTH)
121
Cable Internet speeds can be affected by the number of users sharing the same segment in a neighborhood.
True
