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PHAR 370 > Midterm exam study guide > Flashcards

Midterm exam study guide Flashcards

1
Q

What are the characteristics noted in a general assessment?

A

age, skin color (rashes, bruising, even skin tone, jaundice and cyanosis), gender, facial features (symmetry and eye contact), level of consciousness, signs of acute distress, nutrition, body structure, dress and grooming, behavior and mobility

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2
Q

What would an alert patient look like?

A

open eyes looking at you, responds fully and appropriately to stimuli.

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3
Q

What would a lethargic patient look like?

A

sleepy or mentally sluggish, patient requires you to speak in a loud voice, appears drowsy but does open eyes. responds to questions slowly

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4
Q

What would a obtunded patient look like?

A

have to shake patient gently, opens eyes but responds slowly and is confused.
often the result of intoxication, metabolic illness, infection or neurological catastrophe

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5
Q

What would a stuporous patient look like?

A

only arousable with vigorous or unpleasant stimulation. Verbal responses are slow or even absent. Minimal awareness of self or environment. Lapses into an unresponsive state.

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6
Q

What would a coma patient look like?

A

consciousness cannot be aroused. no evident response

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7
Q

How do you calculate a BMI?

A

weight in KG/ hight m2

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8
Q

What diseases are associated with an elevated BMI

A

hypertension, diabetes, corony heart disease, stroke, osteoarthritis, respiratory problems and certain cancers.

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9
Q

When is waist circumference concerning?

A

greater than 35inch in women and 40inch in men

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10
Q

What are the 5 vital signs?

A

temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure and pain

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11
Q

What is the most accurate way to measure core body temperature?

A

rectal route being 1 degree f higher than oral. commonly used in infants and comatose patients or those who are unable to close their mouth.

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12
Q

hyperthermia

A

elevation of body temperature not caused by fever

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13
Q

hyperpyrexia

A

extreme elevation above 106

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14
Q

hypothermia

A

abnormally low temperature below 95

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15
Q

What is a normal heart rate?

A

60-100 bpm

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16
Q

what is a normal respiratory rate?

A

12-20 breaths per min

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17
Q

What is a systolic blood preasure?

A

the preasure of blood on the arterial wall at the peak of left ventricular contraction. increases in more distal arteries. Top number

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18
Q

What is a diastolic blood preasure?

A

the resting pressure on the arterial wall. occurs during ventricular relaxation. falls more in distal arteries. bottom number.

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19
Q

What should the width of a blood pressure cuff size be?

A

40% of the upper arm circumference. a cuff too small with result in a BP too high and too large will be falsely low.

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20
Q

What is a Auscultatory gap?

A

the period between systolic and diastolic where the pulse is not audible but returns with continued deflation.

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21
Q

Should BP be reported in even or odd numbers?

A

even

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22
Q

What should be documented when recording BP?

A

name of patient, date and time of measurement, arm or site which measurement was taken, cuff size and patients position.

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23
Q

what is a normal BP difference between limbs?

A

5-10mmHg

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24
Q

What is orthostatic hypertension?

A

when a drop in systolic BP of 20 or diastolic is greater than 20 or the rise of the pulse by 20 bpm from the supine to standing position.

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25
Q

what is pulse pressure?

A

the difference between systolic and diastolic BP. less than 25 suggests significant blood loss and larger than 100 suggests valvular issues.

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26
Q

Lacrimal gland

A

secretes tear film

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27
Q

lacrimal puncta

A

drains tears medially

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28
Q

lacrimal sac

A

tear fluid passes from puncta to sac and into the nose through the nasolacrimal duct.

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29
Q

Ciliary body

A

Muscles that control the thickness of the lens

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30
Q

aqueous humor

A

clear liquid that fills the anterior and posterior chamber of the eye. controls pressure of the eye
drained through the canal of schlemm

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31
Q

Fundus

A

posterior part of the eye seen through an opthalmoscope

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32
Q

optic disc

A

contains optic nerve and cental retinal vessels

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33
Q

fovea

A

surronds the point of central vision

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34
Q

macula

A

circular area that surrounds the fovea. receives and transduces light from the center of visual field.

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35
Q

pupillary light reflex

A

light beam shining onto one retina causes pupillary constriction in that eye. there should also be a consensual reaction in the opposite eye.

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36
Q

accommodation

A

when a person shifts their gaze from far to near pupils constrict.

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37
Q

Convergence

A

crossing of the eye

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38
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

inflammation of the clear covering of the eye and inside of the eyelids. can be infectious or noninfectious.

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39
Q

signs of viral conjunctivitis

A

most commen, examples include pinkeye. red and watery eyes with sometimes discharge. resolves within 1-3 weeks. highly contagious

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40
Q

signs of bacterial conjunctivitis

A

red eye with purulent discharge. can be treated with topical antibiotics. most common are staph and strep.

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41
Q

signs of non-infectious conjunctivitis

A

red eye with copious watery discharge and itching.

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42
Q

Hyperopia

A

far sightedness, distant objects can be seen clearly, close objects are blurry.

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43
Q

Presbyopia

A

far-sightedness that occurs with aging. usually s result of loss of elasticity of the lens.

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44
Q

Myopia

A

near-sightedness, light focuses in front of instead of on the retina.

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45
Q

Scotomas

A

area of “blind spot” or alteration in normal field of vision

46
Q

Diplopia

A

double vision, seeing two of the same object instead of one.

47
Q

Ectropion

A

turning outward of the lower lid. usually due to aging

48
Q

Entropion

A

turning inward of the lower lid, caused by muslce weakness and scars. can lead to infections

49
Q

Miosis

A

constriction of the pupil

50
Q

mydriasis

A

dilation of the pupil

51
Q

nystagmus

A

involuntary, rapid and repetitive movements of the eyes. y=usually horizontal.

52
Q

Proptosis

A

abnormal protrusion of the eye

53
Q

Ptosis

A

drooping or falling of the upper eyelid.

54
Q

Cataracts

A

opacification of the lens

55
Q

Papilledema

A

swelling of the optic disc

56
Q

What is included in a physical eye exam?

A

visual acuity, inspection, visual fields by confrontation, pupil testing, and extraocular movements

57
Q

When is the visual acuity exam done in the order of a physical eye exam?

A

always 1st

58
Q

What is used to test visual acuity?

A

Snellen eye chart or the Rosenbaum eye chart

59
Q

Auricle

A

cartilage covered by skin and has a firm elastic consistency in the ear

60
Q

Outer ear

A

auricle, tragus, lobule, and ear canal

61
Q

middle ear

A

TM, ossicles and eustachian tube

62
Q

Inner ear

A

cochlea, semicircular canals, cochlear nerve and labyrinth.

63
Q

What is the role of cerumen?

A

protects the ear by restricting the entry of foreign objects and insects. decreases the risk of infection by inhibiting growth of bacteria.

64
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

damage inthe middle and outer ear

65
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

damage in the inner ear

66
Q

presbycusis

A

hearing loss of elderly patients, typically high frequency

67
Q

Otitis media

A

inflammation of the middle ear that is frequently diagnosed in infants and toddlers.
ie ear inflection

68
Q

What are treatments for otitis media?

A

oral antibiotics, analgesics, antipyretics and local heat

69
Q

Otitis externa

A

swimmers ear. inflammation of the skin lining the external auditory canal.

70
Q

What is part of the physical exam of the ear?

A

auditory acuity, inspection and palpation of ear, otoscopic examination

71
Q

Turbinates

A

slow the movement of air, allows air to be warmed and humidified

72
Q

Nasopharynx

A

uppermost portion of the pharynx, extends between soft palate and the base of tongue

73
Q

oropharynx

A

extends between soft palate and the base of tongue. palatine tonsils lie in this area.

74
Q

laryngopharynx

A

between the entrance to the esophagus and the hyoid bone

75
Q

Buccal mucosa

A

mucosal surface that lines the inside of the cheeks

76
Q

Parotid ducts

A

open into the buccal mucosa near the upper second molar

77
Q

What is the most common type of headache?

A

tension headache, bandlike distribution

78
Q

Rhinitis medicamentosa

A

rebound nasal congestion brought on by extended use of topical decongestants

79
Q

What are the 10 lymph nodes?

A

preauricular, postauricular, occipital, tonsillar, submandibular, submental, superficial cervical, posterior cervical, deep cervical chain, supraclavicular

80
Q

What 6 characteristics should be documented regarding lymph nodes?

A

size, shape, delimitation, mobility, consistency and tenderness.

81
Q

suprasternal notch

A

u-shaped depression at the top of the sternum between clavicles.

82
Q

Sternal angle

A

angle of louis, articulation between manubrium and body and the second rib

83
Q

Which are the “true” ribs?

A

1-7

84
Q

Which are the “false” ribs?

A

8-10

85
Q

Which are the floating rivbs?

A

11-12

86
Q

Lung Apex

A

the most superior portion of the lungs

87
Q

Visceral Pleura

A

serous membrane that covers the outer surface of each lung

88
Q

Parietal pleura

A

serous membrane that lines the inner rib cage and top of diaphram

89
Q

Pleural space

A

potential space between the visceral and parietal pleura, contains smal amount of fluid to eliminate friction

90
Q

mediastinum

A

separates the two pleural cavaties

91
Q

Bronchioles

A

thinnest segment of the bronchial tree, supplies air to the alveoli

92
Q

Alveoli

A

small grape like cluster, connected to vessels, oxygen exchanged for carbon dioxide.

93
Q

What is the primary muscle for respiration?

A

diaphram

94
Q

What are accessory muscles of respiration?

A

scalene, sternocleidomastoid, intercostals, trapezius and pestorals

95
Q

Asthma

A

Chronic disorder of the airways that results in inflamed and narrowed airways

96
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of asthma?

A

dyspnea, cough, chest tightness wheezing, use of accessory muscles and increased respiratory rate

97
Q

Chronic bronchitis

A

inflammation and edema of bronchioles leading to excessive mucus production and obstruction

98
Q

Emphysema

A

abnormal permanent enlargement of airspaces distal to bronchioles

99
Q

What would a patient with COPD look like?

A

elongated lungs, barrel chest and flat diaphragms.

100
Q

What are the different pneumonia classifications?

A

community acquired, healthcare-associated, hospital-acquired, and ventilatory-associated.

101
Q

What side of the stethoscope is used when auscultating the lungs?

A

the diaphragm to auscultate the anterior, posterior and lateral lung fields.

102
Q

What do the different adventitious breathing sounds sound like?

A

Crackles- short, popping sounds
wheezes: high pitched, musical sound continuous through inhale and exhale
Rhonchi- deep coarse sounds typically clear with coughing.

103
Q

Atrioventricular valves

A

tricuspid (between right atrium and ventricle) and mitral (between left atrium and ventricle)

104
Q

Semilunar valves

A

pulmonic valve ( right ventricle to pulmonary)
aortic (left ventricle to aorta)

105
Q

right ventricle

A

mid-sternal, most of what’s seen on an x-ray. 2/3 of the anterior heart.

106
Q

left ventricle

A

posterior, left mid-clavicular area

107
Q

Right atrium

A

right of sternum

108
Q

left atrium

A

entirely posterior and not accessible by physical exam.

109
Q

S1 heart sound

A

systolic, when the ventricles contract

110
Q

S2 heart sound

A

diastolic, the ventricles relax

111
Q

What are the 4 locations for palpation on a cardiac exam?

A

aortic, pulmonary, tricuspid, and mitral. all checked for heaves and lifts with fingertips and thrills with palmar aspect.

112
Q

What are we listening too when doing a cardio exam auscultation?

A

s1, s2, extra heart sounds, murmurs, rate and rhythm

PHAR 370 (3 decks)

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