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1109 Preclinic > Midterm Exam Review (Week 1 - 6) > Flashcards

Midterm Exam Review (Week 1 - 6) Flashcards

1
Q

Chpt 19:
What is acquired immunity?

A

immunity that is developed during a persons lifetime

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2
Q

What is an acute infection?

A

infection of a short duration that is often severe

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3
Q

What is artificially acquired immunity?

A

Immunity that results from a vaccination

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4
Q

What is a blood borne disease?

A

a disease that is caused by microoganims such as viruses or bacteria carried in blood

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5
Q

What is blood borne pathogens?

A

disease causing organisms transferred through contat with blood or other body fluids

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6
Q

What is the chain of infection?

A

Conditions that must be present for infection to occur

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7
Q

What is a chronic infection?

A

an infection of long duration

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8
Q

What is a communicable disease?

A

condition caused by an infection that can spread from person to person or through contact with bodily fluids

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9
Q

What is direct contact?

A

touching or contact with a patients blood or saliva

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10
Q

What is indirect contact?

A

Touching or contact with a contaminated surface or instrument

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11
Q

What is inherited immunity?

A

Immunity present at birth

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12
Q

What is a latent infection?

A

persistent infection with recurrent symptoms that “come and go”

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13
Q

What is naturally acquired immunity?

A

immunity that occurs when a person has contracted and is recovering from a disease

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14
Q

What is OSHA BBP guidelines?

A

designed to protect employees against occupational exposure to blood borne pathogens

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15
Q

What is a pathogen?

A

Disease causing organism

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16
Q

What is percutaneous?

A

through the skin (ex. needle stick)

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17
Q

What is permucosal?

A

contact with mucous membrane’s such as eyes or mouth

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18
Q

What is a standard precaution?

A

standard of care designed to protect healthcare providers from pathogens that can be spread by blood or any other body fluids via excretion or excretion

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19
Q

What is a universal precaution?

A

guidelines based on treating all human blood and body fluids as potentially infectious

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20
Q

What is virulence?

A

strength of pathogens ability to cause disease also known as pathogenicity

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21
Q

What is the order in the chain of infection?

A
  1. Infectious agent
  2. Reservoir
  3. Portal of exit
  4. Transmission
  5. Portal of entry
  6. Host susceptibility
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22
Q

What is bioburden?

A

organic materials such as blood and saliva

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23
Q

What is used to help minimize the number of microorganisms in the aerosol?

A

dental dam and high volume evacuation

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24
Q

True or false: aerosols are visible to the naked eye

A

false, they often cant be seen

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25
Q

What is food and water transmission?

A

disease spread through contaminated food or water (not cooked or is contaminated by other means ex poop)

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26
Q

What is fecal-oral transmission?

A

transmitted by improper sanitation after coming in contact with fecal matter (ex. poor hand hygiene)

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27
Q

What is the most common reason patient to dental team disease transmission occurs?

A

direct contact with patient blood or saliva

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28
Q

What are the 3 ways patient to dental team transmission can occur?

A
  1. Direct contact
  2. Droplet infection (aerosols)
  3. indirect contact ( cross contamination)
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29
Q

How does dental team to patient disease transmission occur?

A

unlikely to happen but could if the dental team member has open cuts on hand

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30
Q

How does patient to patient disease transmission occur?

A

contaminated instruments from one patient used on another patient

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31
Q

How does dental office to community disease transmission occur?

A

microorganisms leave the dental office and enter the community ex. worker leaving the office in their contaminated scrubs or an impression going to lab

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32
Q

How does community to dental office to patient disease transmission occur?

A

microorganisms enter the dental office through municipal water that supplies the dental unit

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33
Q

Is the CDC a regulatory agency? What is their role?

A

No they are not, they give specific recommendations

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34
Q

Is OSHA a regulatory agency? What is their role?

A

Yes, issue specific standards designed to protect the health of employees

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35
Q

When do we use hand rubs?

A

When our hands are not visibly soiled

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36
Q

What is more effective hand rubs or hand washing?

A

Hand rubs

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37
Q

What is irritant dermatitis?

A

chemical irritation to the skin, does not involve the bodies immune system

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38
Q

What is a type IV allergic reaction?

A

delayed contact reaction that involves the immune system may take 48 to 72 hours for symptoms to show ex. latex

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39
Q

What is a Type I allergic reaction?

A

can result in death, occurs in 2-3 minutes and can cause anaphylaxis (closing of airways)

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40
Q

What is general waste?

A

consists of all non hazardous waste (ex. paper towls, paper mixing pads)

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41
Q

What is contaminated waste?

A

Waste that has been in contact with blood or other body fluids (ex. barriers)

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42
Q

What is hazardous waste?

A

poses a risk to humans and to the environment ex. toxic materials such as extracted teeth with amalgam restorations

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43
Q

What is infectious or regulated waste? 3 types

A

waste that is capable of transmitting an infectious disease
1. blood and blood soaked materials (blood or saliva can be squeezed out)
2. pathologic waste ( soft tissues and teeth)
3. sharps

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44
Q

Why should teeth with amalgam never be disposed of with regulated medical waste?

A

amalgam contains mercury and regulated medical waste is incinerated

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45
Q

Chpt 20:
What is an antiseptic?

A

substance for killing microorganisms on the skin

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46
Q

What is a disinfectant?

A

Chemical used to reduce or lower the numbers of microorganisms on inanimate objects

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47
Q

What is a fungicidal

A

product capable of killing fungi

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48
Q

What is glutaraldehyde

A

enviromental protection agency (EPA) registered high level disinfectant

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49
Q

What is a high level disinfectant?

A

hospital disinfectant with tuberculocidal activity kills all microorganisms except spores

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50
Q

What is an intermediate level disinfectant

A

liquid disinfectant with EPA registration as a hospital disinfectant used for operatory surfaces

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51
Q

What is a liquid sterilant?

A

chemical used at room temp for items that are damaged by heat sterilization

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52
Q

What is a low level disinfectant?

A

destroys certain viruses and fungi, used for general housecleaning

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53
Q

What is precleaning?

A

used to remove bioburden before disinfection

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54
Q

What is residual activity?

A

action that continues long after initial application as with disinfectants

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55
Q

what is a sporadical

A

capable of killing bacterial spores

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56
Q

What is a surface barrier

A

fluid resistant material used to cover surfaces likely to be contaminated

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57
Q

what is tuberculocidal?

A

capable of inactivating tuberculosis causing microorganisms

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58
Q

What are touch surfaces and examples?

A

direct touch and contaminated during treatment
ex. unit controls and drawer handles

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59
Q

What are transfer surfaces?

A

not directly touched but often are touched by contaminated instruments ex. trays and hand piece holders

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60
Q

Chpt 21:
How does the autoclave sterilize instruments?

A

sterilization works by moist heat under pressure

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61
Q

What are biological indicators?

A

vials or strips (spore tests) that contain harmless bacterial spores used to determine whether sterilization has occurred

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62
Q

What is biological monitoring?

A

verifies sterilization by confirming that all spore forming microorganisms have been destroyed

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63
Q

What is a critical instrument? example

A

one that has been used to penetrate soft tissue or bone
- scalpels, chisels, scalers and burs

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64
Q

How does a dry heat sterilizer sterilize?

A

sterilized by heated air

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65
Q

What is an endospore?

A

resistant, dormant structure formed inside some bacteria that can withstand adverse conditions

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66
Q

What is a multiparameter indicator?

A

strip placed in packages that change color when exposed to to a combination of heat, temp and time

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67
Q

What is another term for multiparameter indicators?

A

process integrators

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68
Q

What is a noncirtical instrument? Example

A

item that comes in contact with intact skin only
- PID of xray tubehead, lead apron, curing light

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69
Q

What is a safety data sheet?

A

OSHA: required for each hazardous chemical in facility

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70
Q

What is a semi critical instrument? example

A

item that comes in contact with tissues but foes not penetrate soft tissue or bone
- HVE Tips, X ray holders, amalgam carriers

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71
Q

How does the ultrasonic cleaner work?

A

instrument that loosens and removes debris by sound waves traveling through a liquid

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72
Q

Seven Steps To Instrument Reprocessing:
Step 1: Transport
- How do we do it and why?

A

Transport instruments to the processing area in a manner that minimized the risk for exposure to person and the environment
- proper PPE
- Leakproof container

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73
Q

Seven Steps To Instrument Reprocessing:
Step 2: Cleaning
- What do we use?

A

handsfree mechanical process such as an ultrasonic cleaner

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74
Q

Seven Steps To Instrument Reprocessing:
Step 3: Packaging
- What do we use? How

A

Wrap instruments in appropriate manner ( wrap cassettes pouches for loose items) place a indicator strip into or on the outside of the package

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75
Q

Seven Steps To Instrument Reprocessing:
Step 4: Sterilization

A

Load items into the sterilizer as per manufacture directions, allow items to cool before removing them from the sterilizer

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76
Q

Seven Steps To Instrument Reprocessing:
Step 5: Storage
- where do we store?

A

store instruments in a clean, dry environment in a-manner that maintains the integrity of the package, rotate so the oldest packages will be used first

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77
Q

Seven Steps To Instrument Reprocessing:
Step 6: Delivery

A

deliver packages to point of use in a manner that maintains sterility of the instruments until they are used, inspect each package for damage and open package aseptically

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78
Q

Seven Steps To Instrument Reprocessing:
Step 7: Quality

A

record keeping, maintenance and the use of biologic indicators

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79
Q

Where should the instrument processing room be located? why?

A

away from easy access to patient care areas this minimizes the need to carry contaminated instruments around patients and “clean” areas

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80
Q

What are two ways instruments can be precleaned?

A
  1. ultasonic cleaning
  2. Instrument washing machine (miele)
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81
Q

If instruments can not be cleaned immediately after a procedure what should they be placed in?

A

Holding solution

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82
Q

What is the holding solution usually?

A

any non corrosive liquid
- usually an enzymatic solution that partially dissolved organic debris

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83
Q

Is a holding solution ideal?

A

no its neither cost effective or desirable as a disinfectant alone

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84
Q

What is hand scrubbing and when is it used?

A

removes all visible dirt and debris prior to ultrasonic and miele cleaning

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85
Q

When is the best time to remove visible dirt and debris from instuments?

A

Chairside

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86
Q

How do we hand scrub?

A

Place instruments fully under the water to avoid splashing and use a brush to clean the debris off

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87
Q

How often do we clean the ultrasonic cleaner solution?

A

Once a day atleast or if it becomes cloudy

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88
Q

What is the foil test used for? How is it used?

A

used to determine if the ultrasonic is working properly
place the tinfoil into the ultrasonic and run for 20 seconds, small pebbling and holes should effect the entire surface if an area has no pebbling (1/2 or more) there is a problem with the unit

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89
Q

How does the miele work?

A

very hot recirculating water and detergents that remove the organic material

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90
Q

What is flash sterilization? is it adequate?

A

method for sterilizing unwrapped items for immediate use, not recommended by public health

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91
Q

What does sterilization kill?

A

All microbial forms including bacterial spores

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92
Q

What are the three common forms of heat sterilization?

A
  1. steam
  2. chemical vapour
  3. dry heat
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93
Q

How does the Steam Autoclave Sterilizer work?

A

steam under pressure, involves heating water to generate steam producing a moist heat that rapidly kills microorganisms.

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94
Q

Is it heat or pressure that kills the microorganisms in the autoclave?

A

Heat

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95
Q

What are the 4 cycles of the autclave?

A
  1. heat up cycle
  2. sterilizing cycle
  3. depressurization cycle
  4. drying cycle
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96
Q

what is a disadvantage of the autoclave?

A

may cause corrosion due to moisture

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97
Q

What is chemical vapour sterilization?

A

similar to autoclaving, but a combination of chemicals is used instead of water to create a vapour for sterilization

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98
Q

What are some advantages to chemical vapour sterilization?

A

does not rust, dull or corrode dry metal instruments
short time cycle

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99
Q

What are some disadvantages to chemical vapour sterilization?

A

adequate ventilation is necessary because of the chemicals used and released from the chamber they can be very irritating

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100
Q

What is dry heat sterilization?

A

operates by heating air and transferring that heat from the air to the instruments

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101
Q

Do instruments rust while in the dry heat sterilizer?

A

no (as long as they are dried before packaging)

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102
Q

What are two types of dry heat sterilizers?

A
  1. static air
  2. forced air
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103
Q

What is/ how does the static air sterilizer work?

A

similar to an oven
- hot air rises from the botto, and heat is transferred from the static (nonmoving) air to the instruments in 1-2 hours

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104
Q

What is a disadvantage of the static air sterilizer?

A

time - takes a-lot of time and error due to incorrect processing time

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105
Q

What is/ how does the forced air sterilizer work?

A

circulate the hot air throughout the chamber at a high velocity, permits rapid transfer of heat energy from the air to the instruments

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106
Q

What is the average time for the forced air sterilizer?

A

6 mins for unpackaged 12 minutes for packaged

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107
Q

What are liquid chemical sterilants? why are they used? how?

A

a liquid sterilant such as 3% glutaraldhyde
- instruments placed in solution for 10 hours to become sterilized
- used for instruments or items that can not withstands heat sterilization

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108
Q

True or False: Liquid Chemical Sterilants are highly recommended by public health

A

False: not recommended by public health

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109
Q

What are three forms of sterilization monitoring?

A
  1. physical
  2. chemical
  3. biological
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110
Q

What is physical monitoring?

A

looking at the gauges, readings on the sterilizer and recording temp, pressure and exposure time

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111
Q

Does physical monitoring guarantee sterilization?

A

No but an incorrect reading gives a signal there is a problem

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112
Q

What is chemical monitoring?

A

involves the use of heat sensitive chemical that changes colour when exposed to certain conditions

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113
Q

What are two types of chemical monitoring?

A

process indicator
process integrators

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114
Q

What are process indicators? How do they work? examples

A

places external
example: autoclave tape or color change marking on a package

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115
Q

Do process indicators show if something has been sterilized?

A

No, it shows that the instrument pack have been exposed to a certain temp

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116
Q

T or F: Process indictors are useful in distinguishing between packages that have been processed and those that have not

A

True

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117
Q

What is process integrators?

A

Placed inside packages
respond to a combination of pressure, temperature and time
All sterilization factors are integrated. ( sterility is not confirmed tho)

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118
Q

What is Biological Monitoring?

A

Test done to confirm sterility

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119
Q

What is the only way to determine whether sterilization has occured?

A

Biological monitoring

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120
Q

What is the least desirable method of cleaning instruments? why

A

hand scrubbing, because it risks poke

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121
Q

How do we “pre clean” handpieces?

A

We flush them with a pressurized machine

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122
Q

What two sterilization techniques are acceptable for dental hand pieces?

A

chemical vapour and steam sterilizers

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123
Q

Chapter 23:
What is acute exposure?

A

high levels of exposure over a short period

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124
Q

What is the GHS?

A

Global Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals

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125
Q

What does the GHS do?

A

its an organization that defines and classifies the hazards of products and communicates health and safety information on labels and SDS’s

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126
Q

What is a hazard class?

A

classification that provides a number or name of hazardous properties that present a potential hazard to human health and safety

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127
Q

What is a hazard classification?

A

Systemic standardization statement that divides health and physical hazards into seperate classifications

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128
Q

What is the Hazard Communication Standard (HCS)

A

Standard set in place by OSHA to ensure that the hazards of all chemicals are evaluated and details provided to employers regarding the right to know about hazardous chemicals in workplace

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129
Q

What is a health hazard?

A

evidence of a chemical that acute or chronic health effects may occur when an employee is exposed

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130
Q

What is a physical hazard?

A

chemicals that can be combustible liquid, a compressed gas and explosive material or water reactive and is a health hazard

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131
Q

What 4 characteristics makes a chemical hazardous?

A
  1. if it can ignite (catch fire)
  2. if it can react or explode when mixed with other substances
  3. if it is corrosive
  4. if it is toxic
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132
Q

What are the 3 primary methods of chemical exposure?

A

inhalation, skin contact, ingestion

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133
Q

What is acute chemical toxicity? What are the symptoms

A

high levels of exposure over a short period
- symptoms are very sudden
- dizziness, vomiting, head ache

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134
Q

What is chromic chemical toxicity? what are the symptoms?

A

repeated exposure over a long period of time
- liver disease, brain disorder, cancer, infertility

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135
Q

What gloves should we wear while handling chemicals?

A

utility gloves

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136
Q

Why should latex gloves never be used while handiling chemicals

A

latex creates a wicking or sucking action that will actually pull the chemicals into the glove and onto your hand

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137
Q

True or False: Chemical spills are a common occurrence in the dental field

A

False. they should be avoided

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138
Q

What spill kit should every dental office have? what is included and why?

A

mercury spill kit
it includes mercury spill powder, sponge and disposal bag
its important because mercury can be dangerous even in small amounts

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139
Q

What are 4 ways we can practise good storing of chemcials?

A
  1. follow manufacturer instructions
  2. avoid exposure to light
  3. check expiration date
  4. rotate inventory
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140
Q

How can empty chemical containers be considered hazardous?

A

they often hold residues that can burn or explode

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141
Q

A chemical is considered corrosive if it has a pH less than ___ (highly acidic) or a pH of more than ____ ( basic)

A

2.0 - acidic
12.5 basic

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142
Q

What does a reactive chemical react with?

A

explosive and toxic when mixed with water

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143
Q

What must a chemical contain to be considered toxic?

A

arsenic, barium, chromium, mercury, lead, silver, and certain pesticides

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144
Q

What is found on all chemical labels?

A
  1. signal word
  2. pictogram
  3. hazard statement
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145
Q

When must employee training take place (3)

A
  1. when a new employee is hired
  2. when a new chemical product is introduced
  3. once a year for all continuing employees
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146
Q

When a chemical is transfered to a secondary container what must we ensure be done?

A

the secondary container must also be labelled

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147
Q

The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) has a labelling system:
what does the blue diamond represent?

A

health hazard

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148
Q

The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) has a labelling system:
what does the red diamond represent?

A

flammability

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149
Q

The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) has a labelling system:
what does the yellow diamond represent?

A

reactivity

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150
Q

The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) has a labelling system:
what does the white diamond represent?

A

oxidizers

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151
Q

The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) has a labelling system:
what are the numbers inside of the diamond?

A

0-4 numeric ratings

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152
Q

What is regulated waste?

A

waste that includes items that can be potentially contaminated with infectious material also referred to as regulated medical waste, infectious waste, or biomedical waste

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153
Q

What is toxic waste?

A

waste that can have a poisonous effect

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154
Q

Extracted teeth that do not contain amalgam must be _____ ______ before being used for educational purposes

A

heat sterilized

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155
Q

Why must be never heat sterilize teeth that contain amalgam?

A

high temperatures can create mercury vapours

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156
Q

What type of waste is extracted teeth considered?

A

regulated waste

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157
Q

How should scrap amalgam be dealt with?

A

collected and stored in an airtight container. Never dump any liquid from the container down the sink

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158
Q

Disinfectants that contain less than 2% glutaraldehyde should be disposed of by?

A

Dumping down the sink

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159
Q

Disinfectants that contain more than 2% glutaraldehyde should be disposed of by?

A

managed as hazardous waste

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160
Q

Chpt 24: Dental Unit Waterlines
What is an anti-retraction device?

A

mechanism that prevents entry of fluids and microorganisms into waterlines as a result of negative water pressure. also called “suck back”

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161
Q

What is biofilm?

A

slime producing bacterial communities that can harbour fungi, algae, and protozoa

162
Q

What is colony forming units (CFU)

A

number of separable cells on the surface of a semisolid agar medium that create a visible colony

163
Q

What is dental unit waterline (DUWL)

A

small bore tubing usually made of plastic, used to deliver water through a dental unit during dental treatment

164
Q

What is heterotrophic bacteria?

A

bacteria that use organic carbon as food: protozoa fungi and most bacteria fall into this catergory

165
Q

What is planktonic?

A

describes small organisms that float or drift in bodies of salt and fresh water

166
Q

True or False: bacteria found in dental waterlines are the same as in community water just higher

A

True

167
Q

What bacteria are dental healthcare workers expose to at a much higher rate than the general public

A

legionella

168
Q

Where does biofilm exist?

A

in all places in which moisture an a suitable solid surface are found

169
Q

which is a more resistant bacterial to chemicals, biofilm or planktonic bacteria

A

Biofilm is 1500 times more resistant to chemicals

170
Q

What are 4 ways we can minimize bacterial contamination in water lines

A
  1. use self contain water reservoirs
  2. chemical treamtent regimens
  3. microfiltration
  4. daily draining and drying of lines
171
Q

What are two advantages of self container water reservoirs

A
  1. dental personelle can select the quality of water to be used (distilled, tap etc)
  2. maintenance of the water system is under the control of the dentist and staff
172
Q

What are microfiltration cartridges?

A

dramatically reduces bacterial contamination in dental unit waterline
- inserted as close to the hand-piece on air water syringe as possible

173
Q

How can chemicals help control biofilm (2)

A
  1. periodic or “shock” treatment with biocidal levels (levels that will kill microorganisms) of chemicals
  2. continuous application of chemicals to the system that will kill the microorganisms but not harm human beings
174
Q

What type of water should only be used during surgery (exposure to bone)

A

only sterile water

175
Q

T or F: flushing dental waterlines removed biofilm and temporarily reduces microbial count in the water?

A

F: flushing waterlines does not remove biofilm

176
Q

What are two options when testing the water quality?

A
  1. use commercial testing service ( send sample off to lab and results are mailed back)
  2. use in office test kit
177
Q

What should we use when minimizing aerosols while using the high speed hand-piece, ultrasonic scaler and air water syringe?

A

HVE

178
Q

How does a dental dam reduce direct contact?

A

reduces aerosols and spattering of the patients microorganisms

179
Q

What is important to advise patients of when using saliva ejectors?

A

not to close their lips lightly around the ejector

180
Q

What do we clean the waterlines with at the end of each day at NC

A

Biopure for 2-3 seconds leaving it in the lines overnight

181
Q

How does biopure work?

A

chemicals and enzymes break down and dissolve the organics as they flush down the system, eats away the waste

182
Q

Chpt 27: Vital Signs
What does vital signs consist of taking?

A
  • temperature
  • pulse
  • respiration
  • blood pressure
183
Q

What two factors impact vital signs?

A

Emotional Factors- stress, fear, white coat syndrome
Physical Factors- illness, drinking or eating, exercise

184
Q

What is a persons temperature?

A

the degree of hotness or coldness of the bodys internal enviorment

185
Q

What is the process of physical and chemical changes that takes place in the production of the body heat?

A

metabolism

186
Q

How does temperature play a role during illness?

A

metabolism increases causing the elevation in the bodys temperature this occurs because your body is defending off the bacteria and viruses that can not survive in excess heat

187
Q

What is the average temperature of a resting person

A

97.6 - 99 F

188
Q

What is a digital thermometer?

A

battery operated, shows digital reading after 30 seconds

189
Q

What is a tympanic thermometer?

A

infrared signal is bounced off the eardrum, accurate reading provided after 2 seconds

190
Q

What is a temporal scanner thermometer?

A

uses surface temperature of the artery on the forehead to determine the presence of fever

191
Q

What is a glass thermometer?

A

contains mercury, which can cause health hazards it is banned in many provinces

192
Q

What is the pulse?

A

the pulse is the rhythmic expansion of an artery each time the hear beats

193
Q

Where are the 3 areas pulse can be taken?

A

Radial Artery- inner surface of wrist
Brachial Artery- Inner fold of the upper arm
Carotid Artery- alongside the larynx

194
Q

What is the rate of pulse?

A

the number of beats that occurs during the counting period

195
Q

What is the rhythm of pulse?

A

the pattern of the beats, such as an occasional skipping, speeding up, or slowing down

196
Q

What is the volume of pulse?

A

the force of the beat, such as a strong or a weak beat

197
Q

What is the normal pulse rate in an adult?

A

60 -100 BPM

198
Q

What is the normal pulse rate in children?

A

70-120 BPM

199
Q

What is tachycardia

A

abnormally rapid resting pulse rate

200
Q

What is bradycardia

A

abnormally slow resting pulse rate

201
Q

What is respiration?

A

the process of inhaling and exhaling, or breathing

202
Q

What is rate in respiration?

A

total number of breaths per minute

203
Q

What is rhythm in respiration?

A

breathing pattern

204
Q

what is depth in respiration?

A

amount of air inhaled and exhaled

205
Q

What is the normal adult respiration reading?

A

10-20 breaths per minute

206
Q

What is the normal children and teenager respiration reading?

A

18-30 breaths per minute

207
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

the amount of work the heart has to do to pump blood throughout the body

208
Q

What are the two pressures of the heart?

A

systolic and diastolic

209
Q

What does the systolic number in BP represent?

A

reflects the amount of pressure it takes for the left ventricle of the heart to compress or push oxygenated blood out into the blood vessels

210
Q

What does the diastolic number in BP represent?

A

the heart muscle at rest when it is allowing the heart to take in blood to be oxygenated before the next contraction

211
Q

What two pieces of equipment do we need to take blood pressure?

A

Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope

212
Q

What sound does the stethoscope amplify?

A

Korotkoff sounds

213
Q

What do the korotkoff sounds represent?

A

blood rushing back into the brachial artery

214
Q

What is the pulse oximetry?

A

measuring the concentration of oxygen in the blood

215
Q

What color is oxygenated blood?

A

bright red

216
Q

what color is deoxygenated blood?

A

more blue-purple

217
Q

what is the normal reading from the pulse oximetry?

A

95-99% oxygen saturation level

218
Q

Chpt 36: Moisture Control
What is a saliva ejector?

A

small straw shaped oral evacuator used during less invasive dental procedures

219
Q

What are the 4 indication for use of the saliva ejector?

A
  1. preventive procedures such as prophylaxis and fluoride treatments
  2. control of saliva and moisture accumulation under the dental dam
  3. cementation of a crown or bridge
  4. orthodontic bonding procedures
220
Q

Where do you place the saliva ejector in the patients mouth?

A

under the tongue where most fluids accumulate opposite to the side the dentist is working

221
Q

What are the indication for use of the HVE

A
  • keeps the mouth free of saliva, blood, water, and debris
  • retracts the tongue and cheek away from the field of operation
  • reduces bacterial aresol caused by the high speed hand-piece
222
Q

What is the operative suction tip?

A

desinged with a straight or slight angle in the middle
beveled working end

223
Q

what is the surgical suction tips?

A

smaller in circumference
made of plastic or stainless steel

224
Q

What two grasp are used when operating the HVE

A
  1. thumb to nose
  2. pen grasp
225
Q

What are 4 key things when positioning the HVE

A
  1. position the HVE on the surface closest to you
  2. position the tip as close as possible to the tooth being worked on
  3. position the bevel of the tip so it is parallel to the tooth surface
  4. keep the edge of the tip slightly beyond the occlusal surface or incisor edge
226
Q

What are the two types of rinsing procedures

A
  1. limited area rinsing
  2. full mouth rinsing
227
Q

What is a limited-area rinse?

A
  • performed frequently throughout a procedure
  • accomplished quickly and efficiently
228
Q

What is a full mouth rinse?

A

freshens the patients entire mouth completed at the end of a procedure

229
Q

What is the air water syringe used for

A

convenience and accuracy to complete the rinsing process

230
Q

What is cotton roll isolation? advantages and disadvantages

A
  • easy application
  • no additional equipment required
  • flexible, permitting adaptation to different areas of mouth
    disadvantage: does not provide complete isolation, may stick to oral mucosa, must be replaced frequently
231
Q

What are cotton roll holders?

A

designed to hold multiple cotton rolls in a. more secure manner for the mandibular quadrant
- metal or plastic prong is slid into each cotton roll

232
Q

What is dry angle isolation?

A

isolate posterior areas and is placed over stensens duct (opposite to max second molar)
the pad block the flow of saliva and protect the tissues in this area, replace pads id they become soaked before the procedure

233
Q

Chpt 25- Ergonomics
What are musculoskeletal disorders?

A

Headache, neck and shoulder pain, back pain, and carpal tunnel syndrome due to work habits, posture and equipment

234
Q

Why do we care about ergonomics in the dental field?

A

back, shoulder and joint pain, can result in more serious damage overtime

235
Q

What does the early onset of paint alert you to?

A

an imbalence

236
Q

what 3 interrelated factors contribute to job related injuries

A
  • posture
  • repetition
  • force
237
Q

what is the neutral position

A

sitting upright with your weight distributed evenly

238
Q

how do ambidextrous gloves affect ergonomics?

A

can exert tension on the hypothenar eminence (fleshy elevation of the palm side of hand) forcing the hand to work against the vertical alignment

239
Q

What is the most important factor in preventing CTS

A

resting hands frequently

240
Q

What eye exercise can you do to relief eye sprain

A

look up from the task and focus your eyes at a distance for approx. 20 seconds

241
Q

Chpt 48: General Dentistry
What is restorative dentistry?

A

when teeth need to be restored to the original from and shape through the use of direct and indirect restorative material

242
Q

What is esthetic dentistry?

A

improving the appearance of teeth by repairing imperfections, with direct and indirect restorative materials, or by using whitening techniques

243
Q

What must be considered during cavity preparation?

A

consideration of enamel thickness, body of dentin, size and position of pulp

244
Q

what is cavity preparation?

A

process of removing diseased tooth structure while leaving healthy tooth structure for the tooth to maintain a restoration

245
Q

Initial cavity preparation: what is the outline form?

A

design and initial depth of sounds tooth structure
- framework for filling, removal of carious lesion, defective resto

246
Q

Initial cavity preparation: what is the resistance form

A

primary shape and placement of cavity walls
- strength and durability

247
Q

Initial cavity preparation: what is retention form

A

to resist displacement or removal
- how well the cavity pre is able to retain the restoration

248
Q

Initial cavity preparation: what is convenience form

A

accessibility in preparing and restoring the tooth

249
Q

What is the final cavity preparation

A

removes any enamel, diseased dentin, or old restorative materal
insert additional resistance and retention notches and grooves
placing protective dental materials (lining agents, bases, desensitizing or bonding agents)

250
Q

What are class I caries?

A

occlusal caries in pits and fissues of molar/ pre molar: facial/ lingual surfaces of molars: lingual surfaces of max incisors

251
Q

What are Class II caries?

A

caries on proximal surfaces of posteriors

252
Q

What are class III caries?

A

caries on proximal surfaces of anteriors that do not involve the incisal angle

253
Q

What are class IV Caries?

A

caries on proximal surfaces of anteriors that involve the incisal edge

254
Q

What are class V caries?

A

caries on incisal edges/ cusps

255
Q

What are class VI caries?

A

incisal (anterior) and occlusal cusps (posterior)

256
Q

What is a direct restoration and ex.

A

placed directly in office
- amalgam
- resin based composites
- glass ionomers

257
Q

what is an indirect restoration and ex

A

fabricate in lab and inserted at a later time
- crown, inlays on-lays
veneers

258
Q

What are retention pins

A

used to support the restoration. usually one pin for each missing cusp

259
Q

why is it important to use a dental dam while preparing and placing pins

A

pins are small so they can easily be dropped or misplaced

260
Q

what are intermediate restorations?

A

restoration placed for a short time

261
Q

Chpt 34: Dental Instruments
What is a instrument number?

A

manufacture assigns number to most instruments

262
Q

What instrument is often referred to by their number rather than their name?

A

pliers and forceps

263
Q

Parts of Instruments: Handle

A

portion of the instrument that the operator grasps

264
Q

Parts of Instruments: Shank

A

part of the instrument that connects the working end to the handle

265
Q

Parts of Instruments: Working End

A

portion of the instrument designed for a specific function

266
Q

What is blacks instrument formula?

A

formula that describes the angulations and dimensions of the working end of a hand instrument

267
Q

in blacks instrument formula what do the three sets of numbers repersent?

A
  • width of blade
  • length of blade
  • angle of blade
268
Q

What are the 4 instrument classification?

A

examination
hand cutting
restorative
acessory

269
Q

What is the function of a periodontal probe?

A

to measure sulcus and pocked depth of the periodontium of each tooth

270
Q

What is the function of locking and non locking pliers

A

retrieve small items like pinchers

271
Q

What are the 3 types of chisels?

A
  1. straight
  2. wedelstaeft
  3. bi-angle
272
Q

What is the characteristics of hatchets (4)

A
  • beveled on one side
  • blade on one side
  • refines cavity walls
  • obtain retention in cavity
273
Q

What is the function of a hoe?

A

smoothes and shapes floor of cavity prep

274
Q

What is the function of gingival margin trimmers?

A

curved blade, angled cutting edge, bevel gingival margin wall of cavity prep

275
Q

What is the characteristics of an angle former?

A

define point angles
sharpen line angles

276
Q

What is the function of an excavator?

A
  • blade or spoon
    removal of carious materials and excess cement
277
Q

What is the most commonly used excavator?

A

spoon excavator

278
Q

What is the definition of a restorative instrument?

A

an instrument used to place, condense, and carve the restorative dental material back to reflect the normal anatomy

279
Q

What is a plastic filling instrument used for?

A

placing and condensing restorative materials

280
Q

What is a composite instrument used for?

A

placing, condensing, carving, contouring and burnishing

281
Q

What is the function of a amalgam carrier?

A

carry and dispense amalgam

282
Q

What is the function of a amalgam condenser?

A

pack amalgam into cavity preparation

283
Q

What is the function of a carver?

A

to remove excess restorative material, carve wax inlays and onlays

284
Q

What is the function of a burnisher?

A

to smooth restorations and shape matrix bands

285
Q

What is found in an armamentarium? (amalgam filling set up)

A
  • triturator
  • amalgam well
  • amalgam carrier
  • condensing instrument
  • carving
  • tofflemire matrix system or sectional
286
Q

What the 5 steps of amalgam manipulation

A
  1. dispensing
  2. trituration
  3. condensation
  4. carving
  5. polishing
287
Q

What is the first step in a composite filling preparation

A

etched, rinsed and dried

288
Q

What is the second step in a composite filling procedure

A

prime and bond is applied, light cured

289
Q

What is the third step in a composite filling procedure

A

composite is places and condensed, shaped with PFI and then light cured

290
Q

What is the fourth step in a composite filling procedure

A

matrix is removed and finishing burs are used to shape and polish

291
Q

What is the last step in a composite filling procedure

A

occlusion is checked with articulating paper, reduced if needed

292
Q

What is the first step in an amalgam filling procedures

A

triturator- amalgam capsule is placed into the triturator

293
Q

What is the second step in an amalgam filling procedures?

A

place amalgam into the amalgam well then amalgam is placed in small increment (starting with proximal areas)

294
Q

What is the third step of an amalgam filling

A

condensing: packing amalgam into prep cavity and each portion is condensed with a condensing instrument

295
Q

What is the fourth step in an amalgam filling

A

carving and burnishing- carving shapes amalgam into anatomic form to restore function, sharp cutting instrument’s
burnishing is used to burnish overpacked amalgam
a explorer is used to contour marginal ridge heigh and outer contours of tooth

296
Q

What is the fifth step in an amalgam filling?

A

wedge is removed, tofflemire is now loosened from band

297
Q

What is the purpose of a pre procedural rinse?

A

to reduct the amount of microorganisms introduced in the form of areosol or splatter/spray `

298
Q

What is the name of the PPR we use during aerosol procedures

A

Denticare Chlorohexidine 0.12%

299
Q

What age do we use PPR on?

A

children over the age of 12

300
Q

What must we be aware of for some patients when using a PPR

A

for alcohol dependent patients some PPR contain alcohol therefore we must avoid those

301
Q

what is sloughing?

A

shedding of the oral mucosa, grey/white strips of oral epithelium which peels off the soft tissue

302
Q

can your client rinse with water after doing a PPR?

A

no it dilutes the active ingredients

303
Q

What indication is used on cassette to ensure proper colour change indications have occurred?

A

black lines

304
Q

what is the final colour of a properly sterilized internal integrator

A

black

305
Q

what colour will the pouch change to in order to confirm the item went through sterilization

A

pink to black

306
Q

Chpt 33: Delivering Dental Care
What is the operator zone for a right handed clinician?

A

7-12 oclock

307
Q

what is the transfer zone for right handed clinician

A

4-7 o clock

308
Q

what is the assistant zone for a right handed clinician?

A

2 to 4 o clock

309
Q

what is the static zone for a right handed clinician?

A

12 to 2 o clock

310
Q

what is the operator zone for a left handed dentist

A

12 to 5 oclock

311
Q

what is the transfer zone for a left handed dentist

A

5 to 8 o clock

312
Q

what is the assistant zone for a left handed dentist

A

8 to 10 o clock

313
Q

What hand does the assistant use to pass and receive instruments with a right handed dentist

A

left hand

314
Q

How is the mirror and explorer transfered?

A

mirror in the right hand and the explorer in the left hand

315
Q

how are dental hand-pieces transferred

A

behind the patients head

316
Q

Chpt 49- Matrix systems
What is a matrix systems function?

A

provides a temporary wall for the restoration process in class II, III, and IV

317
Q

What posterior matrix system is most common?

A

universal retainer or tofflemire

318
Q

what is a matrix band?

A

thin flexible stainless steel material

319
Q

what two designs are often used for matrix bands

A
  1. universal band
  2. extension band
320
Q

what is a universal matrix band? what type of restoration is it used for

A

selected for class II preparation when the proximal box is prepared to a minimum depth and width and the cusps are intact

321
Q

what is an extension matrix band? why is it used

A

selected for deeper class II preparations requiring gingival extensions
- has two lumps

322
Q

When placing a matrix band what end should the small circumference be placed?

A

towards the gingiva

323
Q

when placing a matrix band what end should the larger circumference be placed?

A

occlusal edge is always positioned facing toward the occlusal part of tooth

324
Q

why is a wedge used with a matrix band

A

when inserted into the gingival margin area it provides and acts like additonal support to the wall

325
Q

What shapes do wedges come in

A

triangular or round

326
Q

what instrument do we use to place wedges

A

cotton pliers

327
Q

for posterior restorations what side is the wedge placed in

A

lingual

328
Q

what is another term for a clear plastic matrix

A

celluloid strip or mylar strip

329
Q

what is a clear plastic matrix used for

A

anterior composite resin or glass ionomer materials

330
Q

what class of tooth restoration is a clear plastic matrix used for?

A

class III or Class IV when the proximal wall of an anterior tooth is missing

331
Q

T OR F a retainer is needed to hold the clear plastic matrix in place

A

false no retainer is needed

332
Q

is the clear plastic matrix placed inter proximally before or after etching and bonding of the tooth? why

A

before to protect the adjacent teeth from these materials

333
Q

t or f: the clear plastic matrix allows for the curing light to penetrate

A

true

334
Q

what is an automatrix system?

A

alternative to a universal retainer and band, no retainer is needed to hold the band in place instead a coil like autolock loop and tightening wrench hold the band in place

335
Q

What type of matrix is used for posterior composite restorations?

A

palodent-type matrix band and tension ring

336
Q

what two types of matrix system are used for primary teeth

A

t band a spot welded band `

337
Q

Chpt 28: Oral Diagnosis
Blacks Classification: Class I

A

Pits and fissures

338
Q

Blacks Classification: Class II

A

interproximal of posteriors only

339
Q

Blacks Classification: Class III

A

Interproximals of anteriors only

340
Q

Blacks Classification: Class IV

A

inter-proximal and incisal edges

341
Q

Blacks Classification: Class V

A

Cervical areas of the tooth (near gum)

342
Q

Blacks Classification: Class VI

A

cusps

343
Q

What are we feeling for when palpation

A

texture
size
consistency of the hard and soft

344
Q

What is palpation used to detect in dental

A

detecting swollen lymph nodes

345
Q

What are we examining when looking at the TMJ

A
  • noises
  • tenderness
  • pain
  • limited function
346
Q

What types of instruments are used to examine teeth?

A

mouth mirror and explorer

347
Q

What does the dentist use to detect imperfections in the teeth

A

explorer

348
Q

What is a Level I Treatment Plan

A

emergency care, relieves immediate discomfort

349
Q

What is a Level II Treatment Plan

A

standard care, restores the patients to normal function

350
Q

What is a Level III Treatment Plan?

A

optimum care, restores the patient to maximum function

351
Q

chpt 37: anesthesia and pain control
What does topical anesthetic do

A

numbs a particular area, used prior to local anesthetic and desensitizes oral mucosa

352
Q

what are indications for topical anesthetic?

A
  • subginginval scaling
  • root planning
  • seating crowns
  • placing matrix bands
  • periodontal probing
  • preparing for local anesthesia
  • repressing gag reflex
353
Q

what are contradictions for use in topical anesthetic

A
  • allergic reaction to anesthesia
  • allergic to flavour (ex. bannana)
354
Q

what must you do before placing topical anesthetic

A

dry the area

355
Q

what must be included on a topical anestetic documentation

A
  • brand
  • dosage
  • flavour
  • site applied
  • time applied
  • if there was a reaction
356
Q

what is oraqix and what is its details?

A

topical anesthetic
- not a vasoconstrictor, quick onset, 5 cartridges can be used at one appt

357
Q

what are indications for oraqix?

A

localized anaesthesia in periodontal pockets
- scaling, root planning, probing

358
Q

What are contraindications for oraqix?

A
  • allergic to amide type local anesthetics
  • traumatized mucosa
  • certain blood disorders
359
Q

how would you document oraqix?

A
  • amount used
  • medications in it
  • where it was applied
  • to what teeth
  • was there a reaction
360
Q

What does local anesthesia do?

A

produces deadened or pain free area, sensory impulses temp blocked affects nerve fibers carrying messages to brain

361
Q

what is a short duration local anesthetic?

A

30 minutes

362
Q

what is a intermediate duration local anesthetic?

A

60 minutes

363
Q

what is a long duration local anesthetic?

A

90 minutes

364
Q

what is a vasoconstrictor?

A

contricts blood vessels to reduce blood flow to the area of injection site

365
Q

what is the most common vasoconstrictor?

A

epinephrine

366
Q

when should vasoconstrictors never be used?

A

clients with heart conditions

367
Q

what is parethesia?

A

pricking or tingling sensation that could last few days or a few weeks caused by nerve damage during injection

368
Q

When should we never use a anesthetic cartridge?

A

if it is damages in any way, discoloured or cloudy or has passed the expiration date

369
Q

The larger the gauge of the needle the ____ the needle

A

thinner

370
Q

When is a short needle used?

A

to administer anesethic by infiltration injection on maxillary arch

371
Q

when is a long needle used?

A

to administer anesthetic by block injection on mandibular arch

372
Q

what is the maximum amount of penetrations you can do with a needle?

A

four

373
Q

How do you document local anesthetic

A

amount of carpules (how many in each carp) what was used what amount, what size, what needle, was there a reaction

374
Q

How should we always re cap needles?

A

using the single handed school technique

375
Q

What is the name of the IO site for target topical

A

Infraorbital

376
Q

Where is the IO topical placement

A

muccobuccal fold of the 4’s

377
Q

What is the name of the ASA site for target topical

A

anterior superior alveolar

378
Q

What teeth are effected in the infraorbital?

A

buccal tissues and pulp of 1-5

379
Q

What teeth are effected in the ASA?

A

buccal tissues and pulp of 1,2 and 3

380
Q

where is the placement for the ASA?

A

topical is placed at the muccobuccal fold of the 3s

381
Q

What is the name of the MSA site for target topical

A

middle superior alveolar

382
Q

Where is the topical placement put for the MSA?

A

muccobucal fold of the 5s

383
Q

What teeth are effected by the MSA

A

buccal tissues and 4,5 and MB root of 6

384
Q

What is the name of the PSA site for target topical

A

Posterior superior alveolar

385
Q

Where is the topical placement for PSA

A

placed at muccobuccal fold of 5s

386
Q

What teeth are effected in the PSA

A

buccal tissue and pulp of 6,7,8

387
Q

What is the name of the NP site for target topical

A

Nasopalatine

388
Q

Where is the topical placement put for PSA

A

topical is placed at midline next to incisive papilla

389
Q

What teeth are effected in NP

A

palatal tissue of 3 to 3

390
Q

What is the name of the GP site for target topical

A

Greater Palatine

391
Q

Where is topical placed in GP

A

near depression of greater palatine foramen (by 7)

392
Q

What are the maxillary injections? (6)

A

IO, ASA, MSA, PSA, NP, GP

393
Q

What teeth are effected in the GP

A

palatal tissues of 4-8

394
Q

What are the mandibular injections?

A

B, IA, IN

395
Q

What is the name of the B site for target topical

A

Buccal Block

396
Q

Where is topical placed on the buccal block

A

topical placed on buccal of 7

397
Q

What teeth are effected in the buccal block

A

buccal tissue of 6,7 and 8

398
Q

What is the name of the IA site for target topical

A

inferior alveolar

399
Q

Where is topical placed in the inferior alveolar

A

distal to the last molar ( ptygomandibular space)

400
Q

What teeth are affected in the inferior alveolar

A

pupal 8-1, tongue , lip, lingual tissue

401
Q

What is the name of the IN site for target topical

A

Incisive

402
Q

Where is the topical placed in the IN

A

mental foramen

1109 Preclinic (4 decks)

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