Midterm Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components to the vertebral subluxation complex?

A

Kinesiopathology, myopathology, neuropathology, histopathology, and pathophysiology

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2
Q

How would you evaluate for kinesiopathology?

A

History, Static/motion palpation, ROM, Posture, and Imaging (radiology/MRI/CT)

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3
Q

How would you evaluate for myopathology?

A

History, palpation, motor exam, posture and specialized studies (EMG)

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4
Q

How would you evaluate for neuropathology?

A

HIstory, instrumentation, DTRs, sensory/motor exam, and specialized studies (imaging/NCV)

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5
Q

How would you evaluate for histopathology?

A

History, palpation, imaging and blood chemistry

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6
Q

What is the function of the PART system?

A

To validate the necessity of chiropractic care and to document this necessity

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7
Q

How does the PART system validate chiropractic?

A

X-rays used to document subluxation

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8
Q

What does PART stand for?

A

Pain and tenderness
Asymmetry or misalignment
Range of motion abnormality
Tissue/tone changes

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9
Q

Which part(s) of the VSC is associated with asymmetry and range of motion abnormality?

A

Kinesiopathology

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10
Q

Pain/tenderness, asymmetry/misalignment and tissue tone changes are grouped together in what part(s) of the VSC?

A

Neuropathology, Histopathology, and Myopathology

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11
Q

Postural analysis is categorized as which part of the VSC?

A

Kinesiopathology

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12
Q

The term used to describe the measurement of the human individual.

A

Anthropometrics

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13
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used in an anterior view of a patient to determine a listing.

A

Sternum and baseline

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14
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used to determine head tilt?

A

Glabella, nose and chin

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15
Q

What is the difference between a list and a lean?

A

A list is the patient’s overall tendency to favor the right or left. A lean is a patient’s regional tendencies to break from an established baseline vertical.

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16
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used to determine thoracic tilt?

A

AC joints

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17
Q

To determine a global list from a lateral view, which reference point(s) is/are used?

A

AC joint to baseline

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18
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used to determine head carriage?

A

EAM and AC joint

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19
Q

What can cause thoracic kyphosis?

A

Trauma, degenerative diseases/fractures, endocrine diseases, CT disorders, infection, MD, polio, spina bifida and tumors

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20
Q

What are symptoms of thoracic kyphosis?

A

Difficulty breathing (severe cases), fatigue, mild back pain, round back appearance and tenderness/stiffness in the spine

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21
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used to determine thoracic rotation?

A

Chest-back prominence

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22
Q

Lumbar lordosis can be caused by:

A

Chronic poor posture, injury, Ricketts, abdominal visceral adiposity, pregnancy and degenerative disease

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23
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used to determine head rotation?

A

Facial prominence (jaw or cheek)

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24
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used to determine head translation?

A

EOP and VP

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25
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used to determine a global list in a posterior view?

A

VP to baseline

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26
Q

Scoliosis is caused by:

A

Vertebral malformation or fused ribs (congenital), poor muscle tone or paralysis due to disease (neuromuscular), Idiopathic (adolescents MC)

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27
Q

Scoliosis is most common in which gender?

A

Females

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28
Q

Symptoms of scoliosis.

A

Difficulty breathing, fatigue, mild back pain, altered curvatures, tenderness/stiffness in spine and compromised visceral function

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29
Q

What reading on a scoliometer would be observed in order to refer the patient to a scoliosis center for evaluation?

A

Scoliometer reading of 5 degrees or more

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30
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used to determine scoliosis in a posterior view?

A

Scapular inferior angles

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31
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used to determine pelvic tilt?

A

Iliac crests and PSIS’s

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32
Q

Which reference point(s) is/are used to determine pelvic rotation?

A

Gluteal prominence

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33
Q

What is the most consistent way to do prone leg checks?

A

Hydraulic HyLo table

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34
Q

When conducting a prone leg check, you should visualize for asymmetry in:

A

Inversion/eversion, foot flare and plantar flexion/dorsiflexion

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35
Q

Which action should be avoided when doing a prone leg check?

A

Torsion of the tibia/femur

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36
Q

What is the purpose of static palpation?

A

To facilitate the analysis of soft or bony tissue structures within the body

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37
Q

Which part(s) of the VSC are utilized when conducting static palpation?

A

Kinesiopathology (position/motion), myopathology (tonicity changes), histopathology (cytological/inflammation/edema) and neuropathology (moisture changes on skin/sclerotogenous pain provocation)

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38
Q

Static palpation is insightful about which components of the PART system?

A

PAT

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39
Q

Active light touch detects:

A

Sudoriferous changes, turgidity changes and surface tonicity

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40
Q

Deep touch detects:

A

Tissue prominency, palpatory tenderness and deep tonicity changes

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41
Q

A secretory function of the integument involves:

A

The release of a blood plasma metabolite called sweat

42
Q

Oily, greasy, slippery, sweaty, clammy or tacky texture can indicate:

A

Acute VSC

43
Q

Dry, scaly, flaky or rough skin can indicate:

A

Chronic VSC

44
Q

When testing for palpatory tenderness, pressure is firmly applied from:

A

I-S and P-A direction on the spinous processes

45
Q

Aside from spinous processes, pressure can also be applied to:

A

Transverse processes, zygapophyseal joints, costal articulations and mamillary processes

46
Q

Pain arising in muscle bellies and musculotendinous junctions is called _____ pain.

A

Myotogenous

47
Q

When detecting deep tonicity changes, the primary consideration is _____, while the secondary consideration is _____.

A

Tonicity change; pain

48
Q

Instrumentation is used to satisfy which component of the PART system of insurance coding?

A

T or tissue tone

49
Q

The neurologic pathway enters the cord as an afferent/efferent sensory/motor input.

A

Afferent sensory input

50
Q

True/False: Warmth receptors are myelinated, while cold receptors and unmyelinated.

A

FALSE, Warmth receptors are UNmyelinated, while cold receptors ARE myelinated

51
Q

The neurologic pathway synapses where?

A

The dorsal horn at the Tract of Lissauer

52
Q

The Tract of Lissauer sorts between:

A

Pain and temperature

53
Q

After the Tract of Lissauer, the neurologic pathway synapses:

A

From the gray matter to white matter to become the lateral spinothalamic tract

54
Q

The lateral spinothalamic tracts ascends/descends into the brain and terminates at the:

A

Ascends; terminates at the ventral posterolateral nucleus of the thalamus

55
Q

The thalamus synapses to which Brodmann areas?

A

1, 2 and 3

56
Q

The anterior portion of the insular cortex regulates:

A

Viscero-autonomic function

57
Q

The insula forwards the neurologic message to the:

A

Hypothalamus (Anterior hypothalamic nucleus)

58
Q

The anterior hypothalamic nucleus becomes a _____, which passes through the brainstem.

A

Descending autonomic tract

59
Q

The DAT carries what type of fibers?

A

Preganglionic sympathetic

60
Q

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers from the DAT will synapse with the:

A

Sympathetic paravertebral ganglionic chain

61
Q

What are the three synapse outcomes of the PSF?

A

Ascend to higher cord level, descend to lower cord level, stay at the same cord level (staying is most likely outcome)

62
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released by PSF to stimulate nicotinic postganglionic fibers?

A

Acetylcholine

63
Q

When Ach is released and NPGF is stimulated, what is transmitted?

A

Epinephrine

64
Q

The postganglionic fibers stimulated by Ach will terminate at the:

A

Tunica media

65
Q

The SNS is present at what cord levels?

A

T1-L3

66
Q

Which parts of the VSC is the Tytron C-3000 most insightful about?

A

Neuropathology (dermal thermoregulation) and histopathology (inflamm’n/edema)

67
Q

Which components of the PART system is the Tytron C-3000 most insightful about?

A

Tissue/tone changes

68
Q

True/false: Tytron scanner barrels and the rollers come in contact with the patient’s skin.

A

FALSE, only the rollers touch the patient

69
Q

A Tytron scan commences at _____ and terminates at _____.

A

S2; the base of the occiput

70
Q

Which barrel of the Tytron is used for a fossa reading?

A

Right barrel

71
Q

A fossa reading of more than 0.5 degrees C is considered:

A

Abnormal, not WNL

72
Q

A fossa reading of 0.5 degrees C or lower is considered:

A

WNL

73
Q

A nervoscope is used primarily for:

A

Segmental “break” analysis

74
Q

What is the difference between a “swing” and a “break?”

A

A swing will be observed as a gradual sweeping deflection of the needle over multiple segments. A break will be observed as a rapid, reproducible deflection of the needle over a neurological field (dermatome) as part of dysfunction physiology (usually one segment).

75
Q

A nervoscope scan begins at _____ and terminates at _____.

A

Occiput; S2

76
Q

The patient is seated _____ for a cervical instrumentation, while they are seated _____ for thoraco-lumbar instrumentation.

A

With the back of the stool; Slightly forward

77
Q

1 segment/second is indicative of what scan?

A

Tytron

78
Q

3 segments/second is indicative of what scan?

A

Nervoscope- cervical scan

79
Q

2 segments/second is indicative of what scan?

A

Nervoscope- thoraco-lumbar scan

80
Q

When conducting a cervical spine glide with the nervoscope, the barrels should be pointed:

A

Parallel or slightly inwards

81
Q

When conducting a thoraco-lumbar spine glide with the nervoscope, the barrels should be pointed:

A

Parallel or wide open

82
Q

A cervical spine glide commences at _____ and terminates _____.

A

T1; 1/2” onto the occiput

83
Q

Confirmed breaks in a cervical spine glide are marked:

A

1/4” below mid thermocouple well outside the glide path

84
Q

A thoraco-lumbar spine glide commences at _____ and terminates at _____.

A

C7; S2 (between PSIS’s)

85
Q

Confirmed breaks in a thoraco-lumbar spine glide are marked:

A

1/2” above mid thermocouple well outside the glide path

86
Q

The general break location of Occ/C1 is:

A

Suboccipital- between the two segments

87
Q

The general break location of T10-T12 is:

A

At its own spinous level

88
Q

The general break location of C2-T3 is:

A

Interspinous space below

89
Q

The general break location of T4 is:

A

At its own spinous level

90
Q

The general break location of L1-L5 is:

A

Lower 25% of involved segment

91
Q

The general break location of T5-T9 is:

A

Interspinous space below

92
Q

What is the proper way to record positive instrumentation findings?

A

Segment level involved/Direction/Amplitude (increments of deflection)

Eg: T5/R/4 C2/L/3

93
Q

The X-axis involves what motion?

A

Flexion/extension

94
Q

The Y-axis involves what motion?

A

Rotation

95
Q

The Z-axis involves what motion?

A

Lateral bend

96
Q

Which chiropractic principle explains that every cause has an effect and vice versa?

A

17

97
Q

Which principle explains that we should live life to its potential?

A

18

98
Q

Which principle describes innate intelligence as homeostatic?

A

21

99
Q

Which principle says that every living thing has innate intelligence?

A

20

100
Q

Which principle describes limitations and their importance?

A

24

101
Q

Which principle describes the cause of dis-ease, the failure to adapt and transmission of Innate?

A

30

102
Q

Which principle discusses the cause or effect of subluxations/adjusting and describes the 3 T’s?

A

31