Midterm Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the genetic factors?

A
  • Pharmacodynamics
  • Pharmacokinetics
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2
Q

What is Pharmacodynamics?

A
  • What the drug does to the body
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3
Q

What are the aspects for Pharmacodynamics?

A
  • Enzymes
  • Receptor
  • Target
  • Signaling
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4
Q

What is Pharmacokinetics?

A
  • What the body does to the drug
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5
Q

What are the aspects of Pharmacokinetics?

A
  • ADME
  • Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Execretion
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6
Q

What is the pharmacist role?

A
  • Recommended, Designing, Educating, Communication
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7
Q

What are some of the competences that we’ll need to establish?

A
  • Pharmasict specific knowledge, Genetics & Diseases, Pharmacogentics & Pharmacodynmaics, Ethical & legal implications
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8
Q

What is DNA?

A
  • A thin, linear polymer fiber that is double stranded
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9
Q

What are the four nucleobases in the DNA?

A
  • Adenine (A)
  • Thymine (T)
  • Guanine (G)
  • Cytosine (C)
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10
Q

What is genome?

A
  • Complete set of DNA
  • 3 billion bases pairs
  • 20,000 genes
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11
Q

What is a gene?

A
  • Sequence of DNA or RNA which codes for a molecule that has a function
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12
Q

What is the main classification of genes?

A
  • Proteins Coding Genes [Genes that are expressed to be proteins
  • Noncoding Genes [mircoRNA: regulate protein-coding genes expression]
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13
Q

What is the structure of a Protein Coding Gene?

A
  • 5 prime to 3 prime
  • Exon: where the decoding takes place
  • Intron: ?
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14
Q

What is Transcriptions?

A
  • It is the DNA into RNA
  • ATGC = AUGC [T become U]
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15
Q

What is Translation?

A
  • It is RNA into Proteins
  • AUG starts it and UGA/UAG/UAA stops it
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16
Q

How many codons and amino acids are within Genetic Coding Systems?

A
  • 64 Codons [UAG, UGA, UAA = Stop; AUG = Start]
  • 20 amino acids
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17
Q

Where can polymorphism occur?

A
  • Occur at the same position of homologous chromosomes [diploid]
  • NO polymorphism on single germ cells [haploid]
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18
Q

What is an Allele?

A
  • DNA sequence at a locus of ONE of the two HOMOLOGOUS CHROMOSOMES
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19
Q

What is a Genotype?

A
  • COMBINATION of alleles at the SAME locus of the homologous chromosomes
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20
Q

What is a Homozygote?

A
  • IDENTICAL alleles at the locus
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21
Q

What is the Heterozygote?

A
  • TWO DIFFERENT alleles
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22
Q

Explain briefly what Mendel’s Law is?

A
  • Each of the parents pass a randomly selected allele to the offspring
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23
Q

What is a Single Nucleotide Polymorphism [SNP]?

A
  • A single nucleotide is changed to another
  • CAT to CCT = HIS to PRO
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24
Q

What is a Missense SNP?

A
  • Amino Acid Substitution [Causing a gain- or loss-of-function
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25
What is a Nonsense SNP?
- Amino acid changes to a stop codon [causes loss-of-function] - HIS to STOP
26
What is Insertion/deletion toward polymorphisms?
- An addition or removal of 1 or 2 [never 3] of nucleotides often causing a framshift - Loss-of-function
27
What is the difference between CNV, Gene Expression, Missense, Nonsense?
- CNV: Gain-of-Function - Gene Expression: Loss-of-Function - Missense: Gain- or Loss-of-Function - Nonsense: Loss-of-Function
28
How does "QRS" related to genotype data?
- Q = T/T - R = T/C - S = C/C
29
How do we calculate the Number of Alleles and the Percent of Allele?
- T allele = 2Q+R - S allele = 2S+R - T allele % = [2Q+R]/2N - S allele % = [2S+R]/2N
30
If the frequencies are known, how do find out MAF?
- Homozygous + 1/2 Heterozygous
31
What is Linkage Disequilibrium [LD]?
- How often two SNPs are inherited together - Non Random association of alleles at different loci on the same chromosome - NO LD: infinite recombination - COMPLETE/PERFECT LD: no recombination - INCOMPLETE LD: partial recombination
32
How do we measure LD?
- R2 = 0: no LD - R2 = 1: complete LD/Perfect LD - R2 > 0.8: Strong LD
33
What does R2 mean within measuring LD?
- How strong the correlation between two variables
34
What is the 1000 Genome Project?
- To find most of the genetic variants with frequencies of 1% in the population - Major Finding: Different Profiles, Geographic differences , 250-300 loss-of-function
34
What is the 1000 Genome Project?
- To find most of the genetic variants with frequencies of 1% in the population - Major Finding: Different Profiles, Geographic differences , 250-300 loss-of-function
35
What is the major website used in PGx infomation?
- PHARMGKB
36
Who are able to perform a PGx test?
- CLIA certified labs that offer the testing
37
What are some Important factors to be considered when testing?
- Family history, Race & Ethnicity, Vulnerable Population, Consent/assent
38
What is the target for samples during PGx testing?
- DNA - Its easy to collect, avoids contamination, less invasive, standard procedure
39
What is important to know about Peripheral Blood?
- White Blood Cells have the DNA - Need about 2-6ml
40
Are we able to get DNA from red blood cells?
- NO, we can not
41
What is important to know about Cheek Swabs?
- There is a less DNA yield than blood - Possible contamination from food
42
What are the PGx Testing methods?
- Genotyping: DNA Chip [test known variants] - Sequencing: Sanger Sequencing & High-Throughput sequencing [both known and unknown
43
What is a Polymerase Chain Reaction [PCR]?
- The most useful technique for DNA amplification
44
What are some of the substates used in PCR?
- DNA template, dNTPs, Primers [2 short regions], Buffer [pH, Mg2+], Enzymes
45
What is Denaturation in PCR?
- Temperature in increased to separate DNA strands
46
What is Annealing in PCR?
- Temperature is decreased to allow primers to base pair to complementary DNA template
47
What is Extension in PCR?
- Polymerase extends primer to form nascent DNA strand
48
What is the Exponential Amplification of PCR?
- Process is repeated and the region of interest is amplified exponentially
49
What is important point to know about PCR?
- They amplify DNA from both DNA molecules of Homologous chromosomes
50
What does the DNA chip do?
- Detects KNOWN SNPs or targeted SNPs - High Throughput [a lot of results] - Low Cost
51
What is the Chip-based PGx Testing Platform?
- Amplichip CYP450 Array
52
What is used in DNA [Sanger] Sequencing?
- Conventional Sequencing [Sanger]: Low throughput & Targeted Sequencing - Next Generation Sequencing: High Throughput, Parallel Sequencing, & Massive Sequencing
53
What does the Sanger Sequencing do?
- Can detect BOTH KNOWN and UNKNOWN alleles: SNPs, Indel, Small CNV - Low Throughout
54
What is important to know about Next Generation Sequencing [NGS]?
- Can sequnce DNA of Mulitple indiviuals - Higher cost - Very low cost per SNP - Detects ALL KNOWN or UNKNOWN alleles
55
What is sequencing depth and coverage?
- The average number of reads that align to known reference bases - 10x to 30x depth and coverage is recommended - Need multiple oberservation to come to a reliable base call
56
What is the difference between Germline and Somatic?
- Germline: sequence of germ cells that may be passed to a child [exists since the individual was born] - Somatic: Sequence of nongermline cells that is not passed to a child [acquired]
57
What is the interpretation of P Value?
- P>0.1: No significant association - 0.05
58
What is the way that we measure the strength of the P value?
- Odds Ratio: increased risk for a phenotype by carrying a specific genotype/allele compared to the patients without carrying
59
How do we calculated Odds Ratio?
- OR= (odds of phenotype with genotype/allele)/(odds of phenotype without genotype/allele) - OR=1: no association - OR>1: Increased risk [high risk to phenotype] - OR<1: Decreased risk [low risk to phenotype]
60
What is the 95% Confidence Interval?
- CI>1: Significant Risk - CI=1: No Statistical Significance - CI<1: Significant Protective
61
How do we test our hypothesis during experiments?
- Control is key [Positive and Negative Control] - No negative control in human trials - Reliable results NEED a large sample size - Clinical Studies use median and NOT the mean
62
Why do we not use the mean to test a hypothesis?
- The median is FASTER and the patient data is not NORMALLY DISTRIBUTED
63
What is the desirable value for LDL?
- <130 mg/dl [patients with hypercholesterolemia carry the gain-of-function] - 12.1 mmol/L ~ 465 mg/dl?
64
What is the key function of PCSK9?
- Helps regulate LDL-C - A fully human monoclonal antibody against PCSK9 blocks PCSK9/LDL-c interaction [decrease LDL]
65
What does Antisense Oligonucleotide [ASO] do?
- Blocks the mRNA directly to reduce the protein being made from that particular mRNA [no disease causing protein made]
66
Explain mRNA medicine?
- Spike protein is removed from the virus - mRNA sequence is generated - mRNA sequence is coated with lipids - Once injected, the mRNA sequence makes millions of copies of proteins - the protein produces antibodies that protect the body
67
What is monoclonal antibodies and ADC?
- An antibody is a type of protein that very specifically binds to its target and often blocks the function of its target
68
What does Gene Therapy with adeno-associated virus [AAV] do?
- Packages the transgene into AAV vectors - There is a one time infusion - Goes in the liver to enable production of therapeutic proteins
69
What does CRISPR/Cas9 do within the genome?
- A DNA editing technique that will find a segment of DNA, use an enzyme and cut it off, then replace it with a healthy copy
70
What about stem cells?
- Still in early stage
71
What are the first line drugs that are used in the treatment of Pancreatic Cancers?
- Folfirinox, Gemcitabine, Nabpaclitaxel, Cisplatin
72
What are the PD-1 Blockers?
- Perbrolizumab, Nivolumab, Cemiplimab
73
What are the PD-L1 Blockers?
- Atezolizumab, Avelumab, Durvalumab
74
What is Synthetic Lethality?
- A mutation in two genes that results in cell death [BRAC-1 is already mutated] but a mutation in just one of the two genes does not
75
What are the two pathways that KRAS can activate?
- RAF-MEK pathway: Inhibited by Vemurafenib & Trametinib - PI3K pathway: Inhibtied by GDC0941
76
What is important to know about AMG 510?
- First in class KRAS G12c inhibition ONLY
77
What is the drug combo for Melanoma Patients with NRAS mutation
- Ribociclib + Binimetinib