Midterm Exam Flashcards

1
Q

(LSD) Lysergic Acid Diethylamide is a recreation drug of abuse. Which of the following drug regulation category will LSD most likely be classified?
- schedule I
- schedule II
- schedule III
- schedule IV

A
  • schedule I
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2
Q

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is to begin taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for posttraumatic stress disorder. Which of the following statements is appropriate for the nurse to include in the teaching?
- “you will feel happy all the time with this medication”
- “you will have fewer urinary adverse effects if you urinate just before taking this medication”
- “you may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication”
- “this medication should be taken on an empty stomach”

A
  • “you may have a decreased desire for intimacy while taking this medication”
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3
Q

Eliza was conversing with the student nurse how to manage nausea and vomiting associated with one of her prescribed medications. Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention from the student nurse?
- advise patient to continue taking the drug without fail
- advise the patient to seek medical advise immediately
- advise the patient to increase oral fluid intake during nausea and vomiting
- advise the patient to take the drug with food

A
  • advise the patient to take the drug with food
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4
Q

A patient with glaucoma was instructed to be given a miotic drug to decrease intra-ocular pressure. Which of the following pertains to the action of a miotic drug?
- pupil constriction
- eye diuresis
- paralysis of the ciliary muscle
- pupil dilation

A
  • pupil constriction
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5
Q

The patient has been started on an antipsychotic medication for treatment or her schizophrenia. She asks the nurse when she will start to feel better. What is the nurse’s best response?
- “you will only feel better when you start psychotherapy, too
- “responses vary, but it may be about 6 weeks”
- “it may take up to 3 days to start to feel the effects”
- “you should start to feel better within 30-60 minutes”

A
  • “responses vary, but it may be about 6 weeks”
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6
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer Plain Lactated Ringer’s 1500mL to infuse over 10 hours. The drop factor is 15gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many drops per minute?
- 37gtt/min
- 38gtt/min
- 39gtt/min
- 40gtt/min

A
  • 38gtt/min
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7
Q

The physician orders “Ciprofloxacin 250mg TID”. How would the student interpret this order?
- administer the drug three times a day
- administer the drug every tuesday
- administer the drug every three hours
- administer the drug once the patient is proven to be not allergic

A
  • administer the drug three times a day
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8
Q

A pregnant patient contracted a severe urinary infection which the physician ordered a medication under Pregnancy Category D. Which of the following should the student nurse do?
- continue medication administration and refer to physician
- discard the medication and await for future instructions
- continue medication administration and monitoring of the patient
- withhold the medication until confirmation with the prescriber

A
  • withhold the medication until confirmation with the prescriber
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9
Q

A child soon to travel via a boat from Catanduanes to Leyte was prescribed Scopolamine. Which of the following is relieved by this medication?
- mydriasis
- urinary frequency
- motion sickness
- headache

A
  • motion sickness
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10
Q

Chlorpromazine 4mg/kg body weight is ordered for a child weighing 64.8 lbs. The medication is available 500mg/4mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
- 0.5 mL
- 0.9 mL
- 1 mL
- 1.17mL

A
  • 0.9 mL
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11
Q

A nurse receives the result of a patient’s laboratory regarding monitoring of Phenytoin levels in his blood. Which of the following values indicate that the next dose of Phenytoin must be with held?
- 6mg/dL
- 12mg/dL
- 20mg/dL
- 25mg/dL

A
  • 25mg/dL
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12
Q

Which of the following nursing diagnosis be most appropriate for a 60 year old patient who will be driving himself home after administration of benzodiazepam: Diazepam?
- risk for impaired skin integrity related to IV drug administration
- risk for injury related to drug-induced drowsiness
- imbalanced nutrition less than requirements related to decreased appetite
- risk for accident related to medication administration

A
  • risk for injury related to drug-induced drowsiness
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13
Q

The drug, Phenylephrine is prescribed to a patient who most likely have:
- asthma
- COPD
- nasal congestion
- cardiac arrest

A
  • nasal congestion
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14
Q

Which of the following rights of medication does Morpheus utilize when he signs the appropriate form in the chart and writes the time and dosage of the medication administered?
- right route
- right time
- right patient
- right documentation

A
  • right documentation
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15
Q

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescriptions to start buspirone (BuSpar) in place of diazepam (Valium). The client has a history of panic disorder. The client asks why his provider is making the medication change. Which of the following statements is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- “diazepam is not indicated for the treatment of panic disorder.” (incorrect answer) “Diazepam is not indicated for the treatment of panic disorder”
- “buspirone is a safe medication for clients who have liver dysfunction.”
- “buspirone has less risk for dependency than other treatment optionts.”
- None of the above

A
  • “buspirone has less risk for dependency than other treatment optionts.”
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16
Q

A nurse is assessing a male client who recently began taking haloperidol (Haldol). Which of the following findings is the highest priority to report the the provider?
- Shuffling gait
- Neck spasms
- Drowsiness
- Impotence

A
  • Neck spasms
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17
Q

The nurse is computing for the drop rate of the microset. Which of the following drop factors will the nurse utilize?
- 10gtt/min
- 15gtt/min
- 30gtt/min
- 60gtt/min

A
  • 60gtt/min
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18
Q

Which of the following parameters proves that the medication Bethanechol, a direct-acting cholinergic drug, is effective at relieving patient’s symptoms?
- urine output of 80/hr
- pupil constriction
- lowered blood ressure
- (-) headache

A
  • urine output of 80/hr
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19
Q

Celia, a 24 year old patient has difficulty of hearing. Which of the following type of neuron is capable of sending impulses to the central nervous system?
- efferent neuron
- afferent neuron
- somatic neuron
- sympathetic neuron

A
  • afferent neuron
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20
Q

The following are ways to terminate the synaptic transmission EXCEPT:
- enzyme reuptake
- diffusion away from the gap
- enzyme degradation
- nerve terminal reuptake

A
  • enzyme reuptake
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21
Q

A patient after administration of Edrophonium suddenly demonstrated bradycardia, constricted pupils, skin flushing and extreme muscle weakness. Which of the following crisis constitutes these symptoms?
- cholinergic crisis
- myasthenic crisis
- hypertensive crisis
- anaphylactic crisis

A
  • cholinergic crisis
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22
Q

Ringer’s lactate 1000mL is ordered to be given within 12 hours for a hyperthermic patient. The tubing set has a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL. Calculate for the drop rate.
- 20 gtt/min
- 21 gtt/min
- 25 gtt/min
- 30 gtt/min

A
  • 21 gtt/min
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23
Q

Mr. Tox experienced cardiac arrest in the unit and the physician deemed it necessary to place an endoctracheal tube to maintain airway and respiration. Which of the following drugs can be given to assist with the placement of ET?
- pancuronium
- epinephrine
- levodopa
- amantadine

A
  • pancuronium
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24
Q

The physician orders 50 mg of a drug. The available stock is 100 mg per 2 mL. Give how many mL?
- 1mL
- 2mL
- 3mL
- 4mL

A
25
Q

Convert 3 mg to how many mcg?
- 300
- 0.30
- 3000
- 0.03

A
  • 3000
26
Q

Rodrigo woke up to a burning building.Which of the following division of the nervous system will dominate the signals in his body?
- autonomic nervous system
- somatic nervous system
- parasympathetic nervous system
- sympathetic nervous system

A
  • sympathetic nervous system
27
Q

The same patient was described with Prazosin was assessed by the nurse for his pulse rate. Which of the following measurement would the nurse delay the administration of this medication?
- 50 bpm
- 60 bpm
- 100 bpm
- 120 bpm

A
  • 50 bpm
28
Q

Lorazepam is an anxiolytic drug but it can be prescribed for other purposes. For which other conditions might it be prescribed?
- muscle spasms
- psychoses
- emesis
- alcohol withdrawal
- status epilepticus

A
  • muscle spasms
  • alcohol withdrawal
  • status epilepticus
29
Q

Which of the following will be most likely given to a patient with general tonic-clonic seizures?
- atropine sulfate
- levodopa
- lidocaine
- phenytoin

A
  • phenytoin
30
Q

A nurse is teaching a client who has schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of fluphenazine. Which of the following should the nurse suggest to the client to minimize anticholinergic effects?
- take an antacid to relieve nausea
- chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth
- take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia
- use cooling measures to decreases fever

A
  • chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth
31
Q

A child soon to travel via a boat from Catanduanes to Leyte was prescribed Scopolamine. Which of the following is relieved by this medication?
- motion sickness
- urinary frequency
- mydriasis
- hyperacidity

A
  • motion sickness
32
Q

Use Clark’s Rule: The physician prescribes Acyclovir to a 10 year old with measles. Acyclovir has an average adult dose of 500mg. How many mg should be administered to the client?
- 227mg
- 125mg
- 289mg
- 318mg

A
  • 227mg
33
Q

A patient is given Atropine Sulfate, an anti-arrhythmic. Which of the following should the nurse note as a drug that work antagonistically with this medication?
- oxybutynin
- scopolamine
- tropicamide
- bethanecol

A
  • bethanecol
34
Q

A patient is evaluated after administration of a beta-blocker called Atenolol. Lying down on bed the blood pressure was 140/80 but after standing up, the patients blood pressure decreased to 110/80. What should the nurse priority intervention be?
- The nurse supports the patient for ambulation
- Give a glass of water to hydrate the patient
- Let the patient rest at the side of the bed, dangling the feet
- Give the patient vasodilators to increase blood pressure

A
  • Let the patient rest at the side of the bed, dangling the feet
35
Q

A nurse is preparing to administer clindamycin 200mg by intermittent bolus. The amount available is 200mg in 100mL to infuse over 30mins. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
- 200mL/hr
- 20mL/hr
- 2000mL/hr
- 0.2mL/hr

A
  • 200mL/hr
36
Q

A patient was overdosed with Atropine Sulfate. Which of the following medications would the nurse anticiate to negate the effects of the drug?
- phentolamine meslate
- protamine sulfate
- physostigmine
- naloxone

A
  • physostigmine
37
Q

Which of the following medication will be most likely given to a patient with general tonic-clonic seizures?
- atropine sulfate
- levodopa
- lidocaine
- phenytoin

A
  • phenytoin
38
Q

Which of the following is NOT useful in the treatment of hypertension?
- carvedilol
- tamsulosin
- prazosin
- propanolol

A
  • tamsulosin
39
Q

Which of the following drugs can be used to increased dopamine release from the substancia nigra of the brain?
- pancuronium
- epinephrine
- levodopa
- amantadine

A
  • levodopa
40
Q

A patient prescribed with an autonomic agonist was advised not to perform hazardous activities while the healthcare team monitor his response to the therapy. Which of the following activities should the patient avoid?
- getting massage therapy
- walking the dog in the morning
- driving self to work
- having sex

A
  • driving self to work
41
Q

An elderly patient with history of falls is diagnosed with Hypertension II and was prescribed Prazosin to maintain her blood pressure. Which of the following should the nurse watch out for?
- noncompliance
- increase cardiac output
- orthostatic hypotension
- irritability

A
  • orthostatic hypotension
42
Q

The student nurse prepares the room with fresh, clean linens, maintains privacy with appropriate use of drapes and control room temperature before administering a long duration on IV medications. The nurse is guided by which nursing theory?
- core, care, cure theory
- transcultural nursing
- theory of adaptation
- environmental theory

A
  • environmental theory
43
Q

Which of the following foods should be used with extreme caution with MAO-inhibitors?
- wine
- butter
- lettuce
- bread

A
  • wine
44
Q

A patient is evaluated after administration of a beta-blocker called Atenolol. Lying down on bed the blood pressure was 140/80 but after standing up, the patients blood pressure decreased to 110/80. What should the nurse priority intervention be?
- give the patient vasodilators to increase blood pressure
- the nurse supports the client for ambulation
- give a glass of water to hydrate the patient
- let the patient rest at the side of the bed, dangling the feet

A
  • let the patient rest at the side of the bed, dangling the feet
45
Q

A nurse is preparing to perform a follow-up assessment on a client who takes chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for the treatment of schizophrenia. The nurse should expect to find the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations?
- disorganized speech
- hallucinations
- decreased motivation
- impaired social interactions
- bizarre behavior

A
  • disorganized speech
  • hallucinations
  • bizarre behavior
46
Q

The infusion set is adjusted for a drop factor of 15gtt/mL. Calculate the IV drop rate if there is 1500mL of PNSS ordered to be included in 12 hours
- 31gtt/mL
- 31gtt/min
- 35gtt/mL
- 35gtt/min

A
  • 31gtt/min
47
Q

Which of the following medications is used for the diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis?
- bethanecol
- pyridostigmine
- donepezil
- edrophonium

A
  • edrophonium
48
Q

Which of the following can be advised to Mr. Sanchez, who is experiencing hypotension from taking multiple anti-hypertensive medications?
- advise patient to stand abruptly and walk to relieve symptoms
- advise the patient to maintain sitting position for 5 minutes while dangling the legs to maintain equilibrium of body fluids
- advise patient to decrease dosage of drugs when orthostatic hypotension occurs
advise patient to sleep off the effects of the drug

A

advise the patient to maintain sitting position for 5 minutes while dangling the legs to maintain equilibrium of body fluids

49
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters are blocked by Tricylic anti-depressants?
- acetylcholine
- serotonin
- norepinephrine
- dopamine
- GABA

A
  • acetylcholine
  • dopamine
  • GABA
50
Q

To prevent seizures recurrence, the nurse should:
- monitor patient for medication adherence
- admonish patients if they forget to take their medications
- encourage sharing of same pharmacologic class of medications with patients
- stop taking antiseizure drugs when symptoms abate

A
  • monitor patient for medication adherence
51
Q

Norepinephrine is a known catecholamine adrenergic agonist. Which of the following should the nurse watch out for?
- bradycardia
- urinary frequency
- tissue necrosis
- low blood pressure

A
  • tissue necrosis
52
Q

Which of the following drugs is most likely to be given in a patient with status epilepticus?
- bethanecol
- betahistine
- clonazepam
- aspirin

A
  • clonazepam
53
Q

The physician ordered Paracetamol 500mg/tab PRN for fever. How will the student nurse interpret this medication order?
- administer paracetamol immediately to the patient
- administer paracetamol as soon as available
- administer paracetamol when the temperature is above 37.5C
- administer paracetamol when the temperature is above 38.5C

A
  • administer paracetamol when the temperature is above 37.5C
54
Q

An Albuterol inhaler was prescribed as maintenance medication to a patient newly diagnosed with Asthma. Which of the following statements prove that the patient understands the nurse teaching about the medication?
- “I have to wait for 2 hours before taking my next dose”
- “I have to take my breakfast first before taking this medication”
- “I should not take this medication during an asthma attack
- “I should take this medication before my morning exercise to improve my respiration”

A
  • “I should take this medication before my morning exercise to improve my respiration”
55
Q

A patient is given Atropine Sulfate, an anti-arrhythmic. Which of the following should the nurse note as a drug that work antagonistically with this medication?
- Oxybutynin
- Scopolamine
- Tropicamide
- Bethanechol

A
  • Bethanechol
56
Q

The 58 year old patient presents to the emergency department. He is highly agitated and combative. The health care provider has ordered Haloperidol 5mg IM. What should the nurse know about this medication?
- it will not cause extrapyramidal symptoms
- it has a sedative effect
- it is the drug of choice for older clients with liver disease
- it has decrease intra-ocular pressure

A
  • it has a sedative effect
57
Q

A patient is ordered 100mg furosemide as a morning dose. You have at your disposal 20mg and 40mg strength of LasixTM. What would you administer?
- 4x40mg tablets
- 2x40mg tablets
- 5x20mg tablets
- 2x40mg tablets and 1x20mg tablets

A
  • 2x40mg tablets and 1x20mg tablets
58
Q

Which of the following describes the receptors for the Sympathetic Nervous System?
- alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2
- alpha 1, alpha 2, alpha 3, alpha 4
- alpha 1, beta 1, alpha 2, beta 3
- beta 1, beta 2, beta 3, beta 4

A
  • alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2
59
Q

Before injection IM medications, the nurse checks for blood return using the syringe. Which of the following is true?
- upon (+) blood return, the nurse immediately injects the medication
- a maximum of 10 mL can be administered using the IM route
- upon (+) blood return, the nurse withdraws the syringe
- IM medications are absorbed faster than IV meds

A
  • upon (+) blood return, the nurse withdraws the syringe