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SMC 340: Project Management > Midterm Exam > Flashcards

Midterm Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The association designed to bring together project management professionals and systematically capture project management knowledge is called:
A. The Knowledge Association
B. Project Management Professionals Association
C. Project Management Institute
D. Project Managers Institute
E. PM Knowledge Organization

A

C. Project Management Institute

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2
Q 
A planned undertaking of related activities to reach an objective that has a beginning and an 
end is called:
A. An undertaking
B. A project 
C. A program
D. A portfolio
E. A campaign
A

B. A project

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3
Q 
Projects are:
A. Temporary 
B. Typically ongoing
C. Never successful
D. To be avoided
E. Indefinite
A

A. Temporary

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4
Q 
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a person who has an interest in a new or existing project.
A. Stakeholder 
B. customer
C. project sponsor
D. project management professional
E. project manager
A

A. Stakeholder

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5
Q 
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ provides high level support for a project.
A. stakeholder
B. customer
C. project sponsor 
D. project management professional
E. project manager
A

C. project sponsor

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6
Q 
The project sponsor has the responsibility of making sure that the project is given the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ for its successful completion.
A. organizational structure
B. technical skills
C. managerial oversight
D. resources necessary 
E. political support
A

D. resources necessary

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7
Q 
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is responsible for initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing down 
a project.
A. stakeholder
B. customer
C. project sponsor
D. project management professional
E. project manager
A

E. project manager

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8
Q 
Information systems projects are undertaken to take advantage of business opportunities and to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. improve business processes
B. solve business problems 
C. attain business objectives
D. automate business processes
E. reduce personnel
A

B. solve business problems

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9
Q 
Analyzing the scope of a project and determining the probability of success is called:
A. Scope determination.
B. Success analysis.
C. Feasibility study. 
D. Project audit.
E. Scope-success study.
A

C. Feasibility study.

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10
Q

What is NOT unique about IT projects:
A. The technological context is in constant flux.
B. Extensive amounts of user involvement need to be managed.
C. The solutions being attempted may never have been done before.
D. A variety of different stakeholders has to be managed.
E. Unclear requirements are commonplace

A

D. A variety of different stakeholders has to be managed.

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11
Q 
The process used for executing the project management plan is called:
A. Project management methodology 
B. Project life cycle
C. PRINCE2
D. PMBOK
E. SDLC
A

A. Project management methodology

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12
Q 
The phases a project goes through from concept to completion are referred to as:
A. Project management methodology
B. Project life cycle 
C. PRINCE2
D. PMBOK
E. SDLC
A

B. Project life cycle

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13
Q 
A repository on the key project management knowledge areas is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Project management methodology
B. Project life cycle
C. PRINCE2
D. PMBOK 
E. SDLC
A

D. PMBOK

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14
Q 
Project management process groups include all EXCEPT:
A. initiating.
B. executing.
C. planning.
D. monitoring.
E. abandoning.
A

E. abandoning.

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15
Q 
There are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ major project management process groups.
A. three
B. four
C. five 
D. six
E. seven
A

D. six

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16
Q 
The phases a project goes through from concept to completion are called:
A. project life cycle. 
B. systems development life cycle.
C. rapid application development.
D. agile life cycle
E. predictive life cycle.
A

A. project life cycle.

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17
Q 
Which activity is NOT part of the planning process?
A. Scope planning.
B. Time planning.
C. Risk planning.
D. Cost planning 
E. Closedown planning.
A

E. Closedown planning.

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18
Q 
A bar chart showing the start and end dates for the activities of a project is called:
A. Gantt chart. 
B. Network diagram.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Project break down structure
E. Project activity chart.
A

A. Gantt chart.

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19
Q 
A schematic display that illustrates the various tasks in a project, as well as their sequential relationship is called:
A. Gantt chart.
B. Network diagram. 
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Project breakdown structure
E. Predecessor-successor diagram.
A

B. Network diagram.

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20
Q 
Processes in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ process group are concerned with authorizing the continuation of an existing project or the start of a new project.
A. Initiating 
B. planning
C. executing
D. monitoring and controlling 
E. closing
A

A. Initiating

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21
Q 
Processes in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ process group are concerned with planning scope, time, cost, and risk.
A. initiating
B. planning 
C. executing
D. monitoring and controlling 
E. closing
A

B. planning

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22
Q 
Processes in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ process group are concerned with completing the actual project deliverables.
A. initiating
B. planning
C. executing 
D. monitoring and controlling 
E. closing
A

C. executing

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23
Q 
Processes in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ process group are concerned with measuring performance and progress and comparing these against planned performance and progress.
A. initiating
B. planning
C. executing
D. monitoring and controlling  
E. closing
A

D. monitoring and controlling

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24
Q 
Processes in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ process group are concerned with finalizing all paperwork and having all responsible parties sign off on the phase or project.
A. initiating
B. planning
C. executing
D. monitoring and controlling 
E. closing
A

E. closing

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25
Q 
The Project Management Body of Knowledge (6th ed.) contains \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ core 
areas.
A. five
B. eight
C. nine
D. ten 
E. twelve
A

A. five

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26
Q 
The project management core area including develop project management plan, direct and manage project work, and perform integrated change control is called:
A. project integration management. 
B. project scope management.
C. project schedule management.
D. project cost management.
E. project quality management.
A

A. project integration management.

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27
Q 
The project management core area including plan scope management, define scope, and control scope is called:
A. project integration management.
B. project scope management. 
C. project schedule management.
D. project cost management.
E. project quality management.
A

B. project scope management.

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28
Q 
The project management core area including plan schedule management, define activities, and sequence activities is called:
A. project integration management.
B. project scope management.
C. project schedule management. 
D. project cost management.
E. project quality management.
A

C. project schedule management.

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29
Q 
The project management core area including estimate costs, determine budget, and control costs is called:
A. project integration management.
B. project risk management.
C. project scope management.
D. project cost management. 
E. project quality management.
A

D. project cost management.

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30
Q 
The project management core area including plan quality management, manage quality, and control quality is called:
A. project integration management.
B. project risk management.
C. project scope management.
D. project cost management.
E. project quality management.
A

E. project quality management.

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31
Q 
The project management core area including acquire resources, develop team, and manage team is called:
A. project resource management. 
B. project communications management.
C. project risk management.
D. project procurement management.
E. project stakeholder management.
A

A. project resource management.

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32
Q 
The project management core area including plan communications management, manage communications, and monitor communications is called:
A. project resource management.
B. project communications management. 
C. project risk management.
D. project procurement management.
E. project stakeholder management
A

B. project communications management.

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33
Q 
The project management core area including plan risk management, identify risks, and implement risk responses is called:
A. project resource management.
B. project communications management.
C. project risk management. 
D. project procurement management.
E. project stakeholder management
A

C. project risk management.

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34
Q 
The project management core area including plan procurement management, conduct procurements, and control procurements is called:
A. project resource management.
B. project communications management.
C. project risk management.
D. project procurement management. 
E. project stakeholder management.
A

D. project procurement management.

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35
Q 
The project management core area including identify stakeholders, plan stakeholder engagement, and monitor stakeholder engagement is called:
A. project resource management.
B. project communications management.
C. project risk management.
D. project procurement management.
E. project stakeholder management.
A

E. project stakeholder management.

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36
Q

Project success is the degree to which project objectives have been achieved:
A. within budget, on time, and with the agreed upon quality.
B. on time, within budget, and with the agreed upon scope.
C. with the agreed upon quality and scope and on time.
D. on time, within budget, and with the agreed upon quality and scope.
E. within budget, and with the agreed upon quality and scope.

A

D. on time, within budget, and with the agreed upon quality and scope.

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37
Q 
Which factor is not among the primary reasons for project failure?
A. Lack of user involvement
B. Lack of resources
C. Complete requirements 
D. Unrealistic expectations 
E. Lack of executive support
A

C. Complete requirements

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38
Q

Failure can take place _________ of a project.
A. in processes in the initiating process group
B. in processes in the planning process group
C. in processes in the execution process group
D. in processes in the closing process group
E. in processes in the any process group

A

E. in processes in the any process group

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39
Q

Authorizing the continuation of a non-viable project is a potential cause for failure happening in the:
A. initiating process group.
B. planning process group.
C. executing process group.
D. monitoring and controlling process group.

A

A. initiating process group.

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40
Q

Failure to correctly estimate costs, time, or complexity of a project usually happens in the:
A. initiating process group.
B. planning process group.
C. executing process group.
D. monitoring and controlling process group.
E. closing process group.

A

B. planning process group.

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41
Q

Errors made when estimating the expected or actual performance of the project, resulting in an inaccurate picture of the project status, happen in the:
A. initiating process group.
B. planning process group.
C. executing process group.
D. monitoring and controlling process group.
E. closing process group.

A

C. executing process group.

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42
Q

Errors made when closing contracts for eternally purchased goods or services happen in the:
A. initiating process group.
B. planning process group.
C. executing process group.
D. monitoring and controlling process group.
E. closing process group.

A

E. closing process group.

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43
Q

The Gantt chart was developed:
A. during the building of the pyramids.
B. in the early 19th century.
C. by a management consultant named Henry Gantt.
D. during the grand American nuclear test track project
E. during the Manhattan project.

A

C. by a management consultant named Henry Gantt.

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44
Q

A method used for determining the sequence of task activities that directly affect the completion of a project is called:
A. critical path method.
B. program evaluation and review technique.
C. activity sequence determination.
D. critical activity method.
E. critical chain method

A

A. critical path method.

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45
Q 
A technique that uses optimistic, pessimistic, and realistic time to calculate the expected time for a particular task is called:
A. critical path method.
B. three-point estimating. 
C. OPR method.
D. weighted averaging
E. expected completion time analysis.
A

B. three-point estimating.

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46
Q 
The phases of managing a project are called:
A. systems development life cycle. 
B. project life cycle.
C. predictive life cycle.
D. agile life cycle.
E. waterfall life cycle.
A

B. project life cycle.

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47
Q

Most project life cycles share the following characteristics:
A. cost and staffing levels are low at the start, higher at the end, and drop rapidly as the project nears an end.
B. cost levels are low at the start, higher at the end, and drop rapidly as the project nears an end, but staffing levels remain constant.
C. staffing levels are low at the start, higher at the end, and drop rapidly as the project nears an end, but costs stay constant.
D. cost and staffing levels are high right from and only drop as the project nears an end.
E. cost and staffing levels are low at the start, higher at the end, and slowly level off as the project nears an end.

A

A. cost and staffing levels are low at the start, higher at the end, and drop rapidly as the

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48
Q 
Projects are divided into smaller parts called:
A. phases. 
B. stages.
C. gates.
D. parts.
E. deliverables.
A

A. phases.

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49
Q 
The review points at the end of each stage are called:
A. phase gates. 
B. end reviews.
C. project termination.
D. exits.
E. point of no return.
A

A. phase gates.

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50
Q 
The four phases of the systems development life cycle include all EXCEPT:
A. planning and selection.
B. analysis
C. design.
D. implementation.
E. bug fixing.
A

E. bug fixing.

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51
Q

The four phases of the systems development (in the correct order) are:
A. planning and selection, analysis, design, implementation.
B. analysis, planning and selection, design, implementation.
C. analysis, implementation, planning and selection, design.
D. planning and selection, design, analysis, implementation.
E. planning and selection, analysis, implementation, design.

A

A. planning and selection, analysis, design, implementation.

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52
Q 
Some systems analysts consider the life cycle to be:
A. a system.
B. a spiral. 
C. a circle
D. a pentagram.
E. an ellipse.
A

B. a spiral.

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53
Q 
The phase of the systems development life cycle where the need for a new system is identified and the scope is determined is called:
A. systems planning. 
B. systems identification.
C. scope determination.
D. scope verification
E. initiation phase.
A

A. systems planning.

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54
Q 
The second phase of the systems development life cycle is called:
A. systems requirements determination.
B. systems analysis. 
C. systems alternative generation.
D. systems identification
E. systems selection.
A

B. systems analysis.

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55
Q 
The second phase of the systems development life cycle encompasses all EXCEPT:
A. Determine requirements.
B. Structure requirements.
C. Generate alternatives.
D. Compare alternatives.
E. Design requirements.
A

E. Design requirements.

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56
Q 
The third phase of the systems development life cycle is called: 
A. logical design.
B. systems design. 
C. physical design.
D. systems testing.
E. systems conversion.
A

B. systems design.

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57
Q 
Specifications which focus on the origin, flow, and processing of data in a system, but are not tied to any specific hardware and systems software platform are called: 
A. logical design. 
B. systems design.
C. physical design.
D. systems testing.
E. systems conversion.
A

A. logical design.

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58
Q 
Structured systems design that can be broken down into smaller and smaller units for conversion into instructions written in a programming language is called: 
A. logical design.
B. systems design.
C. physical design. 
D. systems testing.
E. systems conversion.
A

C. physical design.

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59
Q 
The fourth phase of the systems development life cycle is called:
A. systems conversion.
B. coding.
C. Code generation.
D. systems implementation. 
E. systems installation.
A

D. systems implementation.

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60
Q 
Systems implementation includes all EXCEPT:
A. coding.
B. testing.
C. installation.
D. creating technical documentation
E. maintenance.
A

D. creating technical documentation

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61
Q 
Iterations of the systems development life cycle (after a system has been built) are called:
A. systems operation.
B. maintenance iterations
C. bug fixing.
D. systems maintenance. 
E. systems modification.
A

D. systems maintenance.

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62
Q 
All of the following are examples of enterprise environmental factors, EXCEPT:
A. organizational culture.
B. rules and regulations.
C. organizational structure.
D. project management office 
E. internationalization.
A

E. internationalization.

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63
Q 
What is NOT a common organizational structure?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Weak matrix
D. Strong matrix
E. Departmental
A

E. Departmental

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64
Q 
A functional organizational structure is sometimes thought of as resembling a: 
A. pyramid. 
B. matrix.
C. square.
D. circle.
E. network.
A

A. pyramid.

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65
Q 
The organizational unit created to centralize and coordinate projects within an organization is called:
A. coordination bureau.
B. project management office. 
C. project coordination center.
D. project organization office.
E. project center
A

B. project management office.

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66
Q

Social, economic, and environmental influences include all EXCEPT:
A. standards and regulations.
B. internationalization.
C. culture.
D. social-economic-environmental sustainability
E. enterprise environmental factors.

A

E. enterprise environmental factors.

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67
Q 
A document approved by a recognized body that provides, for common and repeated use, rules, guidelines, or characteristics for products, processes, or services with which compliance is not mandatory is called:
A. regulation.
B. standard. 
C. declaration.
D. agreement.
E. guideline.
A

B. standard.

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68
Q 
A document that specifies product, process, or service characteristics, including the applicable administrative provisions, with which compliance is mandatory is called:
A. regulation. 
B. standard.
C. declaration.
D. agreement.
E. guideline.
A

A. regulation.

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69
Q

What is NOT a characteristic of a Gantt chart?
A. A Gantt chart visually shows the duration of tasks.
B. A Gantt chart shows when a task should begin and when it should end.
C. A Gantt chart shows the time overlap of tasks.
D. A Gantt chart can visually show slack times available.
E. A Gantt chart clearly shows how tasks must be ordered.

A

E. A Gantt chart clearly shows how tasks must be ordered.

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70
Q

What is NOT characteristic of a network diagram?
A. A network diagram visually shows the sequence dependencies between tasks.
B. A network diagram visually shows the duration of tasks.
C. A network diagram shows which tasks can be done in parallel.
D. A network diagram shows how activities can be ordered.
E. A network diagram shows slack time within activity rectangles.

A

B. A network diagram visually shows the duration of tasks.

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71
Q 
Persons, groups of people, pieces of equipment, or materials used in accomplishing an activity are called:
A. resources. 
B. assets.
C. provisions.
D. requirements.
E. supplies.
A

A. resources.

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72
Q 
The shortest time in which a project can be completed is shown by the:
A. shortest path.
B. critical path. 
C. critical chain.
D. longest path.
E. crucial path
A

B. critical path.

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73
Q 
The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project is called:
A. slack time. 
B. free time.
C. delay time.
D. lag time.
E. lead time
A

A. slack time.

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74
Q 
The amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the early start of any immediately following task is called:
A. total slack.
B. free slack. 
C. overall slack.
D. optional slack.
E. mandatory slack.
A

B. free slack.

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75
Q 
The amount of time a task can be delayed without delaying the completion of the project is called:
A. total slack. 
B. free slack.
C. overall slack.
D. optional slack.
E. mandatory slack.
A

A. total slack.

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76
Q 
The technique that uses optimistic, pessimistic, and realistic time to calculate the expected time for a particular task is called:
A. OPR technique.
B. Weighted averaging.
C. Three-point estimating. 
D. Duration averaging.
E. Expected time technique.
A

C. Three-point estimating.

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77
Q 
The PMBOK organizes project management processes into \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ groups.
A. three
B. four
C. five 
D. six
E. seven
A

C. five

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78
Q 
A series of continuous actions that bring about a particular result, end, or condition is called a:
A. program.
B. process. 
C. project.
D. activity sequence.
E. continuum.
A

B. process.

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79
Q 
Develop project charter is part of which process group?
A. Initiating. 
B. Planning.
C. Executing.
D. Controlling.
E. Closing.
A

A. Initiating.

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80
Q 
Define activities is part of which process group?
A. Initiating.
B. Planning. 
C. Executing.
D. Controlling.
E. Closing
A

B. Planning.

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81
Q 
Estimate risks is part of which process group?
A. Initiating.
B. Planning. 
C. Executing.
D. Controlling.
E. Closing.
A

B. Planning.

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82
Q 
Developing project team is part of which process group?
A. Initiating.
B. Planning.
C. Executing. 
D. Controlling.
E. Closing
A

C. Executing.

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83
Q 
Conduct procurement is part of which process group?
A. Initiating.
B. Planning.
C. Executing. 
D. Controlling.
E. Closing.
A

C. Executing.

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84
Q 
Manage communications is part of which process group?
A. Initiating.
B. Planning.
C. Executing. 
D. Controlling.
E. Closing.
A

C. Executing.

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85
Q 
Validate scope is part of which process group?
A. Initiating.
B. Planning.
C. Executing.
D. Controlling. 
E. Closing.
A

D. Controlling.

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86
Q 
Manage project team is part of which process group?
A. Initiating.
B. Planning.
C. Executing. 
D. Controlling.
E. Closing.
A

C. Executing.

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87
Q 
Control quality is part of which process group?
A. Initiating.
B. Planning.
C. Executing.
D. Controlling. 
E. Closing.
A

D. Controlling.

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88
Q 
Close project or phase is part of which process group?
A. Initiating.
B. Planning.
C. Executing.
D. Controlling.
E. Closing.
A

E. Closing.

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89
Q 
What is NOT one of the five stages of project team development?
A. forming
B. storming
C. informing 
D. norming
E. adjourning
A

C. informing

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90
Q 
During \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, team members get to know each other and establish team goals and work assignments.
A. Forming 
B. performing
C. adjourning
D. norming
E. storming
A

A. Forming

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91
Q 
During \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, team members struggle to establish goals, power, and leadership roles.
A. forming
B. performing 
C. adjourning
D. norming
E. storming
A

E. storming

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92
Q 
During \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, teams develop a sense of common purpose and specify normal operating 
procedures.
A. forming
B. performing
C. adjourning
D. norming 
E. storming
A

D. norming

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93
Q 
During \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, actual project work is rapidly undertaken by the team.
A. forming
B. performing 
C. adjourning
D. norming
E. storming
A

B. performing

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94
Q 
During \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, team members wrap up the project’s final activities.
A. forming
B. performing
C. adjourning 
D. norming
E. storming
A

C. adjourning

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95
Q 
Which is NOT among the four types of factors leading to effective teams?
A. work design
B. composition
C. context
D. process
E. conformity
A

E. conformity

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96
Q 
Which factor(s) of work design was NOT listed as being highly motivating for project team member performance?
A. autonomy
B. skill variety
C. task identity
D. significance
E. group think
A

E. group think

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97
Q 
What is NOT among the contextual factors important for achieving high team performance?
A. leadership
B. management 
C. trust
D. performance evaluations
E. rewards
A

B. management

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98
Q 
An individual’s intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal is called:
A. leadership.
B. drive.
C. determination.
D. competitiveness.
E. motivation
A

E. motivation

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99
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to how hard someone tries to attain a goal.
A. Intensity 
B. Persistence
C. Drive
D. Competitiveness
E. Determination
A

A. Intensity

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100
Q

Motivation refers to an individual’s ________ of effort toward attaining a goal.
A. intensity, direction, and persistence
B. determination, direction, and persistence
C. intensity, drive, and competitiveness
D. competitiveness, direction, and persistence
E. competitiveness, direction, and determination

A

A. intensity, direction, and persistence

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101
Q 
Motivation can be used to explain everything EXCEPT:
A. job satisfaction.
B. absenteeism.
C. turnover.
D. work productivity.
E. team cohesion.
A

E. team cohesion.

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102
Q 
The general attitude a person has toward his or her job is called:
A. job satisfaction. 
B. happiness.
C. job attitude.
D. content.
E. emotional well-being.
A

A. job satisfaction.

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103
Q 
The rate at which people voluntarily or involuntarily leave an organization is called:
A. quitting.
B. downsizing.
C. attrition.
D. turnover. 
E. resignation.
A

D. turnover.

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104
Q 
Which of the following theories of motivation is NOT considered a need theory?
A. hierarchy of needs
B. ERG Theory
C. theory X 
D. theory of needs
E. two factor theory
A

C. theory X

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105
Q 
Maslow’s hierarchy of needs includes all EXCEPT:
A. physiological needs.
B. safety needs.
C. psychological needs. 
D. esteem needs.
E. self-actualization.
A

C. psychological needs.

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106
Q 
The lowest level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is called:
A. physiological needs. 
B. safety needs.
C. psychological needs.
D. esteem needs.
E. self-actualization.
A

A. physiological needs.

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107
Q 
The highest level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is called:
A. physiological needs.
B. safety needs.
C. psychological needs.
D. esteem needs.
E. self-actualization.
A

E. self-actualization.

108
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs has the following order (from lowest to highest level needs):
A. physiological, social, safety, esteem, self-actualization.
B. physiological, safety, social, esteem, self-actualization.
C. physiological, safety, social, self-actualization, esteem.
D. physiological, safety, esteem, social, self-actualization.
E. physiological, social, esteem, safety, self-actualization.

A

B. physiological, safety, social, esteem, self-actualization.

109
Q 
The first core need according to ERG theory is:
A. existence.
B. esteem. 
C. eminence.
D. evaluation.
E. equity.
A

A. existence.

110
Q

According to ERG theory, existence focuses on:
A. satisfying our basic material needs.
B. maintaining interpersonal relationships.
C. personal development.
D. physical and mental wellbeing.
E. emotional wellbeing.

A

A. satisfying our basic material needs.

111
Q

According to ERG theory, relatedness focuses on:
A. relating existence to growth needs.
B. maintaining interpersonal relationships.
C. the relationship between higher- and lower-level needs.
D. the relationship between performance and rewards.
E. the relationship between effort and performance appraisal.

A

B. maintaining interpersonal relationships.

112
Q 
According to ERG theory, growth focuses on:
A. personal development. 
B. job enrichment.
C. higher performance appraisals.
D. increasing motivation.
E. higher-level needs.
A

A. personal development.

113
Q 
According to the two-factor theory, all of the following are considered motivational factors EXCEPT:
A. achievement.
B. recognition.
C. responsibility.
D. variety. 
E. relatedness.
A

D. variety.

114
Q 
According to the two factor theory, all of the following are considered hygiene factors EXCEPT:
A. salary.
B. work conditions.
C. responsibility. 
D. company policies
E. relationships with colleagues.
A

C. responsibility.

115
Q 
Another term for two-factor theory is:
A. motivational-hygiene theory. 
B. expectation-disconfirmation theory.
C. intrinsic-extrinsic theory.
D. existence-growth theory.
E. Herzberg Job satisfaction theory.
A

A. motivational-hygiene theory.

116
Q

According to the two-factor theory,
A. the factors leading to job satisfaction are distinct from the factors leading to dissatisfaction.
B. there are two specific factors that determine one’s satisfaction.
C. there are two specific factors that determine one’s dissatisfaction.
D. hygiene factors contribute to job satisfaction.
E. if extrinsic factors are adequate, people will be satisfied.

A

A. the factors leading to job satisfaction are distinct from the factors leading to dissatisfaction

117
Q

The three factors of McClelland’s theory of needs are:
A. achievement, growth, and affiliation.
B. existence, power, and self-actualization.
C. achievement, power, and self-actualization.
D. safety, growth, and affiliation.
E. achievement, power, and affiliation.

A

E. achievement, power, and affiliation.

118
Q 
Of all need theories, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ has been found to best predict work productivity.
A. ERG theory.
B. two-factor theory.
C. equity theory.
D. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
E. McClellan’s theory of needs.
A

E. McClellan’s theory of needs.

119
Q

According to McClelland’s theory of needs, good mangers have:
A. a high need for power and a low need for affiliation.
B. a high need for power and a medium need for affiliation.
C. a high need for power and a high need for affiliation.
D. a low need for power and a high need for affiliation.
E. a low need for power and a low need for affiliation.

A

A. a high need for power and a low need for affiliation.

120
Q 
All of the following are process theories of motivation EXCEPT:
A. Theory X.
B. equity theory.
C. expectancy theory.
D. reinforcement theory.
E. ERG theory.
A

E. ERG theory.

121
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ assumes that people dislike work and are lazy.
A. Theory W
B. Theory X 
C. X-Y theory
D. Theory Y
E. Theory Z
A

B. Theory X

122
Q

Theory X assumes that:
A. people dislike work, are lazy, and dislike responsibility.
B. people like work but tend not to seek responsibility.
C. people dislike work and are lazy but do like autonomy.
D. people like work, are creative, and seek responsibility.
E. people like work, are creative, but dislike responsibility.

A

A. people dislike work, are lazy, and dislike responsibility.

123
Q

According to goal-setting theory, to enhance a person’s work productivity:
A. goals should be specific and difficult with clear feedback.
B. goals should be specific but not difficult.
C. telling people to do their best is usually superior to specifying goals.
D. goals should always be higher than what can be achieved.
E. goals should never be higher than what can be achieved.

A

A. goals should be specific and difficult with clear feedback.

124
Q 
The motivation theory that argues that both positive and negative feedback conditions behavior is called:
A. equity theory.
B. conditioning theory.
C. reinforcement theory. 
D. two-factor theory.
E. expectancy theory.
A

C. reinforcement theory.

125
Q

Equity theory is:
A. very powerful in predicting overall motivation.
B. most powerful in predicting absenteeism and turnover, not levels of work productivity.
C. most powerful in predicting work productivity, not levels of absenteeism and turnover.
D. most powerful in predicting work productivity, absenteeism and turnover.
E. not supported by research.

A

B. most powerful in predicting absenteeism and turnover, not levels of work productivity.

126
Q

According to expectancy theory, people will be motivated to exert a high level of effort when they believe that:
A. effort will lead to a good performance appraisal, a good performance appraisal will lead to rewards, and the rewards will satisfy their needs.
B. a good performance appraisal will lead to rewards, and the rewards will satisfy their needs.
C. effort will lead to a good performance appraisal, and a good performance appraisal will lead to rewards.
D. effort will lead to a good performance appraisal, and rewards will satisfy their needs.
E. effort will lead to a good performance appraisal.

A

A. effort will lead to a good performance appraisal, a good performance appraisal will lead

127
Q

Research on trait theories of leadership has found the following as attributes of successful leaders:
A. intelligence and competency in task and organizational activities, maturity and a broad range of interests, and a goal-oriented focus.
B. intelligence and competency in task and organizational activities, the ability to manage people, and a goal-oriented focus.
C. intelligence and competency in task and organizational activities, a goal-oriented focus, and flexibility.
D. intelligence and competency in task and organizational activities, a goal-oriented focus, and relational power.
E. legitimate power, reward power, and information power.

A

A. intelligence and competency in task and organizational activities, maturity and a broad

128
Q

Trait theory of leadership has been shown to be useful for:
A. leadership effectiveness development.
B. identifying how people can become better leaders.
C. identifying how people can become better managers.
D. identifying characteristics of leaders.
E. identifying characteristics of managers.

A

D. identifying characteristics of leaders.

129
Q 
Theories that believe that a person’s actions determine his or her potential to be a successful leader are called:
A. trait theories.
B. behavioral theories. 
C. contingency theories.
D. leadership theories.
E. success theories.
A

B. behavioral theories.

130
Q 
All of the following are types of positional power EXCEPT:
A. legitimate power.
B. reward power.
C. referent power. 
D. coercive power.
E. information power.
A

C. referent power.

131
Q 
Which of the following is (are) a type of personal power?
A. ecological power.
B. reward power.
C. charismatic power. 
D. legitimate power.
E. information power.
A

C. charismatic power.

132
Q 
Conflict that supports the goals of a team and improves its performance is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ conflict.
A. healing
B. supporting
C. functional 
D. positive
E. useful
A

C. functional

133
Q 
Conflict that hinders group performance and is destructive to team performance is called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ conflict.
A. Dysfunctional 
B. destructive
C. detrimental
D. negative
E. damaging
A

A. Dysfunctional

134
Q 
Relationship conflicts:
A. will always hinder team performance. 
B. will impact team cohesion, but not performance.
C. are sometimes good.
D. do not affect team performance.
E. are better than functional conflict.
A

A. will always hinder team performance.

135
Q 
To achieve a desired level of team conflict, project managers use a set of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ techniques.
A. conflict resolution
B. conflict avoidance
C. conflict management 
D. conflict escalation
E. conflict stimulation
A

C. conflict management

136
Q 
Which technique is NOT among the widely used conflict resolution techniques?
A. problem solving
B. appointing a devil’s advocate 
C. smoothing
D. compromise
E. avoidance
A

B. appointing a devil’s advocate

137
Q 
Which of the following is a technique for stimulating conflict?
A. problem solving
B. resource limitations
C. authoritative command
D. avoidance
E. appointing a devil’s advocate
A

E. appointing a devil’s advocate

138
Q 
What is NOT a factor contributing to increased outsourcing?
A. to reduce or control costs
B. to reduce time to market
C. to increase revenue potential
D. to free up internal resources
E. to support foreign economies
A

E. to support foreign economies

139
Q

The four broad categories of challenges for managing global information systems project
teams are:
A. technology-related, time zone, skill, and ecological challenges.
B. technology-related, cultural, human-resource, and environmental challenges.
C. technology-related, ecological, skill, and labor challenges.
D. education, skill, time zone, and labor challenges.
E. language, ecological, cultural, and time zone challenges.

A

B. technology-related, cultural, human-resource, and environmental challenges.

140
Q 
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ orientation reflects a more competitive culture that values achievement and the acquisition of material goods.
A. long-term
B. short-term
C. individualistic
D. quantity of life 
E. quality of life
A

B. short-term

141
Q 
A \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of life orientation values relationships, interdependence, and concern for others.
A. long-term
B. short-term
C. collectivistic
D. quality of life 
E. quantity of life
A

A. long-term

142
Q 
Which of the following is NOT part of the four key project stakeholder management processes?
A. Identify Stakeholders
B. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
C. Manage Stakeholder Communication 
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
E. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
A

C. Manage Stakeholder Communication

143
Q 
A salience model classifies stakeholders based on:
A. power, legitimacy, and urgency. 
B. interest, legitimacy, and urgency
C. power, engagement, and urgency
D. power, interest, and engagement
E. legitimacy, engagement, and urgency.
A

A. power, legitimacy, and urgency.

144
Q

A communication management plan should include:
A. how project information is stored and retrieved.
B. how project information is stored, retrieved, and discarded at the end of the project.
C. how project information is stored, retrieved, and disseminated to stakeholders.
D. how project information is communicated to stakeholders.
E. how project information is accessed and safeguarded.

A

B. how project information is stored, retrieved, and discarded at the end of the project.

145
Q 
What communication medium will be preferred for each stakeholder or stakeholder group should be addressed in the process:
A. Distribute Information
B. Plan Communications Management 
C. Plan Communication.
D. Plan Stakeholder Engagement.
E. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
A

B. Plan Communications Management

146
Q 
Effective communication is:
A. only done for the higher echelons.
B. not needed.
C. fundamental for project success. 
D. detailed and time consuming.
E. natural for most people.
A

C. fundamental for project success.

147
Q 
Manage Communication is the execution of the project communications management plan and includes the response to any \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ requests by stakeholders.
A. ad hoc 
B. scheduled
C. exceptional
D. formal
E. planned
A

A. ad hoc

148
Q 
Memos, reports, and letters are examples of:
A. hardcopy communication.
B. written communication. 
C. verbal communication.
D. printed communication.
E. formal communication
A

B. written communication.

149
Q

Oral communication:
A. is less formal than written communication.
B. is more formal than written communication.
C. is more frequent than written communication.
D. Is less formal than horizontal communication.
E. is less formal than vertical communication.

A

A. is less formal than written communication.

150
Q

In nonverbal communication, information is conveyed by:
A. Posture, personal space, and body language.
B. Body language.
C. Posture and body language.
D. Posture and personal space.
E. Posture, personal space, and language.

A

B. Body language.

151
Q 
For which of the following is oral communication least effective?
A. reprimanding a team member
B. immediate action required
C. general overview
D. settling a dispute
E. awareness campaign
A

E. awareness campaign

152
Q 
For which of the following is written communication most effective?
A. Future action required  
B. Awareness campaign
C. Commendation for quality work
D. Reprimand a team member
E. Settle a dispute
A

A. Future action required

153
Q 
Routine methods for communication within organizations are called:
A. vertical communication.
B. written communication.
C. formal communication. 
D. routine communication.
E. horizontal communication
A

C. formal communication.

154
Q 
Within-team communication is typically viewed as:
A. formal communication.
B. horizontal communication. 
C. vertical communication.
D. routine communication.
E. ad-hoc communication
F. project communication.
A

B. horizontal communication.

155
Q 
Performance reports focusing on what the team has accomplished are called:
A. status reports.
B. progress reports. 
C. forecasting reports.
D. ad-hoc reports
E. performance reports.
A

B. progress reports.

156
Q 
Performance reports focusing on current information about the project are called:
A. status reports. 
B. progress reports.
C. forecasting reports.
D. ad-hoc reports
E. performance reports.
A

A. status reports.

157
Q 
Performance reports focusing on future project status and progress are called:
A. status reports.
B. progress reports.
C. forecasting reports. 
D. ad-hoc reports
E. performance reports.
A

C. forecasting reports.

158
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to ineffective meetings?
A. no agenda
B. wrong people in attendance
C. lack of control
D. Lack of adequate preparation
E. political pressures and open agendas
A

E. political pressures and open agendas

159
Q

Which of the following is an activity to be performed during a meeting?
A. set the ground rules for discussion
B. define the meeting purpose
C. circulate finalized minutes
D. review and professionally prepare the minutes
E. assign action items to participants

A

E. assign action items to participants

160
Q

Which of the following is an activity to be performed after a meeting?
A. set the ground rules for discussion
B. define the meeting purpose
C. have someone assigned to record the meeting minutes
D. review and professionally prepare the minutes
E. assign action items to participants

A

D. review and professionally prepare the minutes

161
Q

Which of the following is an activity to be performed before a meeting?
A. set the ground rules for discussion
B. gather information from all participants using good listening skills
C. have someone assigned to record the meeting minutes
D. review and professionally prepare the minutes
E. assign action items to participants

A

A. set the ground rules for discussion

162
Q 
Which of the following is NOT among the guidelines for making effective presentations?
A. be consistent
B. use bells and whistles 
C. use variety
D. focus on the message
E. keep it simple
A

B. use bells and whistles

163
Q 
Which of the following is NOT among the guidelines for being a better listener?
A. listen without evaluating
B. anticipate what will be said 
C. take notes
D. review
E. listen for themes
A

B. anticipate what will be said

164
Q 
Listening consists of all BUT:
A. hearing.
B. understanding.
C. remembering.
D. reciting. 
E. acting.
A

D. reciting.

165
Q 
Peer group reviews of any product created during the systems development process are called:
A. ad-hoc meetings.
B. review meetings.
C. progress meetings.
D. walkthroughs. 
E. status meetings.
A

D. walkthroughs.

166
Q 
All of the following are roles during a walkthrough presentation EXCEPT:
A. coordinator.
B. presenter.
C. secretary.
D. standards bearer.
E. standards oracle.
A

E. standards oracle.

167
Q 
The conservative approach of reviewing each major project activity with continuation contingent on successful completion of the prior phase is called:
A. incremental commitment. 
B. rolling wave planning.
C. incremental planning.
D. cone of uncertainty.
E. walkthrough review.
A

A. incremental commitment.

168
Q 
Which of the following communication methods provides the least structure?
A. face-to-face
B. instant messenger 
C. email
D. telephone
E. written mail
A

B. instant messenger

169
Q 
Which of the following is considered an asynchronous communication method?
A. video conference
B. instant messenger
C. electronic mail 
D. face-to-face
E. telephone
A

C. electronic mail

170
Q 
Which of the following communication methods has the lowest richness?
A. written mail 
B. electronic mail
C. telephone
D. instant messenger
E. synchronous groupware
A

A. written mail

171
Q

When using synchronous communication, all parties involved are present:
A. at the same time and the same place.
B. at the same time but not necessarily at the same place.
C. at different times and different places.
D. at different times at the same place.
E. in a face-to-face setting.

A

B. at the same time but not necessarily at the same place.

172
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ environments support the exchange of verbal and nonverbal cues, rapid feedback, and are highly personal.
A. Lean
B. Rich 
C. Broad
D. Communication 
E. Structured
A

B. Rich

173
Q

You need a richer environment when your communication is:
A. Simple, easy to accept, and routine.
B. Simple, easy to accept, but non-routine.
C. Simple, but difficult to accept and non-routine.
D. Complex, difficult to accept, and non-routine.
E. Complex and difficult to accept, but routine.

A

D. Complex, difficult to accept, and non-routine.

174
Q 
A live meeting in an electronic meeting facility is an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ group interaction.
A. same time, same place 
B. same time, different place
C. different time, different place
D. different time, same place
E. rich and interactive
A

A. same time, same place

175
Q 
An electronic meeting facility as the home base is an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ group 
interaction.
A. same time, same place
B. same time, different place
C. different time, different place
D. different time, same place 
E. rich and interactive
A

D. different time, same place

176
Q 
A synchronous distributed meeting is an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ group interaction.
A. same time, same place
B. same time, different place 
C. different time, different place
D. different time, same place
E. rich and interactive
A

B. same time, different place

177
Q 
A virtual team is an example of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ group interaction.
A. same time, same place
B. same time, different place
C. different time, different place   
D. different time, same place
E. rich and interactive
A

C. different time, different place

178
Q 
All of the following are benefits of groupware EXCEPT:
A. process structuring.
B. parallelism.
C. group memory.
D. anonymity.
E. group processing.
A

E. group processing.

179
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ enables many people to speak and listen at the same time.
A. Process structuring
B. Parallelism 
C. Group memory
D. Anonymity
E. Group processing
A

B. Parallelism

180
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ keeps teams on track and helps them avoid costly diversions.
A. Process structuring 
B. Parallelism
C. Group memory
D. Anonymity
E. Group processing
A

A. Process structuring

181
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ can make it easier to discuss controversial or sensitive topics.
A. Process structuring
B. Parallelism
C. Group memory
D. Anonymity 
E. Group processing
A

D. Anonymity

182
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the project identification and selection process?
A. identifying information systems development projects
B. classifying and ranking information systems development projects
C. selecting information systems projects
D. comparing alternative projects
E. establishing the scope baseline

A

E. establishing the scope baseline

183
Q

Information systems development projects identified by the user department have a:
A. greater strategic focus.
B. narrow, non-strategic focus.
C. broad operational focus.
D. integration with existing systems focus.
E. cross-functional focus.

A

B. narrow, non-strategic focus.

184
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ focuses on integration with existing systems when identifying information systems development projects.
A. top management
B. steering committee
C. user department
D. development group 
E. project manager
A

D. development group

185
Q 
The ongoing process that defines the mission, objectives, and strategies of an organization is called:
A. corporate strategic planning. 
B. information systems planning.
C. business planning.
D. strategizing.
E. business/IT alignment
A

A. corporate strategic planning.

186
Q

Corporate strategic planning is an ongoing process to define:
A. the information needs and databases of an organization.
B. the mission, objectives, and strategies of an organization.
C. the information systems strategy of an organization.
D. the data retention strategy of an organization.
E. the strategies of an organization

A

B. the mission, objectives, and strategies of an organization.

187
Q 
A statement that defines a company’s purpose is called:
A. vision statement.
B. mission statement.  
C. company strategy.
D. objective statement.
E. strategic statement.
A

B. mission statement.

188
Q 
A statement that expresses an organization’s qualitative or quantitative goals for reaching a desired future state is called:
A. mission statement.
B. goal statement.
C. company strategy.
D. organization statement. 
E. objective statement.
A

E. objective statement.

189
Q 
Which of the following is one of Porter’s generic strategies?
A. value producer
B. product differentiation 
C. product imitation
D. niche focus
A

B. product differentiation

190
Q 
The method by which an organization attempts to achieve its mission and objectives is 
called:
A. competitive strategy. 
B. competitive mission.
C. competitive objective.
D. organizational objective.
E. organizational mission.
A

A. competitive strategy.

191
Q 
Information systems planning is an orderly means of assessing the information needs of a company and defining the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ that will best satisfy those needs.
A. reports
B. infrastructure
C. systems, databases, and technologies 
D. hardware requirements
E. cloud systems
A

C. systems, databases, and technologies

192
Q 
Information systems planning is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_-step process
A. two
B. three 
C. four
D. five
E. six
A

B. three

193
Q

A form used in most organizations to request new development, to report problems, or to
request new features within an existing system is called a:
A. System service request (SSR)
B. System modification request (SMR)
C. Software service request (SSR)
D. Software modification request (SMR)
E. User request (UR)

A

A. System service request (SSR)

194
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the top-down planning approach?
A. broader perspective
B. improved integration
C. improved management support
D. improved user support 
E. better understanding
A

D. improved user support

195
Q

Bottom-up planning:
A. Is conducted by line managers
B. is typically slower than using the top-down approach
C. is typically more costly than using the top-down approach
D. considers the information needs of the entire organization
E. often fails to view the information needs of the entire organization

A

D. considers the information needs of the entire organization

196
Q 
The classification criterion assessing the extent to which a project is viewed as improving profits is called:
A. strategic alignment.
B. potential benefits. 
C. business/IT alignment.
D. profit potential.
E. cash flow.
A

B. potential benefits.

197
Q 
The classification criterion assessing the extent to which activities add value and costs when developing products and/or services is called:
A. strategic alignment.
B. cost/benefit analysis.
C. return on investment.
D. value chain analysis. 
E. internal rate of return.
A

D. value chain analysis.

198
Q 
When identifying the financial benefits and costs associated with an information systems development project, organizations are said to assess the:
A. operational feasibility.
B. project benefits.
C. economic feasibility. 
D. economic benefits.
E. profit potential.
A

C. economic feasibility.

199
Q 
The justification that presents the economic, technical, operational, schedule, legal and contractual, and political factors influencing a proposed information systems project is called:
A. business rationale.
B. business case. 
C. law case.
D. feasibility assessment.
E. project benefit matrix.
A

B. business case.

200
Q 
Cost reduction and avoidance is an example of:
A. tangible costs.
B. intangible costs.
C. tangible benefits. 
D. intangible benefits.
E. benefits.
A

C. tangible benefits.

201
Q 
Competitive necessity is an example of:
A. tangible costs.
B. intangible costs.
C. tangible benefits.
D. intangible benefits. 
E. economic feasibility.
A

D. intangible benefits.

202
Q 
Hardware cost is an example of:
A. tangible costs. 
B. intangible costs.
C. one-time costs.
D. recurring costs.
E. total cost of ownership.
A

A. tangible costs.

203
Q 
Operational inefficiency is an example of:
A. tangible costs.
B. intangible costs. 
C. tangible benefits.
D. intangible benefits.
E. recurring cost.
A

B. intangible costs.

204
Q 
Training users in application use is an example of:
A. procurement costs.
B. recurring costs.
C. startup costs.
D. operating costs.
E. tangible costs.
A

E. tangible costs.

205
Q 
Equipment installation cost is an example of:
A. procurement costs. 
B. project-related costs.
C. startup costs.
D. operating costs.
E. total cost of ownership.
A

A. procurement costs.

206
Q 
Hiring cost is an example of:
A. procurement costs.
B. project-related costs.
C. startup costs. 
D. recurring costs.
E. operating costs.
A

C. startup costs.

207
Q 
Rental of space and equipment is an example of:
A. procurement costs.
B. project-related costs.
C. startup costs.
D. operating costs. 
E. one-time costs
A

D. operating costs.

208
Q 
Costs associated with start-up and development or system startup are referred to as:
A. one-time costs. 
B. recurring costs.
C. Project costs.
D. set-up costs.
E. development costs.
A

A. one-time costs.

209
Q 
Costs associated with ongoing evolution and use of a system are referred to as:
A. one-time costs.
B. recurring costs. 
C. follow-up costs.
D. upgrading costs.
E. on-going costs.
A

B. recurring costs.

210
Q 
The type of cost-benefit analysis used to identify at what point benefits equal costs is called:
A. cost-benefit analysis.
B. equilibrium analysis.
C. breakeven analysis. 
D. equilibrium determination. 
E. economic feasibility assessment.
A

C. breakeven analysis.

211
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the development organization’s ability to construct a proposed system.
A. Operational feasibility
B. Development feasibility
C. Project feasibility
D. Technical feasibility 
E. Political feasibility
A

D. Technical feasibility

212
Q

What is NOT true about technical risks of information systems development projects?
A. Large projects are riskier than small projects.
B. Systems with flexible requirements are less risky than projects with highly structured requirements.
C. Projects with structured and easily obtainable requirements are less risky than projects in which requirements are messy, ill-structured, ill-defined, or subject to the judgment of an individual.
D. The development of systems using standard methodologies is less risky than the development of systems using novel technology.
E. A project is less risky if the user group is familiar with the systems development process than when the user group is unfamiliar with the process.

A

B. Systems with flexible requirements are less risky than projects with highly structured

213
Q

When considering technical risk of projects, organizations should:
A. have only low-risk projects.
B. have only high-risk projects
C. have a balanced portfolio of high-and low-risk projects.
D. avoid technical risk.
E. hire experienced staff to address technical risk.

A

C. have a balanced portfolio of high-and low-risk projects.

214
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the degree to which a proposed system solves business problems or takes advantage of business opportunities.
A. Business feasibility.
B. Political feasibility
C. Problem-solving ability.
D. Business opportunity.
E. Operational feasibility.
A

E. Operational feasibility.

215
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the degree to which the potential time frame and completion dates for all major activities within a project meet organizational deadlines and constraints.
A. Manageability
B. Feasibility
C. Time-to-complete
D. Schedule feasibility 
E. Deadline feasibility
A

D. Schedule feasibility

216
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the degree to which key stakeholders within the organization can affect project success.
A. Stakeholder feasibility
B. Political feasibility 
C. Legal feasibility
D. Feasibility 
E. Development feasibility
A

B. Political feasibility

217
Q 
The process of analyzing an organization’s activities to determine where value is added to products and/or services and the costs incurred for doing so is called:
A. organizational feasibility.
B. economic feasibility.
C. value chain analysis. 
D. cost-benefit analysis.
E. operational value analysis.
A

C. value chain analysis.

218
Q 
Multi-criteria analysis uses a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ method for a variety of criteria to contrast alternative projects or system features.
A. weighted scoring 
B. indicator count
C. criterion-related
D. additive
E. multiplicative
A

A. weighted scoring

219
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the process of progressively elaborating and documenting the project management plan in order to effectively manage a project.
A. Project management
B. Decomposition
C. Progressive elaboration
D. Project scope planning 
E. Project planning
A

D. Project scope planning

220
Q

The ________ serves as the central repository for all project-related correspondence, inputs, outputs, deliverables, procedures, and standards.
A. project repository
B. project folder
C. project workbook
D. project management information system
E. project file

A

D. project management information system

221
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ serve as a standard for measuring project progress and performance.
A. Baselines 
B. Project documents
C. Progress reports
D. Performance reports
E. Status updates
225. 
226.
A

A. Baselines

222
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ focuses on gaining formal acceptance of the project scope.
A. Define scope 
B. Formalize scope 
C. Verify scope 
D. Validate scope 
E. Obtain scope acceptance
A

D. Validate scope

223
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ focuses on formal procedures for managing changes to the project’s scope.
A. Manage scope changes
B. Control scope  
C. Manage scope modifications
D. Control scope changes
E. Control scope creep
A

B. Control scope

224
Q 
Scope \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a progressive, uncontrolled increase in project scope.
A. creep 
B. extension
C. modification
D. enlargement
E. change
A

A. creep

225
Q 
What is NOT among the top 5 project management challenges?
A. project changes not well managed
B. lack of project management skills
C. shifting organizational priorities
D. lack of time management skills 
E. training of project sponsors
A

D. lack of time management skills

226
Q 
Schedules are:
A. easy to develop.
B. made to be adhered to.
C. rarely perfect. 
D. useless.
E. fixed once developed.
A

C. rarely perfect.

227
Q 
A progressively more detailed and accurate projection of the project schedule and duration as the project manager specifies project deliverables and activities in more detail is called:
A. rolling wave planning.
B. uncertainty reduction.
C. tornado analysis.
D. cone of uncertainty. 
E. progressive elaboration.
A

D. cone of uncertainty.

228
Q 
Which of the following is an estimation phase?
A. Rough order of magnitude estimates. 
B. Standard estimates.
C. To-complete estimates.
D. Tentative estimates.
E. Absolute estimates.
A

A. Rough order of magnitude estimates.

229
Q 
Rough order of magnitude estimates can vary by as much as:
A. +75% to -25%. 
B. +25% to -10%.
C. +10% to -5%.
D. +10% to -10%.
E. +15% to -15%
A

A. +75% to -25%.

230
Q 
Budgetary estimates can vary by as much as:
A. +75% to -25%.
B. +25% to -10%. 
C. +10% to -5%.
D. +10% to -10%.
E. +15% to -15%
A

B. +25% to -10%.

231
Q 
Definitive estimates can vary by as much as:
A. +75% to -25%.
B. +25% to -10%.
C. +10% to -5%. 
D. +10% to -10%.
E. +15% to -15%
A

C. +10% to -5%.

232
Q

The estimation phases of project progress, in decreasing order, are:
A. budgetary estimates, rough order of magnitude estimates, definitive estimates.
B. rough order of magnitude estimates, budgetary estimates, definitive estimates.
C. budgetary estimates, definitive estimates, rough order of magnitude estimates.
D. definitive estimates, order of magnitude estimates, budgetary estimates.
E. rough order of magnitude estimates, definitive estimates, budgetary estimates.

A

B. rough order of magnitude estimates, budgetary estimates, definitive estimates.

233
Q 
The process of subdividing tasks to make them more manageable is called:
A. breakdown.
B. composting.
C. decomposition. 
D. disintegration.
E. rolling wave planning.
A

C. decomposition.

234
Q 
The output that results from breaking down a product into the individual components is called:
A. product decomposition.
B. product breakdown structure. 
C. work decomposition.
D. work breakdown structure.
E. project schedule.
A

B. product breakdown structure.

235
Q 
Another term for a product breakdown structure is:
A. parts list.
B. bill of materials. 
C. bill of rights.
D. parts order.
E. product list.
A

B. bill of materials.

236
Q 
The output that results from the process of dividing the entire project into manageable tasks is called:
A. product decomposition.
B. product breakdown structure.
C. work decomposition.
D. work breakdown structure. 
E. project breakdown structure
A

D. work breakdown structure.

237
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a scheduling technique that requires greater cost and schedule refinement regarding upcoming activities in the project schedule.
A. Rolling wave planning 
B. Uncertainty reduction
C. Tornado analysis
D. Cone of uncertainty
E. Three-point estimating
A

A. Rolling wave planning

238
Q 
The lowest level deliverables in a work breakdown structure are called:
A. activities.
B. work packages. 
C. chunks.
D. deliverables.
E. project activities
A

B. work packages.

239
Q

Work packages should be all EXCEPT:
A. relatively short in duration.
B. all about the same size.
C. unspecific enough to leave room for interpretation.
D. require about the same amount of work.
E. completed by one person or a small group.

A

C. unspecific enough to leave room for interpretation.

240
Q 
The approach to creating a WBS where all team members try to come up with as many tasks to complete the project as possible is called:
A. top-down planning.
B. bottom-up planning. 
C. brainstorming.
D. Delphi technique.
E. team discussions.
A

B. bottom-up planning.

241
Q

Using a bottom-up approach for creating a WBS:
A. helps to get buy-in from all group members.
B. is fast.
C. does not work for novel projects.
D. is typically not advisable.
E. tends to overlook important deliverables.

A

A. helps to get buy-in from all group members.

242
Q 
Lists of activities from prior projects are called:
A. repositories.
B. forms.
C. templates. 
D. organizational process assets
E. project history.
A

C. templates.

243
Q

A WBS dictionary:
A. provides details about the individual components of the WBS.
B. is part of the project scope statement.
C. is only needed in the planning phase.
D. is normally not needed, as the WBS should be self-explanatory.
E. is not used much, as all the information can be looked up on the web.

A

A. provides details about the individual components of the WBS.

244
Q

The scope baseline includes:
A. the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary.
B. the WBS, the WBS dictionary, lists, and templates.
C. the project charter, and all project related documentation.
D. the project management information system and the WBS.
E. the project management plan, the activity list, and the WBS.

A

A. the project scope statement, the WBS, and the WBS dictionary.

245
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the process of identifying and defining activities that must be performed to produce project deliverables. 
A. Break down activities
B. Define activities  
C. Decompose activities 
D. Manage activities 
E. Identify activities
A

B. Define activities

246
Q

When defining activities, a sufficient level of detail is reached when:
A. an activity has a known method or technique.
B. it has been broken down by three levels.
C. results in at most three deliverables.
D. each activity is very small.
E. all activities are on the same level.

A

A. an activity has a known method or technique.

247
Q 
Higher level components that are broken down at later stages are called:
A. rolling wave planning. 
B. cone of uncertainty.
C. planning components. 
D. deliverables.
E. to-be-planned deliverables.
A

C. planning components.

248
Q 
The process of developing a network diagram and updating the activity list from the activity definition phase is called:
A. Update activities
B. Define activities 
C. Arrange activities 
D. Sequence activities  
E. Schedule activities
A

D. Sequence activities

249
Q 
A schematic display that illustrates the various tasks in a project as well as their sequential relationships is called: 
A. activity sequence diagram (ASD)
B. network diagram 
C. activity diagram
D. network schema
E. activity sequence schema
A

B. network diagram

250
Q

What category is NOT among the constraints to be taken into account when determining the sequence of activities?
A. Technical requirements and specifications
B. Safety and efficiency
C. Preferences and policies
D. Resource availability
E. Process effectiveness

A

E. Process effectiveness

251
Q

The need to collect requirements before completing screen design is an example of the following constraint(s):
A. technical requirements and specifications.
B. safety and efficiency.
C. preferences and policies.
D. resource availability.
E. process effectiveness.

A

A. technical requirements and specifications.

252
Q

The need to back up important data before installing new hardware is an example of the following constraint(s):
A. technical requirements and specifications.
B. safety and efficiency.
C. preferences and policies.
D. resource availability.
E. process effectiveness.

A

B. safety and efficiency.

253
Q

The need to start marketing efforts long before a product launch at Microsoft is an example of the following constraint(s):
A. technical requirements and specifications.
B. safety and efficiency.
C. preferences and policies.
D. resource availability.
E. process effectiveness.

A

C. preferences and policies.

254
Q

The need to delay activities requiring more funding to later stages of a project is an example of the following constraint(s):
A. technical requirements and specifications.
B. safety and efficiency.
C. preferences and policies.
D. resource availability.
E. process effectiveness

A

D. resource availability.

255
Q 
The diagramming method using boxes and rectangles connected by arrows to represent activities and their dependencies in a project is called:
A. precedence diagramming method.  
B. arrow diagramming method.
C. conditional diagramming method.
D. boxes-and arrows diagram.
E. box plot.
A

B. arrow diagramming method.

256
Q

A finish-to-start dependency indicates that:
A. a second activity cannot be started until the first activity has been completed.
B. the start of a successor depends on the start of the predecessor.
C. the completion of the successor activity depends on the completion of the
predecessor.
D. the completion of the successor activity depends on the beginning of the predecessor.
E. both activities have to be finished at the same time.

A

A. a second activity cannot be started until the first activity has been completed.

257
Q

A start-to-start dependency indicates that:
A. a second activity cannot be started until the first activity has been completed.
B. the start of a successor depends on the start of the predecessor.
C. the completion of the successor activity depends on the completion of the
predecessor.
D. the completion of the successor activity depends on the beginning of the
predecessor.
E. both activities have to be worked on in reverse order.

A

B. the start of a successor depends on the start of the predecessor.

258
Q

A finish-to-finish dependency indicates that:
A. a second activity cannot be started until the first activity has been completed.
B. the start of a successor depends on the start of the predecessor.
C. the completion of the successor activity depends on the completion of the predecessor.
D. the completion of the successor activity depends on the beginning of the predecessor.
E. both activities have to be worked on in parallel.

A

C. the completion of the successor activity depends on the completion of the predecessor.

259
Q

A start-to-finish dependency indicates that:
A. a second activity cannot be started until the first activity has been completed.
B. the start of a successor depends on the start of the predecessor.
C. the completion of the successor activity depends on the completion of the predecessor.
D. the completion of the successor activity depends on the beginning of the predecessor.
E. both activities have to be worked on in sequence

A

D. the completion of the successor activity depends on the beginning of the predecessor.

260
Q 
An activity of zero duration that is used to show a logical relationship or dependency in a network diagram is called:
A. dummy activity. 
B. dumb node.
C. empty node.
D. activity node.
E. zero node.
A

A. dummy activity.

261
Q 
A diagramming method using arrows to represent activities and their precedence relationships, and nodes to represent project milestones is called:
A. precedence diagramming method. 
B. arrow diagramming method. 
C. conditional diagramming method.
D. arrow-node diagram,
E. box plot.
A

B. arrow diagramming method.

262
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ dependencies indicate the relationship between activities that cannot be performed in parallel.
A. Mandatory 
B. External
C. Discretionary
D. Voluntary
E. Conditional
A

A. Mandatory

263
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ dependencies indicate the relationship between activities based on the preferences of project managers.
A. Mandatory
B. External
C. Discretionary 
D. Voluntary
E. Conditional
A

C. Discretionary

264
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ dependencies indicate the relationship between project activities and external events.
A. Mandatory
B. External 
C. Discretionary
D. Voluntary
E. Conditional
A

B. External

265
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the time required by one task before another task can begin.
A. Free slack
B. Total slack
C. Lead time 
D. Lag time
E. Wait time
A

C. Lead time

266
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the time delay between completion of one task and the start of the successor.
A. Free slack
B. Total slack
C. Lead time
D. Lag time 
E. Wait time
A

D. Lag time

SMC 340: Project Management (2 decks)

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