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EMRG 1130 > Midterm EMRG 1130 > Flashcards

Midterm EMRG 1130 Flashcards

1
Q

Supine

A

lying on back

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2
Q

Prone

A

lying on stomach

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3
Q

Trendelenburg position

A

Feet up

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4
Q

Left lateral

A

patients lie on their left side, with their left leg straight out on the bed, and the right leg bent up but also lying on the bed

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5
Q

Semi-prone

A

when a person lies on their side, with their upper body slightly tilted forward or backward.

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6
Q

Stable vital signs mean what?

A

Vitals signs are remaining the same as base line set

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7
Q

Coffee-ground emesis

A

Digested blood that is vomited out and is sign of upper GI bleeding

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8
Q

Melena

A

Dark sticky feces, covered in digested blood. Sign of upper GI bleeding

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9
Q

Hematochezia

A

stool containing bright red blood ie hemorrhoids

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10
Q

Hematuria

A

Blood in pee caused by renal injury or illness

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11
Q

Ecchymosis

A

Purple bluish colouring under the skin, localized blood collection

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12
Q

Hematoma

A

A localized collection of blood in the soft tissues after injury

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13
Q

Peripheral pulses

A

Peripheral pulses are the places where you can feel your heartbeat in your body, like your wrist or neck. Heart strength is related to stroke volume and pulse pressure

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14
Q

Pulse pressure

A

the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures

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15
Q

What is the first number in BP

A

Systolic

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16
Q

What is the last number in BP

A

Diastolic

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17
Q

Stroke volume

A

the volume of blood pumped forward with each ventricular contraction

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18
Q

Cardiac output

A

amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute
SVxHR=CO

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19
Q

Golgi complex

A

synthesis and packaging of various carbohydrates and protein molecules (enzymes)

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20
Q

Lysosomes

A

contain digestive enzymes

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21
Q

Ribosomes

A

contain RNA and protein

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22
Q

Peroxisomes

A

neutralize toxins, such as alcohol. Found in liver

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23
Q

The body relies on what to maintain its delicate acid base balance?

A

Buffers

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24
Q

One of the main buffers is

A

Bicarbonate HCO3

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25
Q

H20 combines with CO2 to make

A

Carbonic acid

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26
Q

In the lungs carbonic acid breaks down into

A

water and carbon dioxide

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27
Q

In the kidneys the H2CO3 breaks down into

A

H+ and HCO3

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28
Q

Baroreceptors

A

respond to changes in blood pressure, located in carotid artery, aorta, and kidneys

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29
Q

A blood pH greater than 7.45 is

A

Alkalosis

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30
Q

A blood pH less than 7.35 is

A

acidosis

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31
Q

A patient is breathing at a rate of 6 per minute, shallow and laboured. What type of acid base imbalance would you expect

A

Respiratory acidosis

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32
Q

A patient who has been experiencing severe diarrhea for several days. What type of acid base imbalance would you expect?

A

Metabolic acidosis (loss of sodium bicarb)

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33
Q

A patient who has been experiencing severe vomiting for several days. What type of acid base imbalance would you expect?

A

Metabolic alkalosis ( loss of stomach acids)

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34
Q

A patient who is hyperventilating due to anxiety may experience what type of imbalance?

A

Respiratory alkalosis(blowing off CO2)

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35
Q

A patient in diabetic ketoacidosis or sepsis may be experiencing this imbalance?

A

(Metabolic acidosis)
Patients with DKA often experience Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid, sighing ventilations) in an attempt to blow off the CO2 and decrease acidosis

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36
Q

Explain the process of the breakdown of glucose to ATP

A

Glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid
Anaerobic Pathway- the absence of oxygen -> lactic Acid. Oxygen can later convert Lactic acid back to Pyruvic acid otherwise it diffuses to the liver and is metabolized Aerobic Pathway with oxygen -> Acytel Coenzyme A -> Citric Acid Cycle (releases CO2, NADH to the ETS)
Kreb’s Cycle -> ATP is the by-product of the breakdown of CoA, NAD, FAD released and combine with energized electrons -> ETS

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37
Q

What is a virus?

A

Takes over metabolic process of a host cell and uses the host cell to replicate it.

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38
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Normal cell death

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39
Q

What are pyrogens?

A

Released by white blood cells and causes fever to develop

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40
Q

What is bacteria?

A

Single cell organisms. That when enter the body reproduce rapidly They possess a capsule that protects them from ingestion and destruction

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41
Q

What structures are part of your immune system?

A

Tonsils
Spleen
Lymphoid tissue
(Thymus gland and bone marrow- T-lymphocytes mature here)
(Lymph nodes)
skin
Stomach acid
cilia

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42
Q

Basophils

A

Is a white blood cell contain histamine granules released during inflammatory and allergic response.

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43
Q

Eosinophils

A

Is a white blood cell release substances that damage or kill parasitic invaders

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44
Q

Neutrophils

A

Is a white blood cell Most abundant white blood cell, protect against infection, destroy and foreign antigens

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45
Q

Monocytes

A

Is a white blood cell mature in blood where they differentiate into macrophages. (scavengers for the tissues)

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46
Q

Lymphocytes

A

Is a white blood cell mediate the acquired immune response. 2 types B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes

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47
Q

Mast cells

A

Is a white blood cell that plays a role in allergic reactions, immunity and wound healing

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48
Q

What is native immunity

A

natural immunity, non specific cellular and antibody response that operates as the first line of defense against pathogens

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49
Q

Acquired immunity

A

acquired immunity, arises when the body is exposed to a foreign substance or disease and produces antibodies to that invader (vaccine or getting the disease)

50
Q

What is Cell-mediated immunity

A

T-cell lymphocytes recognize antigens and contribute to the immune response by either secreting cytokins or becoming cytotoxic and killing infected cells

51
Q

What is Humoural immunity

A

B-cell lymphocytes produce antibodies, react with a certain antigen, have a compliment of 20 proteins circulating untill needed

52
Q

Define perfusion

A

Delivery of oxygen and nutrients and removal of wastes for the cells, organs and tissues by circulatory system.

53
Q

Define hypoperfusion

A

Occurs when the level of tissue perfusion decreases below normal

54
Q

Define Shock

A

Shock is a medical condition characterized by an abnormal state in which the body fails to receive an adequate supply of oxygen and essential nutrients required for proper cellular metabolism. This results in a disturbance of normal cell functioning and can lead to insufficient blood circulation to vital organs.

55
Q

What are the two types of shock

A

Central and peripheral

56
Q

What are the 2 types of central shock

A

Cardiogenic and obstructive

57
Q

What are the two types of peripheral shock

A

Hypovolaemic and distributive

58
Q

What is cardiogenic shock

A

When a heart is unable to pump enough, blood for the bodies needs. Poor, cardiac output.

59
Q

What is Hypovolaemic shock

A

Depleted, intravascular volume. Hypovolemic shock occurs when there is a significant loss of blood or fluids from the body, leading to a decrease in the volume of blood circulating in the bloodstream.

60
Q

What is obstructive shock?

A

Obstructing tissue perfusion. Obstructive shock is a type of shock that occurs when there is an obstruction in the flow of blood through the circulatory system, preventing the heart from effectively pumping blood.

61
Q

What is distributive shock?

A

Distributive shock is when vasodilation occurs, blood vessels open up too wide, causing blood to spread out everywhere. The heart and brain do not get enough blood, leading to low BP and tachycardia.

62
Q

What are the three kinds of distributive shock?

A

Septic shock, anaphylactic, shock, and neurological shock

63
Q

What are symptoms of the first phase of shock 

A
  1. Compensated shock 2. Agitation, anxiety, and restlessness. 3. Sense of impending doom. 4. Weak and rapid pulse. 5. Cool clammy or pale skin. 6. Shortness of breath. 7. thirst 8. Normal BP
64
Q

What are the symptoms of the second face of shock?

A
  1. decompensated shock 2. Altered LOC
  2. laboured breathing. 4. Weak or no pulse. 5. ashen skin. 6. hypotension 7. impending cardiac arrest.
65
Q

What are the symptoms in the last phase of shock?

A

Irreversible damage or Death

66
Q

What is hypotension

A

Low BP

67
Q

What is hypertension

A

High BP

68
Q

What is the first step of patient care

A

EMCA

69
Q

What is the second step of patient care

A

General impression, uncontrolled bleeds, and
c-spine

70
Q

What is the third step of patient care?

A

Initial assessment, ABC’s, and skin

71
Q

What is the fourth step of patient care?

A

Make a transport decision (is it load and go or stay and play)

72
Q

What is the fifth step of patient care?

A
  • Is this a load and go or focused assessment?
  • If it is a load and go, we do rapid trauma assessment
  • If it is a focused assessment
    OPQRST
    5 p’s
    Treatment, splint etc
73
Q

If patient needs a load and go, we do what?

A

Rapid trauma assessment

74
Q

If patient needs a focussed assessment, what do we do?

A

OPQRST, 5 P’s, treatment, splint, etc.

75
Q

A full set of vitals are done when

A

During a focused exam
During a medical assessment
After going mobile during your ongoing exam
After your rapid trauma survey IF you decided it was not a load and go

76
Q

Once you go mobile your first action is?

A

your ongoing assessment, LOA, ABC’s, recheck interventions

77
Q

Once you go mobile, what is your second step of action?

A

Radio patch

78
Q

Once you go mobile, what is your third step of action?

A

Detailed physical exam

79
Q

First paragraph of SMR considerations

A

a. any trauma associated with complaints of neck or back pain,
b. sports accidents (impaction, falls).
c. diving incidents and submersion injuries.
d. explosions, other types of forceful acceleration/deceleration injuries,
e. falls (e.g. stairs).
f. pedestrians struck.
g. electrocution,
h. lightning strikes, or
i. penetrating trauma to the head, neck or torso;

80
Q

Second paragraph of SMR qualifications

A

a. neck or back pain,
b. spine tenderness.
C. neurologic signs or symptoms.
d. altered level of consciousness.
e. suspected drug or alcohol intoxication,
f. a distracting painful injury (any painful injury that may distract the patient from the pain of a spinal injury).
g. anatomic deformity of the spine,
h. high-energy mechanism of injury, such as.
1. fall from elevation greater than 3 feet/5 stairs.
2. axial load to the head (e.g. diving accidents).
3. high speed motor vehicle collisions (a100 km/hr). rollover, ejection,
4. hit by bus or large truck.
5. motorized/ ATV recreational vehicles collision, or 6. bicyclist struck or collision,
I. age ≥65 years old including falls from standing height;

81
Q

Oxygen Therapy standard qualifications paragraph one

A

a. confirmed or suspected carbon monoxide or cyanide toxicity or noxious gas exposure.
b. upper airway burns.
c. scuba-diving related disorders.
d. ongoing cardiopulmonary arrest.
e. complete airway obstruction, and/or
f. sickle cell anemia with suspected vaso-occlusive crisis; and

82
Q

Oxygen therapy standard paragraph 2

A

a. age-specific hypotension.
b. respiratory distress,
c. cyanosis, ashen colour, pallor.
d. altered level of consciousness, and/or
e. abnormal pregnancy or labour.

83
Q

What vitals shall a paramedic take

A

a. heart rate,
b. respiration rate,
c. blood pressure (BP),
d. Pulse oximetry (SpOz),
e. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS),
f. pupils, and
g. skin colour and condition;

84
Q

types of calls typically warrant a cardiac monitor

A

All vital signs absent (VS) patients, except those who are obviously dead as per the Deceased Patient Standard
• Unconscious or altered level of consciousness
• Collapse or syncope
• Suspected cardiac ischemia
• Moderate to severe shortness of breath
• Cerebrovascular accident (CVA)
• Overdose
• Major or multi-system trauma
• Electrocution
• Submersion injury
• Hypothermia, heat exhaustion or heat illness
• Abnormal vital signs as per the ALS PCS
If requested by sending facility staff (for inter-facility transfers)

85
Q

haemorrhage control

A
  1. apply well-aimed, direct digital pressure at the site of bleeding.
  2. apply a tourniquet. if tourniquet fails to stop bleeding completely or cannot be used for any reason then apply a second tourniquet. Or
  3. pack the wound with hemostatic dressing if appropriate and available or standard gauze if contraindicated or unavailable, maintain pressure and secure with a pressure dressing:
86
Q

Where can you not pack hemostatic dressing?

A

the skull, chest or abdomen.

87
Q

Where can we pack hemostatic dressing?

A

if the wound is located in a junctional location (e.g. head, shoulders. armpit, neck, pelvis, groin) and extremity’s

88
Q

How to asses amputations

A

A. assess the injury site for circulation, sensation and movement, and
B. assess distal pulses, circulation, sensation and movement:
C. control hemorrhage as per the Soft Tissue Injury Standard,
D. cleanse wound of gross surface contamination,
E. if partial amputation or avulsion, place remaining tissue or skin bridge in as near-normal anatomical position as possible,
F. if complete amputation, cover the stump with a moist. sterile pressure dressing, followed by a dry dressing, while taking care not to constrict or twist remaining tissue,
G. immobilize affected extremity, and
H. if possible, elevate
I. with respect to the amputated/avulsed part, if located prior to ambulance transport,
J. preserve all amputated tissue,
K. if the part is grossly contaminated, gently rinse with saline.
L. wrap or cover the exposed end with moist, sterile dressing, and
M. place the part in a suitable container / plastic (water-tight if possible)
bag and immerse in cold water, if available.

1) If not able to locate part prior to ambulance transport,
i. attempt to engage others at scene (e.g. allied agencies, bystanders) to look for the amputated/avulsed part and advise them to have it transported to receiving facility if found, and do not delay transport.

89
Q

Adult normal HR, BP, ETCO2, SPO2, and Temp

A

Normal values
HR = 60-100 b/min
NIBP = 120/80
ETCO2 = 35-45 mmHg
SPO2 = 95-100%
Temp = 37 degrees C

90
Q

Normal RR for Pediatrics

A

0-6 months 30-60
6-12 months 25-45
1-5 years 20-30
6 -9 yr 16-24
10 yr 14-20

91
Q

Normal HR for paediatrics

A

0-3 months 90- 180
3-6 months 80-160
6-12 months 80-140
1-3 yr 75-130
6 yr 70-110
10 yr 60-90

92
Q

Before signs of puberty BP

A

Hypotension: SBP <70mmHg + (2 x age in years)
Normotension: SBP ≥ 90mmHg + (2 x age in years)

93
Q

Normal temp

A

Normal range is 36.1-37.2 degrees C
Fever- generally >38 degrees Celsius

94
Q

Normal SPO2

A

97% - 100%

95
Q

What is Bariatric equipment used for

A

Obese patients

96
Q

What weight would we use the pedi mate

A

10-40 ibs

97
Q

How much can the manta mat hold

A

800ibs

98
Q

How much weight can a stretcher hold loading and bottom height?

A

Loading: 700 ibs Bottom: 1100

99
Q

How much can a KED hold?

A

500 ibs

100
Q

How much weight can a scoop hold

A

500 ibs

101
Q

How much weight can a canvas stretcher hold?

A

350 ibs

102
Q

How much can a stair chair hold

A

500 ibs

103
Q

What is a nasal cannula?

A

Nasal canula is a low concentration device attaches to nose around the ears. Leader flow from 1 to 6 LPM

104
Q

What is a nebulizer mask? 

A

Nebulizer mask allows administered medication with oxygen through the mask. This mask runs 4 to 6 LPM

105
Q

What is a nonrebreather mask?

A

This allows the patient to inhale from Reservoir bag. This ensures the patient is not exhale back into the bag. This must be run at 12 to 15 LPM.

106
Q

What is a filtered 02 mask

A

I filtered O2 mask protects providers from patients illnesses, but still can deliver any concentration of oxygen.

107
Q

Look at pelvis picture number one

A

Lateral Compession Fracture
Visual presentation: Impacted side rotates around sacrum

108
Q

Pelvic picture number 2

A

Open book fracture
Visual presentation : Pelvis spreads apart

109
Q

Pelvic picture number 3

A

Vertical shear
Visual presentation: pelvis pointing inward

110
Q

Pelvic picture number 4

A

Straddle Fracture
Visual presentation: inferior and superior ramus are moved.

111
Q

The skin has 2 layers

A

Epidermis
dermis

112
Q

RUQ

A

• Liver
• Gallbladder
• Right kidney
• Portions of small and large intestine
• Part of the pancreas

113
Q

Left Upper Quadrant (LUQ):

A

Stomach
• Spleen
• Left kidney
• Portions of small and large intestine
• Part of the pancreas

114
Q

Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ):

A

• Appendix
• Part of the large intestine (cecum and ascending colon)
• Right ovary and fallopian tube (in females)
• Right ureter

115
Q

Left Lower Quadrant (LLQ):

A

Part of the large intestine (sigmoid colon and descending colon)
• Left ovary and fallopian tube (in females)
• Left ureter
• Part of the small intestine (lower part of the ileum)

116
Q

Hemopoiesis

A

The process of creating blood cells that occurs in the bone marrow of certain bones in the body. This includes the production of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets essential for oxygen transport, immunity, and clotting

117
Q

Greenstick fracture

A

Incomplete fracture not fully through the bone

118
Q

Spiral fracture

A

In circles the bone 

119
Q

comminuted fracture

A

Two fracture fragments located in the same area

120
Q

Transverse fracture

A

Straight across the bone

121
Q

Compound fracture

A

Fracture that causes break in the skin

122
Q

What are the five rights?

A

Right drug
Right time
Right patient
Right route
Right dose

EMRG 1130 (1 decks)

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