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anatomy > midterm anatomy and phys > Flashcards

midterm anatomy and phys Flashcards

1
Q

The activities of an anatomist consist of ______, whereas those of a physiologist consist of _____.

A

observing body parts; studying functions of body parts

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2
Q

Which of the following is not true of organelles?

A 
A.They carry on specific activities.
B.They are only in cells of humans.
C.They are composed of aggregates of large molecules.
D.They are found in many types of cells.
Answer B
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3
Q

Metabolism is defined as _____.

A

all the chemical reactions occurring in an organism that support life.

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4
Q

Homeostasis is the

A

tendency of the body to maintain a stable internal environment.

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5
Q

A serous membrane consists of a

A

layer of simple squamous epithelium and a thin layer of areolar tissue.

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6
Q

In negative feedback mechanisms changes away from the normal state

A

stimulate changes in the opposite direction.

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7
Q

Signs of aging at the cellular level are

A

impaired cell division and the ability to break down and recycle worn cell parts

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8
Q

Which of the following lists best illustrates the idea of increasing levels of complexity?

A

Organelles, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems

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9
Q

The anatomical term that indicates a structure close to the surface is

A

superficial .

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10
Q

When the body is placed in the anatomical position, which of the following is not true?

A

A.The head is facing to the front.
correct B. The palms are facing backward.
C. The body is erect.
D. The upper limbs are at the sides

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11
Q

The elbow is distal to the wrist

A

False

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12
Q

In all organisms, the basic unit of structure and function is

A

the cell

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13
Q

The thoracic cavity lies _____________ the abdominopelvic cavity.

A

superior to

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14
Q

The ears are lateral to the eyes.

A

True

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15
Q

Which of the following characteristics of life and their descriptions are correct?

A

Circulation-the movement of substances in body fluids

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16
Q

The ability of an organism to sense and react to changes in its body illustrates

A

responsiveness

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17
Q

The oral, nasal, orbital, and middle ear cavities are in the dorsal cavity

A

false

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18
Q

Kidneys are part of the lymphatic system.

A

False

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19
Q

Chemistry is important to the study of physiology because

A

A. the foods that we eat are chemicals.
B. body functions depend on cellular functions that reflect chemical changes.
C. chemical reactions enable our bodies to extract energy from nutrients.
D. all of the above
Answer D

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20
Q

Which of the following substances is an element?

A

Iron

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21
Q

The atoms of the isotopes of a particular element vary in the number of

A

neutrons

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22
Q

Which of the following groups of elements account for more than 95% of the human body by weight?

A

Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen

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23
Q

The number of protons in an atom of an element always equals its atomic weight.

A

False

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24
Q

An electrolyte ionizes in water.

A

True

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25
Q

A person with alkalosis has a blood pH less than 7.3

A

False

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26
Q

Which of the following is the most abundant inorganic substance in the body?

A

Water

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27
Q

An organic compound always contains

A

carbon and hydrogen

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28
Q

A chemical reaction in which parts of different molecules trade positions is a(n)

A

Exchanged reaction

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29
Q

In a covalent bond

A

atoms share a pair or more of electrons.

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30
Q

The formula H2O refers to

A

A molecule that contains two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom

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31
Q

The symbol Na+ represents a sodium atom that has lost an electron

A

True

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32
Q

The three major parts of a cell are

A

the nucleus, cytoplasm, and cell membrane

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33
Q

Lipids

A

A. are insoluble in water.
B. include phospholipids, cholesterol, and fats.
C. contain C, H, and O, but with proportionately less oxygen than in carbohydrates.
correct D.all of the above.

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34
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of carbohydrates?

A

A. They contain C, H, O, with twice as many hydrogen as oxygen atoms.
B. They provide much of the energy that the cell requires.
C.They include sugars and starches.
correct D.all of the above.

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35
Q

Which of the following groups of compounds is hydrophobic?

A

Lipids

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36
Q

The difference in hydrogen ion concentration between solutions with pH 4 and pH 5 is

A

ten fold

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37
Q

The major components of the cell membrane are

A

lipids and proteins

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38
Q

The secondary structure of a protein molecule is the result of

A

hydrogen bonds

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39
Q

Consider the following list of commonly found items and their pH values:Which of the choices includes all acids?

A

Vinegar, grapes, tomatoes, and coffee

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40
Q

If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the concentration inside,

A

water will leave the cell by osmosis

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41
Q

Nucleic acids are

A

composed of building blocks called nucleotides

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42
Q

If a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution,

A

the cell will swell and may eventually burst.

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43
Q

In phagocytosis

A

a cell membrane engulfs solid particles.

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44
Q

Stages of the cell cycle unfold in the following order:

A

interphase, mitosis, cytoplasmic division, differentiation

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45
Q

All cell types divide at the same rate

A

false

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46
Q

A person with alkalosis has a blood pH less than 7.3

A

false

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47
Q

A selectively permeable membrane

A

allows some substances to pass through and excludes others

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48
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the structural organization of the cell membrane?

A

A bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move

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49
Q

What characteristic do simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion share?

A

Both move a substance from a region of higher concentration to one of lower concentration without cellular energy.

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50
Q

Which of the following transport processes does not require expenditure of cellular energy?

A

Facilitated diffusion

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51
Q

A decomposition reaction can be symbolized by

A

AB → A + B.

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52
Q

Cancer can result if

A

mitosis is too frequent or does not stop.

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53
Q

Cells lose water when placed in a __________ solution.

A

hypertonic

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54
Q

Metabolism” refers to

A

all of the chemical reactions in a cell.

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55
Q

Which of the following is an example of catabolism?

A

The breakdown of glucose in the cytoplasm and mitochondria.

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56
Q

Cilia and flagella extend from certain cells, enabling them to move.

A

true

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57
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum does not.

A

false

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58
Q

A cell that can divide to give rise to any cell type is

A

totipotent.

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59
Q

Cilia and flagella extend from certain cells, enabling them to move.

A

true

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60
Q

An enzyme is

A

a molecule, usually a protein, that speeds the rate of a biochemical reaction by lowering the activation energy.

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61
Q

A cofactor is ______ and examples are _____.

A

a necessary part of some enzymes; copper, iron, and zinc

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62
Q

ATP is important to cellular processes because it

A

provides energy for cellular work when the terminal, high-energy bond is broken.

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63
Q

Mutagens are factors that cause mutation.

A

true

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64
Q

Codons are part of

A

mRNA

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65
Q

The electron transport chain is a series of enzyme complexes that pass electrons, releasing energy that is used to phosphorylate ADP to ATP on the inner mitochondrial membrane.

A

true

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66
Q

A DNA molecule is a double helix in which A pairs with C and T pairs with G

A

false

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67
Q

Histology is the study of the history of anatomy and physiology

A

false

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68
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four basic types of body tissues?

A

Epithelial tissue
Connective tissue
correct Eye tissue
Muscle tissue

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69
Q

Four basic groups of tissues

A

epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous tissue

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70
Q

Which of the following characteristics is used to name tissue types?

A

Organization of cells

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71
Q

A basement membrane anchors

A

epithelial tissue to connective tissue.

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72
Q

The type of intercellular junction that forms tubular channels is

A

a gap junction.

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73
Q

desmosomes

A

blind cells by forming “spot welds” between cell membranes

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74
Q

tight junction

A

close space between cells by fusing cell membranes

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75
Q

Epithelial tissue functions in

A

secretion, absorption, and protection.

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76
Q

The type of epithelium that secretes into ducts that open onto surfaces like skin or into body fluids is

A

glandular epithelium.

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77
Q

Adipose tissue is a form of

A

connective tissue.

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78
Q

Tissues are groups of cells that have a common overall function, yet are distinctive in their characteristic cell types and the molecules that the cells produce.

A

true

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79
Q

Extracellular matrix consists of

A

ground substance and protein fibers.

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80
Q

Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of

A

dense regular connective tissue.

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81
Q

Involuntary muscle tissues are

A

smooth muscle tissue and cardiac muscle tissue

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82
Q

Muscle cells with more than one nucleus are

A

skeletal muscle cells only

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83
Q

Smooth muscle is found in the wall of the

A

stomach and intestine

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84
Q

Functions of neuroglia include which of the following?

A

They support and bind nervous tissue and provide nutrients and growth factors to neurons by connecting them to blood vessels

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85
Q

The tissue that forms the outermost layer of the skin is a type of connective tissue

A

false

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86
Q

Blood is composed of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets suspended in a fluid extracellular matrix called plasma

A

true

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87
Q

The human integumentary system includes

A

skin, nails, hair follicles, and sweat glands

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88
Q

Cutaneous membrane” refers to

A

skin

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89
Q

The dermis is composed largely of

A

dense irregular connective tissue

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90
Q

Skin cells play an important role in producing

A

vitamin D

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91
Q

The functions of skin include

A

acting as a protective covering.
housing sensory receptors.
regulating body temperature.
correct all of the above.

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92
Q

Two thieves steal jewelry, and then drop it as they are escaping. The police recover the jewelry, and an officer explains on the evening news that fingerprints were obtained from the back of a watch. The thieves, whose prints are not on file, believe that they can escape prosecution by using acid to remove the epidermis on their fingerpads, so as not to be a match for the fingerprints on the watch. They are wrong because

A

the prints arise from friction ridges of the dermis, which are not destroyed.

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93
Q

The layer of the epidermis that includes melanocytes and a single row of columnar cells that undergo mitosis is the

A

stratum basale.

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94
Q

The skin appears yellowish if a person eats too much

A

carotene.

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95
Q

Which of the following is not correct concerning the skin?

A

The subcutaneous layer is between the dermis and the epidermis.

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96
Q

Nerve fibers scattered throughout the dermis are associated with

A

muscles, glands, and sensory receptors

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97
Q

A nail consists of

A

a nail bed and nail plate

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98
Q

The hardness of a nail comes from

A

keratin

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99
Q

Inflammation makes skin

A

red, swollen and painful to touch.

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100
Q

Eumelanin and pheomelanin are

A

brownish-black and reddish-yellow pigments, respectively.

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101
Q

Shafts of hair are composed of

A

dead epidermal cells.

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102
Q

In treating a burn patient, the “rule of nines” is used to estimate the

A

surface area of the burn.

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103
Q

As a person ages, the skin typically becomes

A

potted with patches of pigment

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104
Q

Cutaneous carcinomas are usually caused by regular exposure to

A

ultraviolet light.

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105
Q

Which person is at highest risk of developing a cutaneous carcinoma?

A

a light-complexioned man age 52 who goes to the beach on summer weekends and does not use sunblock because he likes to be tan.

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106
Q

Melanin production is greater in the skin of people who live outdoors all the time than in people who do not.

A

true

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107
Q

As epidermal cells move up through the strata away from their blood supply, they die and become keratinized.

A

true

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108
Q

A second degree burn is the same as a full-thickness burn

A

false

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109
Q

Reddened skin reflects

A

dilated blood vessels with more blood entering the dermis.

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110
Q

Which of the following happens first after a scab forms?

A

fibroblasts from the wound edge form new collagenous fibers.

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111
Q

The arrector pili muscle is attached to

A

a hair follicle

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112
Q

An anatomical section that separates the body into right and left portions is a __________ section

A

sagittal

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113
Q

A protein that spans the cell membrane is termed a(n)

A

integral protein.

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114
Q

Cilia and flagella extend from certain cells, enabling them to move

A

true

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115
Q

Microfilaments and microtubules are part of the cytoskeleton.

A

true

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116
Q

Filtration requires hydrostatic pressure.

A

true

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117
Q

During interphase, a cell rests.

A

false

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118
Q

Apoptosis is also known as

A

programmed cell death.

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119
Q

Which of the following does not influence the rate of diffusion?

A

The amount of energy available for transport molecules

120
Q

A parietal layer of a serous membrane _______, whereas a visceral layer of a serous membrane ________.

A

lines cavities; covers organs

121
Q

Which of the following transport processes does not require expenditure of cellular energy?

A

Facilitated diffusion

122
Q

Saturated fats _______ than unsaturated fats.

A

have more single carbon-carbon bonds

123
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the structural organization of the cell membrane?

A

A bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move

124
Q

Cells lose water when placed in a __________ solution.

A

hypertonic

125
Q

The secondary structure of a protein molecule is the result of

A

hydrogen bonds

126
Q

If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the concentration inside,

A

water will leave the cell by osmosis

127
Q

Which of the following substances increases in abundance during cellular respiration?

A

ATP

128
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding RNA?

A

It is transcribed in the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm.
It includes ribose, a 5-carbon sugar.
correct It is double-stranded.
It has cytosine as one of its four nitrogenous bases.

129
Q

Transcription and translation differ in that

A

transcription produces RNA and translation produces protein.

130
Q

A cell may contain hundreds of different types of enzymes

A

true

131
Q

An ATP molecule consists of an adenine, a ribose, and three phosphates

A

true

132
Q

The aerobic reactions of cellular respiration occur in the mitochondria.

A

true

133
Q

A DNA molecule is a double helix in which A pairs with C and T pairs with G

A

false

134
Q

A _______ membrane lines tubes and cavities that open to the outside of the body.

A

mucous

135
Q

Eccrine sweat glands differ from sebaceous glands

A

in type of secretion.
in their location.
in whether or not they are associated with hair follicles.
correct all of the above.

136
Q

atom

A

smallest particle of an element that has the properties of that element.

137
Q

elements

A

naturally occurring matter on earth is composed of 92 elements. Elements are composed of atoms.

138
Q

molecule

A

particle formed by the chemical union of two or more atoms

139
Q

elements usually occur in combinations called what

A

compounds

140
Q

atomic number

A

of an element is equal to the number of protons in each atom.

141
Q

atomic weight

A

is equal to the number of protons plus the number of neutrons in each atom.

142
Q

ion

A

particle that is electrically charged because it has gained or lost one or more electrons.

143
Q

What is the relationship between matter and elements?

A

All matter is composed of fundamental substances.

144
Q

Where are electrons, protons, and neutrons located within an atom?

A

the nucleus of an atom

145
Q

What is an isotope?

A

Atoms that have the same atomic number but different atomic weight.

146
Q

Describe 4 types of chemical reactions.

A

Synthesis: when 2 or more atoms, ions, or molecules bond to form a more complex structure A+B->AB
Decomposition: bonds of a reactant molecule break to form simpler molecules, atoms, or ions AB->A+B
Exchange: parts of 2 different types of molecular trade positions as bonds are broken and new are formed AB + CD-> AD+ BC
Reversible: product or products can change back to reactant or reactants A+B AB

147
Q

Compare the chemical composition of carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acid.

A

Carbohydrates: C, H, O
Lipids: C, H, O (often P)
Protein: C, H, O, N, ( often S)
Nucleic acids: C, H, O , N , P

148
Q

Compare the characteristics of an acid, a base & a salt.

A

Acid: substance that releases hydrogen ion
Base: substance that release ions that can combine with hydrogen ions
Salt: substance formed by the reaction between and acid and a base.

149
Q

A hydrophilic molecule dissolved in….

A

water

150
Q

What are the general difference between an organic molecule and an inorganic molecule?

A

Organic: compounds have carbon and hydrogen.
Inorganic: all other chemicals, chemicals that does not include both carbon and hydrogen atoms.

151
Q

Most abundant inorganic compound in the body

A

water

152
Q

two or more substances chemically combined

A

compounds

153
Q

How many electrons can fit in the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd shells of an atom

A

First Shell-2
Second Shell-8
Third Shell-8

154
Q

alkalosis

A

blood pH of 7.5 to 7.8 (makes one feel dizzy and agitated)

155
Q

acidosis

A

pH between 7.0 to 7.3 (makes one feel disoriented and fatigued)

156
Q

Levels of Structure of Proteins

A

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary, Quaternary

157
Q

Primary Structure

A

the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain

158
Q

Secondary Structure

A

the polypeptide chain forms wither an alpha helix (coils) or a beta-pleated sheet (folds) Arise from hydrogen bonding

159
Q

Tertiary Structure

A

when hydrogen bonding and covalent bonding between atoms in different parts of a polypeptide impart another larger level of folding

160
Q

Quarternary Structure

A

two or more polypeptide chains may be connected to form a single protein molecule ex hemoglobin

161
Q

facilitated diffusion

A

passive transport in which a solute binds to a specific carrier on one side othe the membrane and is released on the other side.

162
Q

primary active transport

A

uses energy derived from hydrolysis of ATP to change the shape of a carrier protein, which pumps a substance across a cellular membrane against tis concentration gradient.

163
Q

filtration

A

smaller molecules are forced through a porous membranes from regions of higher pressure to regions of lower pressure (molecules leaving blood capillaries)

164
Q

exocytosis

A

vesicles fuse with membrane and release contents outside the cells (protein secretion, neurotransmitter release)

165
Q

transcytosis

A

combines receptor-mediated endocytosis and exocytosis to ferry particles through the cell. (HIV crossing a cell layer)

166
Q

receptor-mediated (endocytosis)

A

membrane engulfs selected molecules combined with receptor proteins.

167
Q

active transport

A

carrier molecules transport molecules or ions through membranes from regions of lower concentration towards regions of higher concentration. (movements of various ions

168
Q

pinocytosis

A

membrane engulfs droplets of liquid from surrounding cells.

169
Q

The relationship of osmotic pressure and the number of solute particles in a solution is the
lower the number of solute particles, the greater the osmotic pressure.
greater the number of solute particles, the lower the osmotic pressure.
greater the osmotic pressure, the lower the number of solute particles.
greater the number of solute particles, the greater the osmotic pressure.

A

greater the number of solute particles, the greater the osmotic pressure.

170
Q 
An organic compound always contains
carbon and hydrogen.
oxygen and nitrogen.
carbon and oxygen.
nitrogen and hydrogen.
A

carbon and hydrogen.

171
Q

Which of the following groups of compounds is hydrophobic?

A

lipids

172
Q

The process by which cells specialize is called differentiation.

A

true

173
Q

Which of the following transport processes does not require expenditure of cellular energy?

A

Facilitated diffusion

174
Q

In phagocytosis

a cell membrane engulfs solid particles.

A

a cell membrane engulfs solid particles.

175
Q 
If the concentration of glucose in the water outside of a cell is higher than the concentration inside,
water will enter the cell by osmosis.
water will leave the cell by osmosis.
glucose will enter the cell by osmosis.
glucose will leave the cell by osmosis
A

water will leave the cell by osmosis

176
Q

Stages of the cell cycle unfold in the following order:
differentiation, cytoplasmic division, mitosis, interphase
interphase, differentiation, cytoplasmic division, mitosis
interphase, mitosis, cytoplasmic division, differentiation
mitosis, interphase, cytoplasmic division, differentiation

A

interphase, mitosis, cytoplasmic division, differentiation

177
Q

A cofactor is ______ and examples are _____.
an inorganic molecule that all enzymes require; cholesterol and calcium
an inorganic molecule that some enzymes require; vitamin B12 and B6
a necessary part of some enzymes; copper, iron, and zinc
a molecule that destabilizes substrates; carbonic acid

A

a necessary part of some enzymes; copper, iron, and zinc

178
Q

ATP is important to cellular processes because it
is formed by muscles contracting or whenever cellular work occurs.
provides energy for cellular work when the terminal, high-energy bond is broken.
releases oxygen when high-energy phosphate bonds are broken.
is a by-product of all catabolic reactions.

A

provides energy for cellular work when the terminal, high-energy bond is broken.

179
Q 
A glucose molecule is broken down into two pyruvic acid molecules in
glycolysis.
the citric acid cycle.
gluconeogenesis.
the electron transport system.
A

glycolysis

180
Q

Which choice lists structures in order of increasing size?
nitrogenous base - nucleotide - gene - chromosome - genome
nitrogenous base - nucleotide - gene - genome - chromosome
genome - nucleus - chromosome - nucleotide - gene
cell - organelle - tissue - organ

A

nitrogenous base - nucleotide - gene - chromosome - genome

181
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding RNA?
It is transcribed in the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm.
It includes ribose, a 5-carbon sugar.
It is double-stranded.
It has cytosine as one of its four nitrogenous bases.

A

It is double-stranded.

182
Q

The electron transport chain is a series of enzyme complexes that pass electrons, releasing energy that is used to phosphorylate ADP to ATP on the inner mitochondrial membrane.

A

true

183
Q

cranial cavity

A

houses the brain

184
Q

spinal cavity

A

houses the spinal cord

185
Q

thoracic cavity

A

contains the lungs and heart

186
Q

abdominal cavity

A

contains the stomach, liver, spleen, gallbladder, kidneys, and the small and large intestines.

187
Q

pelvic cavity

A

contains the terminal end of the large intestine, the urinary bladder, and the internal reproductive organs.

188
Q

line the walls of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities and fold back to cover the organs within these cavities. These membranes secrete a slippery serous fluid that separates the layer lining the wall of the cavity (parietal layer) from the layer covering the organ (visceral layer).

A

serous membranes

189
Q

Proximal

A

Closer to the origin of the body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk

190
Q

distal

A

Away from or farthest from the trunk or the point of origin of a body part

191
Q

medial

A

closer to the mid line of the body

192
Q

Proximal

A

Closer to the origin of the body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk

193
Q

distal

A

Away from or farthest from the trunk or the point of origin of a body part

194
Q

lateral

A

Away from the midline of the body

195
Q

superior

A

Higher on the body, nearer to the head

196
Q

inferior

A

Away from the head end or toward the lower part of a structure or the body; below.

197
Q

ventral

A

At the belly side

198
Q

Name the bulk elements in the human body.

A

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, and phosphorus

199
Q

How do you indicate an ion in a molecular formula?

A

negative ions have (-), positive ions have (+)

200
Q

neutral

A

A pH of 7., A liquid that is neither an acid nor base

201
Q

how does the number of solute particles in a solution affect osmotic pressure?

A

The greater the concentration of impermeant solute particles (protein in this case) in a solution, the lower the water concentration of that solution and the greater the osmotic pressure

202
Q

interphase

A

G1-cell growth, S-genetic material replicates, G2-cell growth

203
Q

mitosis

A

cell division; prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

204
Q

prophase

A

the chromatin fibers condense, making the individual chromosomes visible

205
Q

metaphase

A

spindle fibers attach to the centromeres so that a fiber accompanying one chromatid attaches to one centromere and a fiber accompanying the other chromatid attaches to its centromere. The chromosomes move along the spindle fibers, and microtubules help align them about midway between the centrioles

206
Q

anaphase

A

The separated chromosomes move in opposite directions, again as the result of microtubule activity. The spindle fibers shorten and pull their attached chromosomes toward the centrioles at opposite sides of the cell

207
Q

telophase

A

the final stage of mitosis, the chromosomes complete their migration toward the centrioles. As the identical sets of chromosomes approach their respective centrioles, they begin to elongate and unwind from rodlike structures to threadlike structures. A nuclear envelope forms around each chromosome set, and nucleoli become visible within the newly formed nuclei. Finally, the microtubules disassemble into free tubulin molecule

208
Q

cytokinesis

A

completes the cell division process by dividing the cytoplasm into two daughter cells, each with a nucleus

209
Q

cell differentiation

A

the process by which a cell becomes specialized for a specific structure or function

210
Q

tumor

A

A mass of abnormal cells that develops when cancerous cells divide and grow uncontrollably.

211
Q

benign tumor

A

A mass of abnormal cells that remains at the site of origin.

212
Q

malignant tumor

A

An abnormal tissue mass that can spread into neighboring tissue and to other parts of the body; a cancerous tumor.

213
Q

stem cells

A

unspecialized cells that retain the ability to become a wide variety of specialized cells

214
Q

progenitor cell

A

Cells that are between differentiated cells and stem cells. Have a limited capacity of which cells they may become.

215
Q

anabolism

A

Constructive metabolism; the process of building up larger molecules from smaller ones. dehydration synthesis

216
Q

catabolism

A

Breakdown of biochemical substances into simpler substances; hydrolysis

217
Q

dehydration synthesis

A

A chemical reaction in which two molecules covalently bond to each other with the removal of a water molecule; monosaccharides can be joined this way to produce disaccharides or polysaccharides.

218
Q

hydrolysis

A

A chemical reaction that breaks bonds between two molecules by the addition of water; functions in disassembly of polymers to monomers

219
Q

what type of organic molecules are enzymes?

A

proteins

220
Q

what is the function of an enzyme in metabolism?

A

to increase the rate of chemical reactions

221
Q

what is the function of an enzyme in the body?

A

to promote life

222
Q

coenzyme

A

a cofactor that is an ion of an element, such as copper, iron, or zinc, or a small organic molecule,

223
Q

How are vitamins important to enzymes?

A

Vitamins provide coenzymes that can function repeatedly

224
Q

ATP

A

(adenosine triphosphate) main energy source that cells use for most of their work, 3 phosphate groups, (1 ribose, 1 adenine—hydrolyzed to make ADP and release energy

225
Q

cellular respiration

A

A complex set of chemical reactions involving an energy transformation where potential chemical energy in the bonds of “food” molecules is released and partially captured in the bonds of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) molecules.

226
Q

glycolysis

A

Catabolism of glucose or other monosaccharides to pyruvate and 2 molecules of ATP in the absence of oxygen or 34 molecules of ATP in the presence of oxygen., - occurs in cytoplasm

227
Q

citric acid cycle

A

A chemical cycle involving eight steps that completes the metabolic breakdown of glucose molecules to carbon dioxide; occurs within the mitochondrion; the second major stage in cellular respiration.

228
Q

electron transport chain

A

A series of molecules, found in the inner membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts, through which electrons pass in a process that causes protons to build up on one side of the membrane.

229
Q

gene

A

A DNA sequence that contains the information for making a particular protein

230
Q

chromosome

A

A threadlike, gene-carrying structure found in the nucleus. Each chromosome consists of one very long DNA molecule and associated proteins.

231
Q

genome

A

All of an organism’s genetic material.

232
Q

complementary base pairing of nucleotides

A

Hydrogen bonding between particular pyrimidines and purines. Adenine & Thymine. Cytosine & Guanine.

233
Q

DNA

A

A double-stranded, helical nucleic acid molecule capable of replicating and determining the inherited structure of a cell’s proteins.

234
Q

RNA

A

A type of nucleic acid consisting of nucleotide monomers with a ribose sugar and the nitrogenous bases adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and uracil (U); usually single-stranded; functions in protein synthesis and as the genome of some viruses.

235
Q

protein synthesis

A

Forming proteins based on information in DNA and carried out by RNA

236
Q

what are the major stages of protein synthesis?

A

transcription and translation

237
Q

transcription

A

Enzymes (RNA Polymerase use nucleotide sequence of a gene to synthesize a complementary strand of RNA (mRNA

238
Q

translation

A

A step in protein biosynthesis wherein the genetic code carried by mRNA is decoded to produce the specific sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. The process follows transcription in which the DNA sequence is copied (or transcribed) into an mRNA.

239
Q

codon

A

A three-nucleotide sequence of DNA or mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid or termination signal; the basic unit of the genetic code.

240
Q

anti-codon

A

A sequence of three bases of a tRNA molecule that pairs with the complementary three-nucleotide codon of an mRNA molecule during protein synthesis.

241
Q

mutation

A

the mechanism of change in a DNA sequence.

242
Q

mutagen

A

A chemical or physical agent that interacts with DNA and causes a mutation.

243
Q

tight junction

A

Cell-to-cell communication. Prevents leakage across a layer of epithelial cells in animals. Adjacent cell membranes are fused forming a seal. (Ex.- Epithelium in urinary bladder)

244
Q

desmosome

A

Anchoring junctions that prevents cells subjected to mechanical stress from being pulled apart; button like thickenings of adjacent plasma membranes connected by fine protein filaments

245
Q

gap junction

A

Communicating Junctions; channels that allow small molecules to flow through protein-lined pores between cells

246
Q

epithelial tissue

A

function= protection, excretion, absorption, secretion. Location= cover body surface, cover and line internal organs, compose glands. characteristics= lack blood vessels, cells readily divide, cells are tightly packed

247
Q

connective tissue

A

function= bind, support, protect, fill spaces, store fat, and produce blood cells. location= widely distributed throughout the body. characteristics= good blood supply, cells are farther apart, have extracellular matrix in between

248
Q

muscle tissue

A

function= movement. location= attached to bones, in the walls of hollow internal organs, heart. characteristics= contract in response to stimuli

249
Q

nervous tissue

A

function= conduct impulses for coordination, regulation, integration, and sensory reception. location= brain, spinal cord, nerves. characteristics= communicate with each other and other body parts

250
Q

basement membrane of epithelial tissues

A

anchors epithelium to underlying connective tissue.

251
Q

simple

A

a single layer of cells

252
Q

stratified

A

A thick epithelium, because of the several layers of cells

253
Q

pseudostratified columnar

A

Single layer of cells of differing heights, some not reaching the free surface; nuclei seen at different levels; may contain goblet cells and bear cilia.

254
Q

Transitional epithelium

A

specialized to change in response to increased tension

255
Q

squamous

A

these cells fit tightly together, somewhat like floor tiles, and their nuclei are usually broad and thin

256
Q

simple squamous

A 
function= filtration, diffusion, osmosis, covers surface
location= air sacs of lungs, walls of capillaries, lining of blood vessels
257
Q

simple cuboidal

A

Function: secretion and absorption; location-, Kidney tubules; ducts and secretory portions of small glands; ovary surface

258
Q

simple columnar

A

Function: absorption & secretion, protection. location- linings of the uterus, stomach, intestines

259
Q

pseudostratified columnar

A

function= protection, secretion, movement of mucus and substances. Location- linings of the respiratory passage

260
Q

stratified squamous

A

function= protection; , Location: Epidermis, Lining the openings of open tracts (mouth, esophagus, vagina and anal canal)

261
Q

stratified cuboidal

A

Location: Lining in the ducts of mammary glands, sweat glands, salivary glands, and pancreas. Function: Protection, secretion

262
Q

stratified columnar

A

Location: lines the male urethra, and ducts of excretory glands; function: protection, secretion

263
Q

transitional epithelium

A

function: distensibilty, protection; Found in the urinary tract organs

264
Q

glandular epithelium

A

function: secretion; location: salivary glands, sweat glands, endocrine glands

265
Q

merocrine glands

A

Exocrine glands that secrete without losing cellular material.

266
Q

apocrine glands

A

Loses a part of the cell body, which forms secretion

267
Q

holocrine glands

A

Exocrine glands whose secretions are made up of disintegrated cells.

268
Q

extracellular matrix of connective tissue

A

composed of protein fibers and a ground substance consisting of nonfibrous protein and other molecules, and fluid.

269
Q

fibroblast

A

Cells in the connective tissue that produce extracellular fibers ( collagenous, elastic and reticular fibers)

270
Q

macrophage

A

cells in the connective tissue that originate as white blood cells that fight off infection

271
Q

mast cells

A

Cells that release chemicals (such as histamine) that promote inflammation.

272
Q

collagenous fibers

A

These are thick threads of protein, grouped in long, parallel bundles that are flexible but only slightly elastic; these fibers have great tensile strength - that is, they resists considerable pulling force; these fibers form ligaments (which connects bones to bones) and tendons (which connect muscles to bones) (p. 100).

273
Q

elastic fibers

A

Composed of yellow elastin, very stretchy, not as strong as collagen; Vocal cords and air passages

274
Q

reticular fibers

A

Fine branched collagen fibers; a network or framework for organs

275
Q

synovial membrane

A

Line the cavities of freely moveable joints (i.e. shoulder, elbow, knee etc). 2. Secrete a fluid called synovial fluid which lubricates and nourishes the cartilage covering the bones.

276
Q

functions of the skin

A

Skin is a protective covering, retards water loss, helps regulate body temperature, houses sensory receptors, contains cells that play a role in immunity, aids in the formation of vitamin D from its precursor, and excretes wastes.

277
Q

what is an injection administered into the skin?

A

intradermal injection

278
Q

3 layers of the skin

A

epidermis, dermis, hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)

279
Q

epidermis

A

Composed of stratified squamous epithelium. Thickest on palms and soles of feet. Rests on basement membrane. Keratinized.

280
Q

dermis

A

Contains blood vessels, hair fallicles, sweat glands, and oil glands, nerve cells.; papillary layer is composed of areolar connective tissue. The lower or reticular layer is dense irregular connective tissue that includes tough collagenous fibers and elastic fibers in a gel-like ground substance.

281
Q

hypodermis

A

Aso called a subcutaneous layer, this is a layer of *fat located under the dermis of the skin. helps to insulate the body and protects underlying muscles and other structures.

282
Q

stratum corneum

A

first layer of the epidermis. Many thick, dead flattened cell layers, dead cells filled with keratin,protect against abrasions and penetration.

283
Q

stratum lucidem

A

2nd layer of epidermis. the very thin layer of the epidermis that appears clear and consists of dead cells; it is only present in thick skin in certain areas of the body; disperses keratohyalin around keratin fibers

284
Q

stratum granulosum

A

3rd layer of the epidermis. 3-5 layers of flattened polygonal cells thick, cytoplasm filled with course basophilic granules (aka keratohylin granules

285
Q

stratum spinosum

A

4th layer of the epidermis. 8-10 layers of cells - Limited cell division. As cells push to surface, they flatten;Desmosomes break apart and new ones form. Lamellar bodies (lipid-filled membrane-bound organelles) and additional keratin fibers form

286
Q

stratum basale

A

Bottom layer of the epidermis. Consists mainly of a single layer of cuboidal to low columnar stem cells and keratinocytes resting on the basement membrane.

287
Q

How are finger prints created on the skin?

A

Dermal papillae

288
Q

dark hair color

A

eumelanin

289
Q

blonde and red

A

pheomelanin

290
Q

hypothermia

A

Abnormal lowering of the body temp below 35 C or 95 F usually caused by prolonged exposure to cold

291
Q

hyperthermia

A

An elevated body temperature related to the body’s inability to promote heat loss or reduce heat production. greater than 98.6

292
Q

What are the effects of inflammation of the skin?

A

Blood vessels in affected tissues dilate and become more permeable, allowing fluids to leak into the damaged tissues

293
Q

healing a wound

A

a, blood escapes from dermal blood vessels, and (d) a blood clot soon forms. (e) The blood clot and dried tissue fluid form a scab that protects the damaged region. (f) Later, blood vessels send out branches, and fibroblasts migrate into the area. The fibroblasts produce new connective tissue fibers, and (g) when the skin is mostly repaired, the scab sloughs off. Scar tissue continues to form, elevating the epidermal surface.

294
Q

cutaneous carcinomas (basal cell, squamous cell) cutaneous melanomas (melanocarcinomas, malignant melanomas)

A

What are the types of skin cancer?

295
Q

How can cancer be prevented?

A

To reduce risk of developing skin cancer, avoid exposure to high-intensity sunlight, use sunscreens and sunblocks, and examine the skin regularly.

296
Q

what is the primary cause of skin cancer?

A

Skin cancer begins when the sun (or tanning bed) exposure overwhelms the protection provided by p53

anatomy (1 decks)

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