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Anatomy & Physiology 3 > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What does the buffy coat of a centrifuged blood consist of?

A

White Blood Cells and Platelets

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2
Q

What are the functions of blood?

A
  • Transport
  • Maintain Homeostasis – Volume of fluid, pH, temperature
  • Protect – against infection and loss
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3
Q

What are the major plasma proteins and what is the function of each?

A
  • Albumin - Maintain osmotic pressure (***)
  • Globulin – Carrier, nutrients, immunity
  • Fibrinogen – Helps blood clotting
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4
Q

Identify the 3 types of formed elements, and subtypes of WBCs.

What are the functions of each cell type?

A

Red Blood Cells - carry oxygen
Platelets - clotting
White Blood Cells - immunity

  • Lymphocytes (T-cell, B-cells, Natural Killers)
  • Neutrophils
  • Eonisphils
  • Basophils
  • Monocytes
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5
Q

What are the functions of each white blood cell type?

A
  • Monocytes – Fight infection as macrophages, both by engulfing and presenting antigens - Phagocytosis
  • Neutrophils – Macrophage, directly attack foreign bodies and fight infection - Phagocytosis
  • Eosinophils – Fight allergic reactions / histamine, parasitic worms
  • Basophils – Aid in allergic / histamine reaction, heparin anticoagulant
  • Lymphocytes – Immune function, B-cells fight by entering the plasma / antibodies, T-cells fight infection directly
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6
Q

Define hematopoiesis.

Where does hematopoiesis occur in fetus and in adults?

A

Hematopoiesis is the formation of blood

In a fetus, it occurs in several organs — Spleen, Bones, ….

In adults, it occurs in the Red Bone Marrow in Clavicle, Hip, Ends of long bones

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7
Q

Explain how blood cells are formed during Hematopoiesis with names of precursor cells.

A

Pluripotent stem cells –
Myeloid Stem Cells differentiate into:

Progenitor Cells: CFU-Erythrocyte, CFU-Megakaryocyte, CFU-GM
Blast Cells
RBC, Mast Cells, Platelets, Neutrophils, Eonisphils, Basophils, Monocytes

Lymphoid Stem cells differentiate into:
Lymphocytes

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8
Q

Name the growth factors for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets.

A
  • Erythropoietin – RBC — Produced in the Kidney
  • Thrombopoietin — Platelets – Produced in the Liver
  • Colony STIMULATING Factor — White Blood Cells
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9
Q

What are the shape, and plasma membrane condition of RBCs?

Define Hematocrit

A

Red Blood Cells are Biconcave due to their lack of nucleus and other organelles

In a normal drop of blood there is 4.8M RBC

Plasma membrane is both strong, but also very flexible
Hematocrit is the % of the whole blood that is RBC, average 45%

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10
Q

What is the primary function of erythrocytes and what molecule within the erythrocytes carries out this function?

A

Erythrocyte = RBC – their primary function is to carry Oxygen from the lungs to other tissue

The hemoglobin carries the 4 oxygen molecules each

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11
Q

What is the normal life span of erythrocytes?

A

120 days

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12
Q

What are the fates of the components of hemoglobin after the red cells are destroyed?

A

The Globin is broken down into amino acids and recycled for protein production

Iron from Heme is stored in the liver as Ferritin (first as transferrin when moving through the blood)

Heme waste products are Biliverdin which further breaks into Bilirubin (yellow) in the liver, before being released into Bile then passed through the small and large intestine where it become Urobilin (released in Urine) and Stercobilin (released in feces)

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13
Q

Identify three granulocytes with their nuclear shape and granular character.

A

Neutrophils – most numerous

  • 3-5 Lobes
  • Light Lilac Granules

Eosinophils

  • 2-3 Lobes
  • Red Orange Granules

Basophils

  • S Shaped nucleus
  • Dark Purple Granules
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14
Q

Identify two agranulocytes with their nuclear shape cytoplasmic character.

A

No visible granules

Monocytes

  • Large kidney shaped nucleus, least numerous, largest (macrophage)

Lymphocyte

  • Dark, Oval Round Nucleus
  • T-Cells, B-Cells, Natural Killers
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15
Q

How macrophages are formed? What are the 2 types of macrophages? Mention their differences.

A

Macrophages are formed by the differentiation of Monocytes (Or Neutrophils)

  • *Fixed** — live in the tissues
  • *Wandering** — live in the blood
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16
Q

What are the function and life span of platelets?

How the platelets are formed from megakaryocytes?

A

5-9 Days
Normal count is 150,000-400,000
Aid in clotting

Formation of Platelets

  • Thrombopoietin (Liver) stimulates the myeloid stem cell
  • Develops into CF-Meg (Megakaryocyte-Colony Forming Cells)
  • Into a Megakaryoblast
  • Into a Megakaryocyte, (which breaks up when it passes through the membrane?)
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17
Q

Define hemostasis.

What are the three processes in order involved in hemostasis?

A

Hemostasis is the process of stopping bleeding

  • *1. Vascular Spasm
    2. Platelet Plug
    3. Coagulation**
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18
Q

What are the Steps in the process of platelet plug formation?

What are the events occurring in platelet release reaction?

A
  • Platelet Adhesion
  • Platelet Release Reaction
    • Activated by adhesion
    • Extend projections to make contact with each other platelets
    • Release Thromboxane A2, and ADP to attract other platelets
    • Serotonin and Thromboxane A2 work as vasoconstrictors to reduce blood flow
  • Platelet Aggregation
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19
Q

How many clotting factors are there?

A

12

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20
Q

Which factors are vitamin K - dependent?

A

Factor II, Factor VII, Factor IX, Factor X (2, 7, 9, 10)

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21
Q

Know the names of factors I, II, IV, VIII. Which factor stabilizes fibrin clot?

A

I. Fibrinogen
II Prothrombin (Thrombin)
IV Calcium Ions Ca+2
VIII Antihemophilic Factor (AHF)

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22
Q

What are the three stages (pathways) of hemostasis? What are the differences between extrinsic and intrinsic pathways?

A

Intrinsic
Extrinsic
Common

Intrinsic starts within the blood, can take minutes, is much longer
Extrinsic is tissue damage outside the blood, is triggered by Tissue Factor (III) and is much shorter

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23
Q

What are the three mechanisms which prevent unnecessary clot formation or dissolve excess clot? What is the function of prostacycline?

A

Fibrinolysis
Prostacyclin
Natural Anticoagulants

Protacycline is responsible for INHIBITING platelet adhesion and release (Opposes the action of Thromboxane A2)

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24
Q

What are the natural anticoagulants present in our body? Which cells produce heparin?

A

Antithrombin -

  • Inactivates coagulation factors and neutralizes thrombin

Heparin -

  • Produced by the liver, lungs, and other tissues
  • Combines with antithrombin and increases its effectiveness

Activated Protein C (5, 8)

  • Acts as an anticoagulant by inactivating factors Va and VIIIa
  • In Factor V Leiden, it cannot inactivate an abnormal Factor V which results in excess clotting

Protein S – (Vitamin K dependent too), co-factor to activated Protein C

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25
Q

How the inappropriate clot is removed? What are the steps in the formation of the active substance plasmin?

A

Through the process of Fibrinolysis / Fibrinolytic system

Plasminogen in the blood ->
Is converted to Plasmin by t-PA (tissue plasminogen activator) ->
Which degrades the non-soluble clot into fibrin degradation products

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26
Q

Define thrombosis, thrombus and embolus? What may be the complications of embolus?

A
  • Thrombosis is the inappropriate formation of clots where the blood vessel has not been broken
  • Thrombus is the clot itself
  • Embolus is the clot (or air, gas, other substance) when it releases into the blood stream
    • It can be lodged upstream or downstream in the blood causing complications like stroke, pulmonary embolism
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27
Q

Name the major blood groups of ABO and Rh system. What are the antigens and antibodies in the blood which determines the blood group of an individual?

A

A+
B+
AB+
O+
A-
B-
AB-
O-

Antigen A
Anti-A Antibody
Antigen B
Anti-B Antibody
Rh Antigen
Anti-Rh Antibody

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28
Q

How hemolytic disease of the newborn can happen in the fetuses of Rh negative mother?

A

If the Rh- mother has an Rh+ baby then when some of the blood mixes with hers during birth, her blood will start creating anti-Rh antibodies (otherwise they don’t have them)

In her next pregnancy if she also has an Rh+ baby, when she passes antibodies to her fetus, the Anti-Rh Antibodies will attack the Red Blood Cell causing hemolysis

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29
Q

What happens if a mismatched ABO blood is transfused? Which organ is mostly affected?

A

Hemolysis – red blood cells die
Kidney

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30
Q

What is the location of the heart? What is mediastinum?

A

It is located deep to the sternum / between the sternum and vertebral column and between the lungs

Mediastinum is the region that holds the heart

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31
Q

What are the apex and base of the heart. What are the surfaces and borders of the heart?

A

Apex is the Anterior Inferior Left corner (Tip of Left Ventricle)
Base is the Posterior and Superior and to the right (Mostly formed by Left Atrium)

Inferior surface
Anterior surface
Left border
Right border

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32
Q

What are the three layers of the heart in order? Which layer forms the bulk of the wall of the heart? What is the other name of Epicardium? Which layer does line the chambers?

A

From superficial to deep:

  • Epicardium – also known as the Visceral Layer of the Serous pericardium
  • Myocardium – bulk of the wall
  • Endocardium – Lines the chambers
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33
Q

What are the four chambers of the heart? What are the functions of atria and ventricles? What are their functions of auricles?

A

Left Atrium, Right Atrium
Left Ventricle, Right Ventricle
Auricles – increase capacity of the atrium

Atrium RECEIVES blood
Ventricles PUMP blood

34
Q

What are the 3 sources from which the right atrium does receive blood? What is fossa ovalis?

A

Superior Vena Cava
Inferior Vena Cava
Coronary Sinus

Formerly the fetal foramen ovale – depression left from in utero connection

35
Q

What is the function of ductus arteriosus during fetal life? What is it usual fate after birth of the baby?

A

Connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta in a developing fetus (this wasn’t actually in the lecture)

The ductus arteriosus diverts blood from a baby’s lungs while they develop, and the baby receives oxygen from the mother’s circulation.

Closes within the first day after birth — unless there is a congenital heart defect

36
Q

Explain the cause of differences in the thickness of myocardium layer of the four heart chambers.

A

Left Atrium – thinner, only pumping to Ventricle
Right Atrium – thinner, only pumping to Ventricle
Left Ventricle – Thickest, has to pump blood the furthest / throughout body
Right Ventricle – Thicker than atria but not as thick as left because only pumping to lungs

37
Q

What are the atrioventricular valves? Between which chambers does each of them allow blood to pass?

A
  • *Bicuspid –** Between the Left Atria and Left Ventricle
  • *Tricuspid –** Between the Right Atria and Right Ventricle
38
Q

What are the semilunar valves? Between which chambers and vessels does each of them allow blood to pass?

A
  • *Pulmonary –** from the Right Ventricle into the pulmonary trunk and into the L/R pulmonary arteries and into the lungs
  • *Aortic –** from the Left Ventricle into the Aorta and then into the Arch of the Aorta and Descending Aorta and to the rest of the body
39
Q

What is the path of circulation of blood in the pulmonary and systemic circuits? From where does each chamber receive blood, and to where each chamber pumps blood?

A

The Right Atrium receives deoxygenated blood from the Superior/Inferior Vena Cava and the Coronary Sinus
The Tricuspid passes blood into the Left Atrium where it goes through the Pulmonary Semilunar Valve into the pulmonary trunk and into the pulmonary arteries and into the lungs

Oxygenated blood goes from the Pulmonary veins into the Left Atrium where it passes through the Bicuspid (Mitral) valve into the Left Ventricle where a small portion passes into the coronary artery and the remaining through the Aortic Semilunar Valve and splits into the arch of the aorta and descending aorta to carry blood to the rest of the body

40
Q

What are the intercalated discs? What are the functions of desmosomes and gap junctions in this location?

A
  • Intercalated disc connects the end of the cardiac muscle fibers and allows them to contract in a wave like pattern
  • Desmosomes hold the fibers together so they do not pull apart during contraction
  • Gap junctions allow muscle action potentials to conduct to its neighbors/entire myocardium contracts as a single unit
41
Q

What are the parts of the conduction system of the heart? Which one is the natural pacemaker of the heart?

Arrange the parts in sequence of propagation of action potential.

What are the rates of impulse generation by each part of the conduction system?

A
  • Sinoatrial Node (SA) – natural pacemaker, 60-100bpm, fastest (Leakiest channels), contracts Atria
  • Atrioventricular Node (AV) – delayed, fires at 40-60bpm
  • Atrioventricular Bundle (Bundle of His) – 20-40bpm
    • Enters right and left bundle system – extend through interventricular septum through apex
  • Purkinje fibers conduct to myofiber (ventricular contraction)
42
Q

What are the 2 types of cardiac muscle cells? How the contractile cells are connected to each other? How the action potential is transmitted through them?

A

Autorhythmic Cells

Contractile cells are connected by intercalated discs and desmosomes and action potential is transmitted via gap junctions

43
Q

Define autorhythmicity. Which cells have autorhythmicity?

A

Self-excitability in cells, they can generate spontaneous action potentials
Heart muscle - Autorhythmic cells in the heart have auto rhythmicity

44
Q

How do autorhythmic cells depolarize the heart?

A

They are able to spontaneously depolarize because they have sodium channels that allow sodium to enter the cell slowly increasing the charge until triggering voltage gated Ca2+ channels to open and increase the charge of the cell from -90mv to ~+40mv

Positive cations propagate across gap junctions into contractile cells bringing them up to their membrane potential

45
Q

What are the phases of action potential, and what are the ionic events occurring in each phase of autorhythmic cells?

A

Autorhythmic Cells

Depolarization:

  • -60 Na+ slowly permeates
  • -40 Voltage gated fast Ca++ channel opens (Depolarization)

Repolarization
- +10 Ca++ Channel Closes, K+ channel opens (Repolarization)

46
Q

What are the ionic events occuring in each phase of contractile cells?

A

Contractile Cells

  • *Depolarization:**
  • -90 Na+/Ca++ enters through gap junctions
  • -70 Voltage gated Na+ channels open
  • +20-30 Voltage gated Na+ close
  • *Slight Repolarization / Plateau**
  • K+ channels open (Slight repolarization)
  • +5 Voltage gated Ca++ channels open
  • (Plateau)

Repolarization
- Ca++ channels close (Repolarization)
Refractory period
- Long so that the heart can fill

47
Q

Define electrocardiogram. What are the waves does it have. What does P wave indicate?

A

Electrocardiogram is the recording of electrical changes/activity in the heart

P – Atrial Depolarization
QRS — Ventricular Depolarization
T — Ventricular Repolarization

P wave is the start of a new cycle / Atrial depolarization

48
Q

What is cardiac cycle? What are the 2 phases of cardiac cycle? What are the events happening in each phase? What happens in isovolumetric contraction and relaxation?

A

Systole (Contraction)

Contraction of the Atria (Atrial Systole),

  • Depolarization of the SA node,
  • P wave,
  • Contribute final 25 mL of blood

Contraction of Ventricle

  • Isovolumetric contraction – both valves are closed, Ventricular ejections

Diastole (Relaxation)
Relaxation of Atria

  • At the same time as Ventricular systole – fill with blood from the vena cavae, coronary sinus

Relaxation of Ventricle

  • Isovolumetric relaxation - after the backflow of blood forces the semilunar valves shut

Ventricular filling

  • As it drops below atrial pressure, rapid filling
49
Q

What are the effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system on heart rate and force of contraction?

A

Sympathetic – increases the heart rate and force of contraction
Parasympathetic – decrease heart rate and force of contraction

50
Q

How the medullary centers control parasympathetic and sympathetic these via ANS?

A

NEEDS ANSWER

51
Q

Define stroke volume and cardiac output. How much is their normal value in a resting male?

A

Stroke Volume is the volume of blood ejected from the left ventricle – calculated by

SV = EDV – ESV (60mL)
End-Diastolic Volume = ~130mL
End-Systolic Volume = ~60mL

52
Q

Define cardiac reserve. What is its normal value?

A

Ratio between the maximum cardiac output and the cardiac output at rest (Maximum output/output at rest)
Normal/Average is 4-5x

53
Q

Define EDV, ESV, and ejection fraction. How much is the normal ejection fraction?

A

End-Diastolic Volume – the amount left in the ventricle at the end of Diastole 130mL

End-Systolic Volume — the amount left in the ventricle at the end of Systole 60mL

Ejection Fraction – the % amount that is ejected from each ventricle each beat, generally around 55-60%

54
Q

What are the factors on which the cardiac output and stroke volume depend? Define Preload and Afterload. What is Frank-Sterling law of the heart?

A
  • Preload — amount of ventricular filling before contracting (EDV)
  • Contractility — the forcefulness of contraction of individual ventricular muscle fibers
  • Afterload – the pressure that must be exceeded before ejection of blood from the ventricles can occur (blood pressure)

Frank-Sterling Law – The more it is stretched the more forcefully it will snap back (like a rubber band)

55
Q

Explain how the Cardiac Output is controlled by autonomic nervous system, chemicals and other factors. Define positive and negative inotropic agents with examples

A

Different factors can increase or decrease the heart rate and contractility by

    • Increasing/decreasing blood pressure (vasoconstriction/vasodialation)
    • Ca++ ions increase
    • K+ ions decrease
    • Hormones can increase or decrease

Positive Inotropic agents — increase contractility

    • Promote more Ca++ inflow, strengthen force of next contraction
    • Drug Digitalis

Negative Inotropic agents — decrease contractility

    • Increased K+ levels
    • Calcium channel blockers / drugs
56
Q

Name the 5 main types of blood vessels. What are their functions?

A

Arteries: Carry blood away from the heart to the tissues and organs
Arterioles: Smaller arteries that connect to capillaries
Capillaries: Site of substance exchange between the blood and body tissues
Venules: Connect capillaries to larger veins
Veins: Convey blood from the tissue back to the heart

57
Q

What are the 3 layers of blood vessel wall? Name important components of each layer.

A

Tunica interna (aka tunica intima) - innermost layer, contains the

  • Endothelium
  • Basement Membrane
  • Internal elastic lamina

Tunica media – middle layer, smooth muscles and elastic fibers

  • Smooth muscle contraction/relaxation constricts and dilates
  • Elastic allows for stretch and recoil
  • Regulates the diameter of the lumen

Tunica externa – outermost layer, adjacent to surrounding tissue

  • Elastic and collagen
  • Nerves
  • Vaso Vasorum
58
Q

What is endothelium? What are its functions?

A

The innermost layer of the Tunica Interna, directly in contact with the blood and is continuous with the endocardial lining of the heart

Secrete chemical mediators that influence the contractile state of vessel’s overlying smooth muscle

59
Q

Define vasa vasorum. Where is it located?

A

Vaso Vasorum – small blood vessels that supply blood to the tissue of the vessel wall

Located in the Tunica Externa – the outermost layer of the vessel wall

60
Q

What are the structural characteristics of elastic arteries? What are their functions?

A
  • AKA Conducting Arteries
  • Largest arteries with large diameter with relatively thin walls
  • They have a lot of elastic fibers, allowing them to stretch and accommodate the surge of blood and store mechanical energy as a pressure reservoir to help continue to propel blood when the ventricles relax
  • (Includes: aorta, pulmonary trunk, brachiocephalic, common carotid, subclavian, common iliac)
61
Q

What are the structural characteristics of muscular arteries? What are their functions?

A
  • AKA Distributing Arteries
  • Medium-sized, more muscle than elastic in the tunica media, thick walls
  • Direct the blood flow through vasoconstriction and vasodilation
62
Q

Define collateral circulation. What is its function? Define end arteries.

A
  • Collateral circulation – alternate route of blood flow to a body through an anastomosis
  • If one vessel becomes blocked, circulation is not stopped
  • Arteries that do not anastomose are known as end arteries – obstructing them can result in necrosis
63
Q

What is the function of arteriole? Why are they called resistance vessels? What is the function of precapillary sphincter?

A
  • Deliver blood from arteries into capillaries
  • They create resistance through vasoconstriction and vasodilation, which regulates the blood flow into capillaries and alters arterial blood pressure
  • Control the flow of blood through a capillary bed (or thoroughfare channel) Open and close to allow blood to flow
64
Q

What are the structure and function of a capillary? Define microcirculation. What is a capillary bed? What structure is used to control the flow of blood through a capillary bed?

A
  • Smallest of the blood vessels, just a single layer of cells and a basement membrane
  • Function exchange of nutrients and waste
  • Microcirculation the flow of blood from a metarteriole through capillaries into post capillary venules
  • Capillary bed a network of 10-100 capillaries that arises from a single metarteriole
  • A precapillary sphincter controls the flow of blood
65
Q

What are the 3 types of capillaries? What are the structure and locations of each type?

A
  • Continuous - Continuous tube of endothelial cell plasma membranes, found in brain, skeletal and smooth muscle, connective tissue, lungs
  • Fenestrated - Many small pores, found in kidneys, small intestine, endocrine glands
  • Sinusoid- Wider, large intracellular clefts and large fenestrations to allow proteins/blood cells to enter blood stream, found in liver, red bone marrow, spleen, anterior pituitary and parathyroid glands
66
Q

Define a portal vein. What are the 2 portal veins present in the body?

A
  • Where blood passes from one capillary network to another instead of back into a venule
  • Hepatic / Liver
  • Hypophyseal Portal System (Pituitary)
67
Q

What is the characteristic of vein wall? Define valve of a vein. What is its function?

A
  • Have a much thinner tunica interna and media than arteries and thicker tuna externa – less elastic and less smooth muscles than arteries
68
Q

What are the three mechanisms of capillary exchange? What are the substances exchanged by each process?

A

Diffusion (MOST IMPORTANT)

  • Oxygen, Co2, Glucose, Amino Acids, Some hormones diffuse across lipid bilayer

Transcytosis

  • Large lipid-insoluble molecules (like insulin) cross walls in vesicles

Bulk Flow

  • Large numbers of ions, molecules particles (area of higher pressure to lower pressure
69
Q

Define bulk flow. What are the different outward and inward pressures controlling the bulk flow?

A

Filtration is pressure-driven moment of fluid and solutes from blood capillaries into interstitial fluid

  • Blood hydrostatic pressure (BHP) – pressure generated by the pumping of the heart
  • Interstitial fluid osmotic pressure (IFOP)

Reabsorption is pressure-driven movement of fluid and solutes from interstitial fluid into blood capillaries

  • _Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure (I_FHP)
  • Blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP)
70
Q

Define blood pressure. Define systolic, diastolic, and pulse pressures? How mean arterial pressure is calculated?

A

Blood pressure (BP) is the pressure exerted by blood on the walls of a blood vessel

  • Systolic BP is the higher pressure measured during left ventricular systole when the aortic valve is open. (Normally around 120
  • Diastolic BP is the lower pressure measured during left ventricular diastole when the valve is closed (Normally around 80)
  • Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures. It normally is about 40 mm Hg
  • MAP - 1/3 (systolic BP – diastolic BP) + diastolic BP (93.3 normal)
71
Q

Define vascular resistance? What are the factors on which vascular resistance depends? Know the relation of each factor with vascular resistance. What is total peripheral resistance?

A

R is the opposition to blood flow due to friction between blood and the walls of blood vessels
The higher the R, the smaller the blood flow

  • Size of the blood vessel lumen – the smaller the lumen, the greater the resistance (inversely)
  • Blood viscosity, higher the bloods viscosity, the higher the resistance
  • Total Blood vessel length, Resistance is directly proportional to the length of the blood vessel

Total peripheral resistance refers to all of the vascular resistances offered by systemic blood vessels; most resistance is in arterioles, capillaries, and venules due to their small diameters.

72
Q

Define venous return. What are the mechanisms which assist venous return? How they do that?

A

The volume of blood flowing back to the heart through the systemic veins – due to pressure generated by contractions of the hearts left ventricle

  • Valves - in the veins
  • Skeletal Muscle Pump - contraction of leg muscles
  • Respiratory Pump - thoracic pressure
73
Q

What is the force which generates blood pressure?

What are the factors which determine the blood pressure?

A

Contraction of the ventricles generates blood pressure - the hydrostatic pressure exerted by blood on the walls of a blood vessel

Factors: Cardio Output, Blood Volume, Vascular Resistance

74
Q

Describe all the mechanisms by which the blood pressure is controlled on short- term and on long-term basis.

A

Cardiovascular Center in the Medullar Oblongata helps regulate heart rate and stroke volume as well as neural, hormonal, and local negative feedback systems that regulate blood pressure and flow

In the short-term (Baroreceptor Mechanism)

  • Rising blood pressure stimulates increased parasympathetic activity - reduced heart rate, vasodilation and lower blood pressure.
  • Falling blood pressure stimulates increased sympathetic activity - increased heart rate, contractility, vasoconstriction, and blood pressure

Long-term blood pressure regulation involves

  • Renal regulation of blood volume via the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism (Increased blood volume, Raises blood pressure)
  • Increased blood osmolarity stimulates release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which promotes reabsorption of water, and excites the thirst center,(Increased blood volume, Raises blood pressure)
  • ANP release from the heart in response to increased blood volume, release of salt and water, vasodilation (Reduced blood volume, Reduced Blood Pressure)
  • Epi and Norepi
75
Q

What are the courses of subclavian artery?

What are the important arteries of upper extremities?

A

Left and Right Subclavian

  • Pass superior to the first rib gives rise to the Vertebral artery that supplies blood to the circle of Willis

What are the important arteries of the upper extremities?

  • Subclavian
  • Axillary (Armpit)
  • Brachial (Upper arm)
  • Ulnar (Lower arm)
  • Radial (Lower arm)
76
Q

What are the branches of common carotid arteries and their supply area?

A

Internal Carotid

  • Circle of Willis
  • Eyeballs, Parts of the Brain

External Carotid

  • Supplies structures external to skull as branches of maxillary and superficial temporal branches
77
Q

Name the arteries of lower extremity.

A

Branch From Abdominal Aorta

  • External iliac artery
  • Femoral artery
  • Popliteal artery behind the knee

Additional, as it goes down to the toes:

  • Posterior / anterior Tibial
  • Dorsal
  • Arcuate
  • Dorsal Metatarsal
  • Dorsal Digital
78
Q

What are the veins that drain the head and neck? Name the vein that drains the lower body.

A

Head and Neck:

  • External and Internal jugular veins drain the head and neck into the superior vena cava
  • Dural venous sinuses empty into internal jugular vein

Lower Body

  • inferior vena cava drains the abdomen, pelvis & lower limbs (is there more to this answer?)
79
Q

What are the drainage areas of hepatic portal circulation?

What are the 2 veins that form the hepatic portal vein?

A

Drainage

  • Receives blood from veins of the pancreas, spleen, stomach, intestines, and gallbladder (Spleen + Gastrotract) and directs it into the hepatic portal vein

Two Veins

  • Superior mesenteric
  • Splenic veins
80
Q

Know all the important arteries with their pulse locations

A
  • Superficial Temporal Artery – Medial to ear
  • Facial Artery – Mandible, line with corners of mouth
  • Common Carotid Artery – Lateral to Larynx
  • Brachial Artery – Medial side of biceps
  • Femoral Artery – Inferior to inguinal ligament
  • Popliteal Artery – Behind the knee
  • Radial Artery – Lateral aspect of Wrist
  • Dorsal Artery - Superior to instep of foot

Anatomy & Physiology 3 (5 decks)

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