Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Windows Server (70-412) > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following technologies transparently distributes traffic across multiple servers by using virtual IP addresses and a shared name?

Redundant network cards
Network Load Balancing
Failover cluster
RAID array

A

Network Load Balancing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
From where would you add Network Load Balancing to a Windows Server 2012 R2 computer?
  Programs and Features 
  Server Manager 
  Add/Remove Programs 
  Computer Management
A

Server Manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
Which PowerShell cmdlet here will correctly install NLB and the NLB management console?
  Install-WindowsFeature NLB,NLB-Console
  Add-WindowsFeature NLB,RSAT-NLB
  Add-WindowsFeature NLB, NLB-RSAT
  Add-WindowsComponents NLB,NLB-Manager
A

Add-WindowsFeature NLB,RSAT-NLB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which PowerShell cmdlet is used to delete an NLB cluster?

Drop-NlbCluster
Delete-NlbCluster
Remove-NlbCluster
Disband-NlbCluster

A

Remove-NlbCluster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When you configure port rules for NLB clusters, you will need to configure all of the options listed here, except for one. Which option in this list will you not configure for a port rule?

The node IP address the rule should apply to
The TCP or UDP port(s) the rule should apply to
The filtering mode
The protocols that this rule should apply to

A

The node IP address the rule should apply to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is a constraint of using NLB clusters in unicast mode that you will need to design for?

You will need separate cluster and management network adapters if you manage the nodes from a different TCP/IP subnet than the cluster network.
You will need to configure routers to duplicate packets for delivery to all cluster nodes.
You will need to manually add ARP entries to the routers.
You will need to ensure you have at least one node in the NLB cluster configured to handle traffic for each class C subnet in your network.

A

You will need separate cluster and management network adapters if you manage the nodes from a different TCP/IP subnet than the cluster network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which NLB control command would be the correct one to use to gracefully prepare a node for a planned maintenance activity?

Stop
Suspend
Resume
Drainstop

A

Drainstop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Many components can be configured redundantly within a server system. Of the components listed, which one is typically not available in a redundant arrangement in a single server system?

Power supplies
Mainboards (motherboards)
Network cards
Disks

A

Mainboards (motherboards)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the function of port rules in an NLB cluster?

They define which ports are allowed to pass through the cluster
They define which ports the cluster will listen for
They define which ports the cluster will not listen for
They define which ports are balanced among the hosts of the cluster

A

They define which ports are balanced among the hosts of the cluster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A production-ready failover cluster requires what minimum number of nodes?

Two
Three
Four
Five

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of quorum configuration can sustain the loss of one-half of the cluster nodes (rounded up), minus one?

Node Majority
Node and Disk Majority
Node and File Share Majority
No Majority (Disk Only)

A

Node Majority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In a failover cluster configured on Windows Server 2012 R2, how are heartbeats transmitted?

Using TCP port 3343 unicast
Using TCP port 3343 broadcast
Using UDP port 3343 unicast
Using UDP port 3343 broadcast

A

Using UDP port 3343 unicast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which storage technology is a low-cost option that typically requires the cluster nodes to be physically close to the drives?

iSCSI
Fibre Channel
Fibre Channel over Ethernet
SAS

A

SAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cluster Shared Volume, in Windows Server 2012 R2, offers faster throughput when integrated with what?

Server Message Block (SMB) Multichannel
Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA)
BitLocker volume encryption
Storage Spaces

A

Server Message Block (SMB) Multichannel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which PowerShell cmdlet would be used to add a new resource group to a failover cluster configuration?

Add-ClusterGroup
New-ClusterGroup
New-ClusterResourceGroup
Add-ResourceGroup

A

Add-ClusterGroup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What mode of Cluster Aware Updating has an administrator triggering the updates manually from the orchestrator?

Self-updating mode
Triggered-updating mode
Remote-updating mode
Orchestrator-triggered mode

A

Remote-updating mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When configuring shared storage for a cluster, there are several requirements that you must keep in mind. Of the items listed here, which one is not a requirement when configuring the shared storage?

The disks must be only GPT, not MBR
The miniport driver used for the storage must work with the Storport storage driver.
The storage device must support persistent reservations
The file system must be formatted as NTFS

A

The disks must be only GPT, not MBR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following improvements did CSV bring to Windows Server 2012 and Windows Server 2012 R2? (Choose all that apply.)

Self-encryption
Support for BitLocker volume encryption
Support for SMB 3.0
Allows Windows to scan and repair CSV volumes with no offline time

A

Support for BitLocker volume encryption
Support for SMB 3.0
Allows Windows to scan and repair CSV volumes with no offline time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The High Availability Wizard allows you to configure several pre-selected high availability roles in a cluster. Which of the following are options that are available to choose from? (Choose all that apply)

Distributed Transaction Coordinator (DTC)
SQL Server
Exchange Server
WINS Server

A

Distributed Transaction Coordinator (DTC)

Exchange Server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What new management functionality is introduced with SMB 3.0?

The SMB Management Console
The SMB node of the Failover Cluster Console
PowerShell cmdlets for SMB
Windows Remote support for SMB

A

PowerShell cmdlets for SMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does the Scale-Out File Server provide for multiple nodes to access the same volume at the same time?

SCSI reservations
CSV and CSV cache
VHD file virtualization
VSS flash cloning

A

CSV and CSV cache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do you change the value of the preferred node in a cluster?

Assign each node a priority numeric value
Assign each node a weight numeric value
List the servers in the preferred order
Check the Preferred node checkbox

A

List the servers in the preferred order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does the selection of the preferred node affect failover of the cluster resources?

Allows you to control which node the resources come online on after a failure
Allows you to control whether or not the Cluster service attempts a restart
Allows you to control whether or not the Cluster service attempts a failover
Allows you to control which node the resources come online on after the preferred node fails

A

Allows you to control which node the resources come online on after a failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When using VM Monitoring for Hyper-V VMs, what event ID will be logged when a monitored service is deemed to be unhealthy?

775
1520
250
1250

A

1250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following PowerShell cmdlets correctly configures VM Monitoring for the DHCPClient service on the VM named VM42?

Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem “VM42” “DHCPClient”
Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem –VirtualMachine “VM42” –Service DHCPClient
Set-MonitoredItem –VirtualMachine “VM42” –Service DHCPClient
Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem –Host “VM42” –Service DHCPClient

A

Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem –VirtualMachine “VM42” –Service DHCPClient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following features of the General Use File Server clustering role is the only change from Windows Server 2008 R2 to Windows Server 2012?

Support for SMB 3.0
Support for DFS replication
Support for data deduplication
Support for the File Server Resource Manager

A

Support for SMB 3.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When creating a new General Use File Server role, which SMB settings are enabled by default, but can be disabled if desired? (Choose all that apply)

Enable access-based enumeration
Enable continuous availability
Allow caching of share
Encrypt data access

A

Enable continuous availability

Encrypt data access

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

In regard to Live Migration, which of the following prerequisites must be met before attempting the Live Migration? (Choose all that apply)

All hosts must use processors from the same manufacturer
All hosts must support hardware virtualization
All hosts must be running on the same model server
All VMs must be configured to use OVH format disks on SCSI disks

A

All hosts must use processors from the same manufacturer

All hosts must support hardware virtualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When performing a Live Migration, there are several options available to choose from that control how the LM will occur. Which of the following is not one of these options?

Move the virtual machine’s data to a single location
Move the virtual machine’s data by selecting where to move the items
Move only the virtual machine
Move only the snapshot files

A

Move only the snapshot files

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Quick Migration occurs within the confines of what?

A failover cluster
An Active Directory Forest
A Virtual Machine Manager farm
A network load balanced cluster

A

A failover cluster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When importing a VM in Windows Server 2012 R2, you have three options available to select from that affect how the import is performed. Which of the following is not one of those options?

Restore the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)
Restore the virtual machine (use the existing unique ID)
Copy the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)
Register the virtual machine in place (use the existing unique ID)

A

Restore the virtual machine (create a new unique ID)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

You want to use Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2012 SP1 in your network to allow you to perform P2V migrations. What operating system must you install on the server to house SCVMM?

Window Server 2008 R2 or Windows Server 2012 R2
Windows Server 2012 R2 only
Windows Server 2012 R2 or Windows 8
Windows 8 only

A

Windows Server 2012 R2 only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Before you can work with OVF files on your SCVMM server, what must you first do?

Apply SCVMM SP1
Upgrade the SCVMM server to Windows Server 2012 R2
Apply the OVF Import/Export tool
Upgrade the SCVMM license to Enterprise

A

Apply the OVF Import/Export tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When performing a P2V migration using SCVMM, there are several limitations that must be observed. Which of the following source operating systems would be disqualified from a P2V migration?

Windows XP Professional SP3 32-bit
Windows Server 2003 SP1 32-bit
Windows Server 2003 R2 SP2 64-bit
Windows Vista SP1 64-bit

A

Windows Server 2003 SP1 32-bit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Offline P2V migrations are the only available migration method for what types of source servers? (Choose all that apply)

Servers with FAT32 volumes
Severs with NTFS volumes
Servers with any VSS writers installed
Servers that are domain controllers

A

Servers with FAT32 volumes
&
Servers that are domain controllers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following should be configured so that when you shut down or reboot a Hyper-V host, the VMs are migrated to another Hyper-V host?

Live shutdown
Dynamic shutdown
Drain on shutdown
Saved shutdown

A

Drain on shutdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following is a distributed file system protocol used to access files over the network that is used with UNIX and Linux file server clients?

DFS
NFS
SMB
DNS

A

NFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What feature or role must you install to extend the Active Directory schema with UNIX attributes?

Server for NIS
Server for NFS
Identity Management for UNIX
Password Synchronization

A

Server for NFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following protocols is not supported by BranchCache?

HTTP/HTTPS
SMB
BITS
NFS

A

NFS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Distributed cache mode is designed for branch offices with what number of clients?

Fewer than 25
Fewer than 50
Fewer than 75
Fewer than 100

A

Fewer than 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When configuring the BranchCache hash publication options in Group Policy, you have three options available. Which of the options listed here is not available to configure?

Disallow hash publication on shared folders on which BranchCache is not enabled
Allow hash publication only for shared folders on which BranchCache is enabled
Allow hash publication for all shared folders
Disallow hash publication on all shared folders

A

Disallow hash publication on shared folders on which BranchCache is not enabled

42
Q

Before you can audit access to files, what must you first do? (Choose all that apply)

Specify files to be audited
Specify times to be audited
Enable object access auditing
Enable file server auditing

A

Specify files to be audited
&
Enable object access auditing

43
Q

What feature, first available in Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008, enables you to configure object access auditing for every file and folder on the computer’s file system?

Total Object Access Auditing
Server Object Access Auditing
System Object Access Auditing
Global Object Access Auditing

A

Global Object Access Auditing

44
Q

How is Identity Management for UNIX installed?

Using Server Manager
Using Programs and Features
Using dism.exe
Using sc.exe

A

Using dism.exe

45
Q

To create an NFS shared folder on a cluster, you need to install which of the following items on each cluster node?

The File Services role
The Server for NFS role service
The Failover Clustering feature
All of the above

A

All of the above

46
Q

Which of the following statements are true concerning Kerberos armoring? (Choose all that apply)

Allows Kerberos to create service tickets to devices
Fully encrypts Kerberos messages
Increases Kerberos processing time
Uses Flexible Authentication Secure Tunneling (FAST)

A

Fully encrypts Kerberos messages
&
Increases Kerberos processing time

47
Q

What must you specify to create a claim type?

A specific attribute in Active Directory
A specific user in Active Directory
A specific group in Active Directory
A specific domain in Active Directory

A

A specific attribute in Active Directory

48
Q

What is created so that files are automatically scanned and classified based on their content?

Scanning rules
Classification filters
Classification rules
Scanning filters

A

Classification rules

49
Q

What should you configure if you want to limit access to files with certain classifications within a folder to a specific security group’s members?

A Central Access Policy
A Discretionary Access Control List
Role-Based Access Control
Access-Based Enumeration

A

A Central Access Policy

50
Q

Before you attempt to implement file classification, which of the following tasks should you not first determine?

The method you will use to identify documents for classification
The classifications you wish to apply
The schedule of the classification to occur
The schedule of disk defragmentation

A

The schedule of disk defragmentation

51
Q

What Windows Server 2012 R2 feature allows you to define computer-wide auditing of the file system or the registry?

Discretionary Access Control Lists
System Audit Preferences
Global Object Access Auditing
Universal Group Auditing Control

A

Global Object Access Auditing

52
Q

Which of the listed PowerShell cmdlets would be correctly used to modify a Central Access Policy in Active Directory?

Set-ADCentralAccessPolicy
Update-ADCentralAccessPolicy
Modify-ADCentralAccessPolicy
Change-ADCentralAccessPolicy

A

Set-ADCentralAccessPolicy

53
Q

After you have deployed a proposed Dynamic Access Control policy in staging mode, how do you check to see what is happening?

Look in the Security logs for Event ID 4818
Look in the Application logs for Event ID 8418
Look in the DacStage.log file
Look in the DacResults.xml file

A

Look in the Security logs for Event ID 4818

54
Q

Which of these represents the largest benefit realized from classifying files and folders?

Administrators can manage files and folders by specific attributes
Tasks for files and folders can be automated
Backups can be streamlined
Sensitive data can be protected

A

Tasks for files and folders can be automated

55
Q

How are NAS devices typically accessed over the network? (Choose all that apply)

Using Fibre Channel
Using SMB
Using iSCSI
Using NFS

A

Using SMB
&
Using NFS

56
Q

What is the underlying network protocol used by iSCSI storage network?

SCSI
SMB
IP
BGP

57
Q

What role can you install in Windows Server 2012 R2 to provide iSCSI storage to other clients?

iSCSI Server Role
iSCSI Target Server role
iSCSI Target role
iSCSI Initiator role

A

iSCSI Target Server role

58
Q

What is the name of the high-availability technology that enables multiple TCP/IP connections from the initiator to the target for the same iSCSI session?

iSCSI Multipath
Multiple Connection Session
Network adapter bonding
Multipath I/O

A

Multiple Connection Session

59
Q

What protocol is used to automatically discover, manage, and configure iSCSI devices on a TCP/IP network?

iDNS
iWINS
iSCNS
iSNS

60
Q

What is the name given to the new Windows Server 2012 R2 capability that allows an administrator to completely remove binaries from the disk for an unneeded role or feature?

Server Core
Windows Slim Provisioning
Windows Feature Management
Features on Demand

A

Features on Demand

61
Q

After you have removed the binaries for a feature from your Windows Server 2012 R2 computer, what status will be displayed for that feature if you run the dism /online /get-features command?

Disabled with Files Removed
Uninstalled with Binaries Removed
Removed with Files Removed
Disabled with Payload Removed

A

Disabled with Payload Removed

62
Q

How are SAN devices typically accessed over the network? (Choose all that apply)

Using Fibre Channel
Using SMB
Using iSCSI
Using NFS

A

Using Fibre Channel
&
Using iSCSI

63
Q

Fibre Channel of Ethernet (FCoE) is capable of _________ per second or more.

100 megabits
1000 megabits
1 gigabit
10 gigabits

A

10 gigabits

64
Q

What command-line tool is installed when you install the Windows Server Backup feature?

wbadmin. exe
backup. exe
wsbackup. exe
wsbadmin. exe

A

wbadmin.exe

65
Q

The maximum amount of time you have to bring a system back online before it has a significant impact on your organization is known as what?

Recovery Point Objective
Recovery Impact Objective
Recovery Time Objective
Recovery Backup Objective

A

Recovery Time Objective

66
Q

Which of the following would not be a good usage of manual backups?

Backing up a volume that is not included in the regularly scheduled backup routine
Making a special backup outside of the current backup schedule
Making normal backups without a schedule
Making a backup to store in a different location than the scheduled backups

A

Making normal backups without a schedule

67
Q

What is contained within the Backup folder created by Windows Server Backup? (Choose all that apply)

Virtual hard disk (VHD) files that are basically duplicates of your volumes
Metadata cache information
Log files that contain a record of errors that occur
XML files that provide backup history details

A

Virtual hard disk (VHD) files that are basically duplicates of your volumes
& XML files that provide backup history details

68
Q

When you select the “Faster backup performance” option for your backups, what is the net result of this configuration? (Choose all that apply)

Full backups are performed
Incremental backups are performed
Windows keeps a shadow copy of the source volume
Each volume is backed up separately

A

Incremental backups are performed

& Windows keeps a shadow copy of the source volume

69
Q

By default, where will backups of DHCP be sent when you configure backups to occur?

%systemroot%\Windows\Dhcp\Backup
%systemroot%\Windows\System32\Dhcp\Backup
%systemroot%\Windows\System32\Backup\Dhcp
%systemroot%\Windows\Backup\Dhcp

A

%systemroot%\Windows\System32\Dhcp\Backup

70
Q

What is the minimum forest functional level your Active Directory forest must meet to enable the Active Directory Recycle Bin?

Windows Server 2008
Windows Server 2008 R2
Windows Server 2012 R2
Windows Server 2003 R2

A

Windows Server 2008 R2

71
Q

What Windows feature captures and stores copies of folders and files at specific points in time, allowing users or administrators to recover accidentally deleted or overwritten files as well as compare different versions of the same file?

Version Management Copies
Shadow Copy Version Control
Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes
Version Control Shadow Copy Provider

A

Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes

72
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning incremental backups in Windows Server Backup?

You can restore from a single backup
You must restore a full backup first followed by all applicable incremental backups
You must restore the last full backup and the last differential backup
You can restore from only the most current full backup

A

You can restore from a single backup

73
Q

What type of backup allows you to recover the server to another server with the same or different hardware?

Bare metal recovery
Full server
System state
System reserved

A

Bare metal recovery

74
Q

Regarding Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes, how many copies per volume can be retained before the oldest shadow copy is permanently deleted?

16 copies
32 copies
48 copies
64 copies

75
Q

Which of the following can only be recovered using WinRE and the Windows installation media?

System volumes
Data volumes
Network shares
Local volumes

A

System volumes

76
Q

Which of the following backup configurations does not include the system state data?

Full backups
Bare metal recovery backups
System state backups
Incremental backups

A

Incremental backups

77
Q

What is the functional difference between a non-authoritative restoration of Active Directory versus an authoritative restoration?

The objects that are restored in the non-authoritative restoration could be overwritten during the next replication cycle.
The objects that are restored in the authoritative restoration could be overwritten during the next replication cycle.
The objects that are restored in the non-authoritative restoration must still be recovered from the Active Directory Recycle Bin following the restoration.
The objects that are restored in the authoritative restoration must still be recovered from the Active Directory Recycle Bin following the restoration

A

The objects that are restored in the non-authoritative restoration could be overwritten during the next replication cycle.

78
Q

When using the shutdown /r command, what happens when you add /o to the command?

The server will reboot and load normally
The server will shutdown
The server will reboot and open the Advanced Boot options menu
The server will reboot and perform a disk integrity check

A

The server will reboot and open the Advanced Boot options menu

79
Q 
Which of the following represents the correct command to use to set the boot timeout value that controls the length of time the computer waits to load the default operating system?
  Bootrec /startdelay  
  Bcdedit /loadwait  
  Bootrec /loadpause  
  Bcdedit /timeout
A

Bcdedit /timeout

80
Q

Which of the following represents what an operating system GUID would look like in the BCD store?

Windows 8
849ab759-2b7d-11e2-9a4d-10bf4879ebe3
ab759-2b7dz-11e32-9a4da-10bf48
\Windows\system32\winload.exe

A

849ab759-2b7d-11e2-9a4d-10bf4879ebe3

81
Q

Which of the following system state items will only be found on a domain controller?

Boot files
IIS metabase
Registry
SYSVOL

82
Q

Which of the following WinRE Command Prompt tools would be most appropriately used to cause the computer to boot to a different partition at the next startup?

Bootrec
Bcdedit
Diskpart
Format

83
Q

What must you use to apply encryption to replication traffic for Hyper-V replica?

IPSec
X.25
X.509
SSH

84
Q

When configuring the subject common name (CN) on an X.509 digital certificate to be used for Hyper-V replication, what value should be used for the subject CN if a standalone server hosts the VM?

The FQDN of the Hyper-V Replica Broker
The NetBIOS name of the Hyper-V Replica Broker
The FQDN of the Hyper-V host
The NetBIOS name of the Hyper-V host

A

The FQDN of the Hyper-V host

85
Q

In order for a digital certificate to be considered valid, what conditions must it generally meet? (Choose all that apply)
The certificate must posses required EKU attributes.
The certificate must terminate at a valid root certificate.
The certificate must not be expired or revoked.
The certificate must be 2048 bits or longer for key length.

A

The certificate must terminate at a valid root certificate.
&
The certificate must not be expired or revoked.

86
Q

When configuring a multi-site cluster using Windows Server 2012 R2, how can you configure data replication to occur? (Choose all that apply)

Block level hardware-based replication
Software-based file replication
Application-based replication
Windows MPIO-based replication

A 
Block level hardware-based replication 
&
  Software-based file replication 
&
  Application-based replication
87
Q

What network services will you require in the remote site used to host a multi-site cluster? (Choose all that apply)

AD Domain Services
DHCP
QoS
DNS

A

AD Domain Services
&
DNS

88
Q

In a Windows Server 2012 R2 failover cluster, after how many missed heartbeats in a row will a node become failed?

3
5
7
9

89
Q

Which of the following is used to create a second replica from another replica?

Hyper-V Paired Replication
Hyper-V Secondary Replication
Hyper-V Global Replication
Hyper-V Extended Replication

A

Hyper-V Extended Replication

90
Q

Which Global Update Manager mode is the default for all workloads besides Hyper-V?

All write and local read
Majority read and write
Majority write and local read
Minority local read

A

All write and local read

91
Q

What is the primary security implication of choosing the Kerberos authentication option over the certificate-based authentication option when configuring Hyper-V replication?

Kerberos provides mutual authentication of the client and server
The data will not be encrypted while in transit on the network
The data will be compressed while in transit on the network
Kerberos requires that the KDC be functional and reachable

A

The data will not be encrypted while in transit on the network

92
Q

What database engine is used for the DHCP database in Windows Server 2012 R2?

SQLite
Jet
ESE
SQL Express

93
Q

By default, after how much time has elapsed in an active DHCP lease will a Windows client computer attempt to renew the lease?

4 days
50% of the lease time
75% of the lease time
8 days

A

50% of the lease time

94
Q

Which of the following criteria listed can be used to create conditions in a DHCP policy? (Choose all that apply)

User Class
Vendor Class
MAC address
Client identifier

A

User Class

Vendor Class

MAC address

Client identifier

95
Q

Which of the following represents the correct default subnet mask used with Class A networks?

  1. 0.0.0
  2. 255.0.0
  3. 255.255.0
  4. 255.255.255
96
Q

IPv4 addresses use an address space that is _____ bits long, as compared to IPv6 addresses, which use an address space that is _____ bits long.

16, 32
32, 64
64, 128
32, 128

97
Q

When configuring Split Scopes for DHCP, what is the traditional percentage split of the scope range?

50% to the primary server, 50% to the secondary server
60% to the primary server, 40% to the secondary server
70% to the primary server, 30% to the secondary server
80% to the primary server, 20% to the secondary server

A

80% to the primary server, 20% to the secondary server

98
Q

On what port does DHCP failover listen for failover traffic?

UDP port 67
UDP port 68
TCP port 647
TCP port 648

A

TCP port 647

99
Q

What term describes the network transmissions method where packets are sent from one to a specific group of other hosts?

Multicast
Unicast
Anycast
Broadcast

100
Q

Which of the following represents the best usage of a superscope in DHCP?

To add IP addresses to the available lease pool
To add more IP addresses in a new subnet
To ease administrative overhead for management of DHCP
To allow routers to recognize new subnets

A

To add more IP addresses in a new subnet

Windows Server (70-412) (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions