Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What are the causes of skeletal malocclusion?

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Pathology
  3. Congenital - clefts, syndromes
  4. Developmental - condylar hyperplasia
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2
Q

What is the cause of most malocclusions?

A

Developmental

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3
Q

What are the three ways to treat skeletal malocclusion?

A
  1. Growth redirection
  2. Orthodontic camouflage
  3. Orthognathic surgery
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4
Q

T/F: Orthodontic camouflage involves moving the teeth in the opposite direction that you would for pre-surgical orthodontics.

A

True

Camo - make it better
Pre-surgical - make it worse

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5
Q

_______ have allowed for more tooth movement than is described in the envelope of discrepancy.

A

TADs

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6
Q

What are the advantages of orthognathic surgery?

A
  1. Increased stability
  2. Decreased treatment time
  3. Improved occlusion
  4. Improved esthetics
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7
Q

What are the indications for orthognathic surgery?

A
  1. Skeletal discrepancy w/ masticatory difficulty
  2. Impingement on palatal tissue
  3. Speech difficulty
  4. OSA
  5. Psychosocial problems
  6. Esthetics
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8
Q

T/F: There is pre and post-surgical orthodontics involved with surgery.

A

True

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9
Q

T/F: All facial types can have a normal occlusion.

A

True

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10
Q

T/F: Patients with a straight profile are usually skeletal and dental class I.

A

True

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11
Q

T/F: Convex profile is usually associated with skeletal and dental class III.

A

False

Convex = class II
Concave = class III
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12
Q

T/F: Class II is more common than class III.

A

True

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13
Q

T/F: Class II needs surgery more often than class III.

A

False

40% class III needs surgery

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14
Q

T/F: The vertical position, AP position, and transverse position of surgery are all determined by the stent.

A

False

AP and transverse = stent
Vertical = k-wire

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15
Q

T/F: Most patients with BSSO surgery do not experience any nerve damage.

A

False

Many experience some post-op symptoms, but nearly all of them are still happy

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16
Q

What is a stable treatment often used for anterior open bites?

A

LeFort I Osteotomy

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17
Q

How long is the jaw wired shut after LeFort surgery?

A

Shut with liquid diet for 3 days

6 weeks soft diet

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18
Q

T/F: Clefts can cause large maxillary AP deficiencies.

A

True

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19
Q

Who benefits the most from distraction?

A

Cleft patients

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20
Q

What is the key to reconstruction after trauma?

A

Re-establish proper occlusion

21
Q

What is a complication of mandibular fractures?

A

Some can cause patients to swallow their tongue and block airway

22
Q

T/F: Abrasions are very painful for patients.

A

True

Epithelial layer removed and nerves exposed

23
Q

When stitching a laceration involving the lip where should the stitches start?

A

Vermillion border

24
Q

What bacterial infection is common with animal bites?

A

Pasteurella multocida

Augmentin for 7 days

Cats have greater risk than dogs

25
Q

T/F: A fracture is more favorable if it is posterior to the teeth.

26
Q

What are the five principles of managing facial trauma?

A
  1. Reduction - put bone back
  2. Stabilization
  3. Immobilization
  4. Prevent infection
  5. Occlusion
27
Q

What types of fractures can be treated non-surgically?

A

Fractures without malocclusion and a compliant patient.

Ex. Subcondylar, greenstick

28
Q

Describe a closed reduction.

A

No incisions needed. Use the opposite arch as a handle to reduce fracture. Teeth wired shut for 4-8 weeks.

29
Q

Describe a open reduction with internal fixation.

A

Open to visualize fracture and fixate with plate/screws.

Can contaminate and cause more trauma

30
Q

What are the advantages of intraoral surgical approaches?

A

No external scar and no facial nerve damage

31
Q

What are the advantages of extraoral approach surgical reduction?

A

Excellent access for reduction and fixation

32
Q

Clefting is the result of the failure of which processes to fuse?

A

Median nasal process and maxillary process

33
Q

What can be a major issue managing a patient with a cleft palate that goes up through the nose?

A

Impression material and fluoride can get stuck in the patients nose

34
Q

What are the various cleft diagnoses?

A
  1. Cleft palate
  2. Cleft lip w/ palate
  3. Cleft lip w/o palate
35
Q

Who is most likely to have a cleft lip with or without palate?

A

Asian male on the left side

36
Q

T/F: Females are more likely to have isolated cleft palate.

A

True

It is less common than cleft lip with or without palate

37
Q

What is the rule of 10s?

A

Describes how cleft lip should be treated.

At 10 weeks, 10 lbs

38
Q

When should the palate be repaired?

39
Q

What is a treatment for speech problems with a cleft? What are the negatives of this treatment?

A

Velopharyngeal flap to help with nasally speech.

Can lead to mouthbreathing and OSA

40
Q

At what point is it critical to have a bone graft done in the alveolus of a cleft patient?

A

At mixed dentition stage

41
Q

T/F: All unerupted teeth are impacted.

A

False

Impacted teeth do not erupt in the expected development time.

42
Q

What is the most common type of 3rd molar In the mandible?

A

Mesioangular (43%)

Generally the easiest to remove

43
Q

Which type of 3rd molars are the most difficult to remove?

A

Distoangular

44
Q

What is the least common type of 3rd molar?

A

Horizontal (mandible and maxilla)

45
Q

What is the most common third molar in the maxilla?

A

Vertical followed by distoangular

46
Q

What are the two indications for third molar removal?

A

Therapeutic - to treat current disease

Prophylactic - to prevent future problems

47
Q

What is the ideal patient selection for third molar removal?

A
  1. 2/3 root formation
  2. 18-25 yrs old
  3. Healthy
  4. No psychological contraindications
  5. No job restrictions to “numb lip”
48
Q

What are some contraindications to third molar removal?

A

Extreme ages old or young