Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

You are given the following information:
IP address: 192.168.1.11/24
What is the subnet Mask?

A

255.255.255.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

You are given the following information:
IP address: 192.168.1.11/24
what is the network id ?

A

192.168.1.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

You are given the following information:
IP address: 192.168.32.55 /21
What is the subnet Mask?

A

255.255.248.0/21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

You are given the following information:
IP address: 192.168.32.55 /21
what is the network id ?

A

192.168.32.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

You are given the following information:
IP address: 192.168.33.55 /21
What is the subnet Mask?

A

255.255.248.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

You are given the following information:
IP address: 192.168.33.55 /21
what is the network id ?

A

192.168.32.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

You are given the following information:
IP address: 192.168.45.54 /26
What is the subnet Mask?

A

255.255.255.192

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

You are given the following information:
IP address: 192.168.45.54 /26
what is the network id ?

A

192.168.45.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

• Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR )

A

a method for allocating IP

addresses and IP routing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

meaning of /24 subnet mask

A

• 11111111|11111111|11111111|00000000| ==> /24

255.255.255.0 ==> /24 subnet mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which addresses in a network or subnet can’t be assigned to an individual host?

A

The first and last addresses, 192.168.1.0

and 192.168.1.255

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

255.255.248.0

How do we get 248?

A
128 + 64 + 32 + 16 + 8 = 248
128 64 32 16 8 4 2 1
1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0
8 + 8 + 5 = 21 ===> /21
So: 255.255.248.0 ==> /21
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When installing Windows Server 2012 R2 you can choose between Server Core
Installation and Server with a GUI.

A

True- First introduced in Windows Server 2008, Server Core is a stripped-down
version of Windows Server 2012 R2 that does not contain any GUI, taskbar, or
Start menu. After logging on, you are presented with a command prompt window,
from which you perform all administrative actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The Server with a GUI option in Windows Server 2012 R2 different is from the Full
Installation option in Windows Server 2008 R2.

A

False—The Server with a GUI option in Windows Server 2012 R2 is equivalent
to the Full Installation option in Windows Server 2008 R2. If you choose this
option, you have the following choices that reflect the appearance and
functionality of the base server option: Server with a GUI, Minimal Server
Interface, and Full Desktop Experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The Windows Server 2012 R2 Essentials Edition enables a Windows Server
experience or a small office network with up to 15 users, and virtualization rights are
included.

A

False—This describes Windows Server 2012 R2 Foundation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard Edition is a robust, ideal platform for mediumsized offices that are designed upon a physical or minimally virtualized environment.

A

True–Two virtual instances are included

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A set of three charms (server with a GUI option) or five charms (full desktop
experience option) are provided with the Windows Server 2012 R2 GUI.

A

True—The charms lie along the right side of your screen. You can access these
charms by hovering your mouse pointer over the upper-right corner of the screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Windows Manager is a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) utility that replaces
the Computer Management console found in previous Windows Server versions and adds
considerable new management functionality.

A

False—This describes Server Manager. In particular, Server Manager includes
the management tools formerly part of the Manage Your Server, Configure Your Server,
and Add or Remove Windows Components applications in Windows Server 2003.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Server Core is the default install option and is recommended by Microsoft.

A

True– Server Core installs only those services, roles, and features required for
your server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Window Server 2012 R2 enables you to change between Server Core, Server with a
GUI, and vice versa by simply issuing a PowerShell command.

A

True—Converting between installation methods is possible because the GUI has
been introduced as a feature of Server 2012 R2 as opposed to a built-in interface
as part of the installation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

From Windows Server 2012 Foundation, you can easily upgrade to Window Server
2012 Essentials.

A

False—Windows Server 2012 Foundation upgrades are not supported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Active Directory Certificate Services is the Server role responsible for public key
infrastructure (PKI).

A

True—This role is used if you need to deploy and manage digital certificates.
New capabilities for 2012 R2 include integration with Server Manager, PowerShell
management, server core support, support for auto renewal of certificate for computers
enjoined to the domain, and so on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The server role responsible for managing and configuring the automated
configuration of IP addresses on clients is ________.

A

DHCP
New to Server 2012 R2 is a DHCP failover option allowing two servers
to share DHCP configurations for the purpose of redundancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The server role responsible for name resolution for the internal network as well as
Internet resources is ______.

A

DNS
DNS is a critical component for AD DS and other applications or
services integrated with the domain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

By doing some planning, an administrator can ________roles, features, operating system settings, user
data, and shares from a previous installation to Windows Server 2012 R2.

A

Migrate

Use the Windows Server Migration Tool for this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The primary function of the component _________is to enable you to remove roles
and features, including files, from the operating system.

A

Features on Demand
This not only enables you to maintain a smaller footprint by reducing
disk space, but also enables you to store content centrally, which is useful to support
remote installations. In the event you need to reinstall a feature, Windows prompts for
the location of these files.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The ________ role(s) provide(s) network access protection (NAP), 802.1X
authentication, and central policy management using RADIUS.

A

. Network policy and access services
Unlike Windows Server 2008 R2, Server 2012 R2 includes PowerShell
support for this role.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The ________ role enables you to configure, manage, and deploy images for
Windows operating systems over the network.

A

Windows Deployment Services (WDS). WDS uses the preboot execution
environment (PXE) function of network adapters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Windows Server Migration Tools are available as an installable feature using Server
Manager and can also be installed via ________.

A

PowerShell. The command is Install-WindowsFeature Migration –
ComputerName.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If your current operating system is Windows Server 2008 Standard/Enterprise with
SP2, what are your upgrade options?

A

Windows Server 2012/R2 Standard or 2012/R2 Datacenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Supported by recent operating systems, you can use the DISM command-line tool
along with a valid license key to perform an in-place license conversion.

A

DISM. You could convert from Windows Server 2012 R2 Standard to
Windows 2012 R2 Datacenter edition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When requiring additional roles beyond those available under Server Core, or if you
require GUI-based applications to be installed, consider the ________ install method.

A

Server with a GUI. Similarly, if a smaller footprint is not a concern or if
you just prefer a more traditional desktop user experience, choose the Server with a GUI install method. The Server with a GUI enables you to easily access Server Manager, MMC snap-ins, Control Panel, and so on using either a Minimal or Full
Desktop user interface as opposed to a command-line interface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When you first log on to a Windows Server 2012 R2 computer with the GUI
installed, ________opens by default.

A

Server Manager. If Server Manager is not open, you can open it by
selecting its tile on the new Start screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

You can use the command line, Windows ________, or remote methods to administer
a server running in Server Core mode.

A

PowerShell. You can also administer a Server Core computer from another
server that is configured with the Server with a GUI option or from a Windows 8.1
computer with the Remote Server Administration Tools installed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

_______ is the most robust edition of Window Server 2012

A

Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter. This edition provides all the
capabilities for running a highly virtualized, cloud-accessible networking
environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The charm that enables you to share files and folders with other users or send data to
another program without leaving the program you’re running is called ______.

A

Share. You can also email photos to others, update your Facebook page, or
send links to other programs. It is available with the Full Desktop Experience
installation option only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The Start screen includes ________for the most used server management tools. It
replaces the Start button and menu found in previous Windows versions dating back
to Windows 95 and Windows NT 4.0.

A

tiles. As in Windows 8.1, tiles are added to the Start screen when you install
many applications on the server. You can access the Start screen from the desktop by
hovering your mouse over the bottom-left corner of the screen and clicking, or by
pressing the Windows key.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

PowerShell

A

Command-line scripting tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Server core

A

A stripped-down version of Windows Server 2012 R2 that does not contain any GUI,
taskbar, or Start men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Windows Server 2012 R2 Foundation

A

Edition that enables a Windows Server experience or a small office network of up to
15 users

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Windows Server 2012 R2 Essentials

A

Edition that works well on small networks of up to 25 users and 50 devices. This
version provides preconfigured connectivity to cloud-based services, but no virtualization
rights are included

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Charms

A

Accessed by hovering your mouse pointer over the upper-right corner of the screen and
enabling you to perform several common tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Server Manager

A

Enables you to view and perform common server tasks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Active Directory Domain Services

A

Role responsible for the creation and management of an active directory database

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Active Directory Federation Services

A

Role that provides a seamless secure method for single sign on (SSO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Role

A

A specific function that a server performs on the network such as a file server or
terminal server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Features on Demand

A

Enables you to preserve space by completely removing roles and features along with
source files from the operating system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

You cannot upgrade a Window Server 2003 or older computer or a computer running
any client version of Windows to Windows Server 2012 R2.

A
True—You can upgrade a computer running Windows Server 2008 R2 with
Service Pack1 (SP1) or later to Windows Server 2012 R2.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

You cannot install the complete desktop experience on your server (including access
to Windows Store apps as in Windows 8 or Windows 8.1) using PowerShell.

A

False—You would use this PowerShell command: Install-WindowsFeature
Desktop Experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Membership in the Power Users group grants full access and control to the computer
and enables members to change and manage permissions and access to the computer

A

False—Members of the Power Users group do not have full access to the
computer. Members of the Administrators group do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The forest administrators, who are members of the Enterprise Admins group, are
automatically granted the ability to create an OU hierarchy in any domain within the
entire forest.

A

True— Domain administrators, who are members of the Domain Admins group
in each separate domain, by default are granted the right to create an OU
hierarchy within their own domain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Windows PowerShell Web Access provides a set of tools to be used with client
computers running Windows 8/8.1. It includes Server Manager, MMC snap-ins,
PowerShell cmdlets, and additional command-line tools used to manage Windows
Server 2012 R2 Core and Full installations.

A

False—This describes Remote Server Administration tools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Windows PowerShell Desired State Configuration works through the push method
only.

A

False– DSC works via two basic methods: Pull and Push

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

DISM enables an administrator to mount an image file, similar to mounting a hard
disk, and issue commands to update the image.

A

True–When the updating is complete, changes are committed to the image and
the file is unmounted, in which case the image is ready for the next deployment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

On new installations of Windows Server 2012 R2, remote installation is off by
default.

A

False– Before remote management can occur, the remote servers must be
configured to enable remote management. This is on by default for new installations but can be changed by navigating to the Local Server properties of
Server Manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

NIC Teaming is a strategy used to increase network availability and overall
performance. Multiple network interface cards are joined together and operate as a
single entity

A

True—NIC Teaming is also known as Load Balancing/Fail Over (LBFO).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The NIC teaming property that refers to the ability of the NIC Team to manage the
connections to the switches and keeps track of the teams’ connection state is static
teaming.

A

False—This describes switched independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Microsoft’s recommended processor speed for Windows Server 2012 R2 is
________.

A

2 GHz or faster

The minimum speed is 1.4 GHz.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Microsoft’s recommended RAM for Windows Server 2012 R2 is ______.

A

2 GHz or greater

The minimum requirement is 512 GB of RAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

At startup, Windows Server 2012 Core presents _______.

A

Only a command window

Server Core has no start screen or desktop icons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The Server Core command ________ configures and manages a series of common
Server Core installation properties.

A

sconfig.com
The Server Core version of Windows Server 2012 requires knowledge
of command-line tools.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Typically found in medium-to-large organizations, the ________ delegation model
focuses on driving standards and consistent management from a central site or from a
central group of administrators

A

Centralized
. In many cases, the centralized approach is what the decentralized model
evolves into over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The built-in local group in Windows Server 2012 R2 where members are granted full
access and control to the computer is the ________ group

A

Administrators. Members are allowed to change and manage permissions
and access to the computer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

One of the major benefits of Active Directory is that you can split up administrative
tasks among various individuals using the AD DS________.

A

Delegation of Control Wizard. You can assign different sets of
administrative responsibility to different users, and these can include segments of the
directory structure such as OUs or sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Windows PowerShell Desired State Configuration works through the basis of
defining configurations within scripts. Using Notepad, you can build a custom DSC
configuration. Configurations contain several components, all of which are organized
within a configuration block. The keyword ________ tells PowerShell that a specific
configuration is to follow.

A

Answer: Configuration. Using Notepad, you can build a custom DSC configuration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Microsoft has provided two methods for managing services, the ________ snap-in for
the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) and the Service Controller configuration
sc config command.

A

services.msc. Members of the local administrators group, account
operators, domain admins, or higher all have the ability to manage services by
default.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The Service Controller (SC) command ____ creates a new service in the Service
Control Managers database.

A

SC Create. The startup type, location to the binary path, display name, and
so on are among the configuration options for this command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

________ is the technique of having multiple network interface cards joined together
and operate as a single entity.

A

NIC Teaming. This provides high availability and increased throughput.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The NIC Teaming mode _______ requires custom configurations on the switch and
host to identify the links as being part of the team.

A

Static Teaming. Static Teaming is considered a Switched Dependent mode
because it depends on the switch for configuration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The NIC Teaming load balancing mode ________ balances outbound network traffic
across all active NICs. Inbound traffic is received by only one NIC in the team.

A

Address Hash. This mode is typically seen with web servers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

The Server Manager tool provides the ability to manage local or ________ servers
from a central location.

A

remote. Remote servers may be located in the same building or at an
outside location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

_____________is the default Windows Server 2012 R2 installation.

A

Server Core. The full GUI version still represents the most easily managed
version of the server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Service

A

An application that runs in the background without a traditional user interface or
requiring user interaction to complete its core function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Command prompt

A

Where all Server Core configuration tasks are performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Shared/Delegated

A
Delegation of server administration model typically adopted by large/enterprise class
organizations with a larger IT workforce
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Centralized

A

Delegation of server administration model typically found in medium to large
organizations, and it focuses on driving standards and consistent management from a
central site or from a central group of administrators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Users

A

Built-in local group with limited access to log on to the computer, and that allows users
to run applications, use local devices and peripherals, but not make administrative
changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Guests

A

Built-in local group whose users are granted virtually no access to the system other
than to use the Internet and basic applications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Desired State Configuration

A

PowerShell extension designed to enhance the levels of automation using PowerShell
4.0

80
Q

Failover

A

NIC Teaming concept of using multiple links in an Active/Passive configuration

81
Q

Load Balancing

A

Function of NIC Teaming and also a concept in which network traffic is split across
multiple links to provide increased throughput

82
Q

Sconfig.cmd

A

A text-based Windows Server 2012 R2 Server Core utility that enables you to
configure a series of common Server Core properties

83
Q

You can subdivide your namespace within Active Directory in two ways: separate
domains or organizational units (OUs).

A

True—In many instances, the use of separate domains or OUs would serve just as
well as the other.

84
Q

A Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter cannot act as a domain controller.

A

False—The server must be running any edition (Foundation, Essentials, Standard,
or Datacenter) of Windows Server 2012 R2.

85
Q

When first installing AD DS, DNS is required for Active Directory

A

True— If the Active Directory Installation Wizard cannot find a suitable DNS
server, you will be prompted to install one.

86
Q

Active Directory requires that a Windows DNS server that supports service (SRV)
resource records is present.

A

False—There must be a DNS server present, but this can be any server running
Windows 2000 or later or a UNIX server running Berkeley Internet Name
Domain (BIND) 4.9.7 or later.

87
Q

To make use of the functionality provided by Windows Server 2012 Active Directory,
you must upgrade all domain controllers to Windows Server 2012 and upgrade the
functional levels accordingly.

A

True—A domain running at the Windows Server 2012 R2 domain functional
level located in a forest running at a lower functional level supports domain-based
Windows Server 2012 R2 Active Directory features but not forest-based ones.

88
Q

A user principal name (UPN) is in a format similar to user@domain, such as
user1@que.com.

A

True—The first part uniquely identifies the user, and the second part by default
identifies the domain to which he belongs.

89
Q

You can use Server Manager to remove Active Directory, and the server will remain a
Domain Controller

A

False—Removing Active Directory demotes the server to a Member Server

90
Q

. The first domain installed is the root domain in its forest

A

True—The forest itself is also a namespace; in this case, it is a disjointed
namespace.

91
Q

You can install AD DS without installing a domain controller.

A

True—You might do this if you are configuring your server for a directoryrelated application such as Exchange Server.

92
Q
  1. Installing Active Directory requires additional storage of 1000 MB for the Active
    Directory database and SYSVOL folder, plus at least 100 MB for the transaction log
    files.
A

False—Additional storage of 500 MB for the Active Directory database is
required.

93
Q

Which of these is not a reason to set up an organization with separate domains for
discrete divisions of the company?
a. It can be administered either centrally or locally. The concept of delegation of
control in AD DS facilitates the assignment of individuals as local administrators.
b. This approach can facilitate decentralized administration of network resources.
c. For multiple Internet domain names, the domain can be built to mirror the
Internet functionality.
d. Multiple domains representing different geographical locations might reduce
the amount of replication traffic across low wide area network (WAN) links.

A

A. The idea of delegation is the reason to use organizational units, not to
separate divisions into domains.

94
Q

The main difference between trees and forests is ______________________.

A

Domains within a tree share a contiguous namespace, whereas domains located
in different trees in the same forest have a disjointed namespace.
For example, que.com and examcram.com are root domains in two
separate trees of the same forest.

95
Q

What is the main reason not to employ a single tree in all multiple domain enterprises?

A

Two companies merge and want to maintain their separate identities.

Their identities and indeed their Internet namespaces are best served
by having more than one tree in the forest.

96
Q

To install Active Directory on a Windows Server 2008 R2, there must be additional
disk space of _________________________.

A

500 MB for the Active Directory database and SYSVOL folder, plus at least
100 MB for the transaction log file

The larger the proposed network, the more disk space is necessary.
And in practical terms, you should have several gigabytes of available space at a
minimum.

97
Q

. _________ is a command-line tool used to manage Active Directory Domain Services
and Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services.

A

ndtsutil

This is most used for tasks such as performing database maintenance,
performing authoritative restores of deleted objects, or modifying virtually any
attribute of any object in the database.

98
Q

The first domain installed is the root domain in its ____________.

A

. Forest

This also establishes a new forest.

99
Q

When you install Active Directory, you must be a ________________ on the server on
which you install Active Directory to proceed

A

Local administrator

Being a local administrator allows you to install Active Directory

100
Q

When installing the first domain controller in a domain, one of the additional options
that is not available but is selected is global catalog because ____________________.

A

When installing the first domain controller, it must be a global catalog server

When installing the first domain controller, there must be one global
catalog server, and the first DC is the only one available for the role

101
Q

To perform unattended installations of AD DS (or to script the installation of multiple
domain controllers, you can use the ________ command.

A

dcpromo.exe

To do this, you need an answer file

102
Q

The ________utility prepares a Windows 2003 or Windows Server 2008 forest or
domain for receiving domain controllers running Windows Server 2012 R2.

A

adprep

It has several parameters, the most important of which are forestprep,
which prepares the forest, and domainprep, which prepares the domain.

103
Q

You must run the Adprep /forestprep command on the ___________ of the forest
first.

A

Schema master

It prepares the forest for Windows Server 2012 R2 domain
controllers. It is run on the schema master of the forest and extends the schema to
receive the new Windows Server 2012 R2 enhancements. After this command is
run, its changes must be allowed to replicate across all domains of the forest.

104
Q

To run the Adprep /forestprep command, you must be a member of the _________
group

A

To run this command, you must be logged in with an account that is a
member of the Enterprise Admins, Schema Admins, and Domain Admins groups
in the forest root domain.

105
Q

The tool that assists you in migrating objects such as users, groups, and computers
between Active Directory domains in the same forest or in different forests is
___________.

A

Active Directory migration tool

This tool assists you in the potentially difficult task of restructuring
your AD DS forest structure.

106
Q

All domains in a tree are linked with two-way, ________ trust relationships.

A

Transitive

In other words, accounts in any one domain can access resources in
another domain, and vice versa.

107
Q

A(n) _______ is a convenient means of logging on to a domain from a computer
located in another domain in the forest or a trusted forest.

A

UPN

A user principal name (UPN) is a logon name specified in the format
of an email address, such as user@examcram.com.

108
Q

dcpromo.exe

A

The command-line utility used to promote a Windows Server 2012 R2 system to a
domain controller

109
Q

Active Directory migration tool

A

The tool that assists you in migrating objects such as users, groups, and computers
between Active Directory domains in the same forest or in different forests

110
Q

User principal name

A

Enables a user to more easily log on to a domain in the forest other than the domain to
which the user belongs

111
Q

Adprep

A

Utility that prepares a Windows 2003 or Windows Server 2008 forest or domain for
receiving domain controllers running Windows Server 2012 R2

112
Q

Domain controller (DC)

A

A server capable of performing authentication and which holds a copy of the Active
Directory database

113
Q

Install from Media (IFM)

A

Option that enables you to install a domain controller from a series of files created
from an existing domain controller in the domain

114
Q

Security identifier (SID)

A

Uniquely identifies a user, group, or computer account

115
Q

Root domain

A

First domain installed in its forest

116
Q

Separate domains and organizational units

A

One of two ways to subdivide the namespace within Active Directory

117
Q

Windows Azure

A

Cloud-based computing infrastructure that enables you to build, deploy, and manage
services and applications including Active Directory throughout a global network

118
Q

DNS was developed as a hierarchical name resolution system that is distributed
among servers located around the world.

A

True—DNS resolves Fully Qualified Domain Names to IP addresses.

119
Q

DNS server software cannot refer queries to other DNS servers as required.

A

False—Local DNS servers can refer queries to external locations to other DNS
servers that can respond with an IP address.

120
Q

When expressing the names of the top-level domains, the root domain is not included
in the name.

A

True—The root node uses a “.” (dot) as its null label.

121
Q

Responsibility of designing, naming, and maintaining these lower-level domains or
subdomains rests with the administrator of the DNS server at the second-level
domain.

A

True— Authority for these subdomains can be delegated to organizations so that
they can manage their own namespace.

122
Q

Even though the FQDN contains both the hostname and domain name, two hosts
from different domains cannot share the same hostname.

A

False—Because the FQDN contains both the hostname and domain name, two
hosts can share the same hostname, for example, search.Microsoft.com and
search.zdnet.com.

123
Q

Each DNS server provides for several types of zones, including primary, secondary,
stub, and Active Directory-integrated. You can have forward lookup zones in each of
these zone types and reverse lookup zones in the primary zone only

A

False—You can have forward and reverse lookup zones in primary, secondary,
stub, and Active Directory-integrated zones.

124
Q

Either primary or stub zones can be integrated with AD DS.

A

True– It is not possible to create an Active Directory-integrated secondary zone.

125
Q

Pointer records are created automatically if you have specified this option in the New
Host dialog box or if the appropriate option has been configured at the DHCP server
for dynamic DNS.

A

True—PTR records are used to resolve IP addresses to Fully Qualified Domain
Names.

126
Q

Each computer in a domain must have a hostname

A

True—The hostname and the domain name comprise the Fully Qualified Domain
Name.

127
Q

A DNS client is also called a resolver

A

True—Any computer requesting the services of DNS is a resolver

128
Q

The combination of a hostname, an organization’s domain name, and the Internet toplevel domain name creates a ________ that is unique across the Internet.

A

Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)

Hostnames used inside domains are added at the beginning of the domain
name and are also referred to by their FQDNs.

129
Q

A secondary zone is an additional copy of DNS zone data hosted on a DNS server
that is another source for this zone information.

A

Secondary

This server obtains the zone information from the server hosting the
corresponding primary zone.

130
Q

A(n) ________ is a range of IP addresses within a scope that you do not want to have
used by DHCP in leasing addresses to clients.

A

Exclusion

Typically, these are IP addresses of computers such as servers configured
with static IP addresses

131
Q

Using the ________ update method, as a DHCP server hands out IP addresses, it
registers the client hostname or FQDN and IP address with the DNS server. If the
hostname or IP address changes, the DNS record is updated accordingly.

A

Dynamic

DNS resource records can be updated manually, dynamically, or
statically.

132
Q

The ________ Record identifies the mail exchange server responsible for managing
mail flow in your organization.

A

This describes Mail Exchanger (MX) records. MX records are especially
important when dealing with DNS servers responsible for the public IP address
ranges.

133
Q

The top of the DNS hierarchy is called the ________domain

A

root. The root node uses a null label and is specified by “.” (a period or
dot) .

134
Q

In Windows Server 2012 R2, DNS is present as a server ________.

A

role. You can install DNS on any server by using the Add Roles and
Features Wizard

135
Q

In an _______ DNS query, the queried name server provides the best answer it
currently has to the resolver

A

iterative. A DNS server typically performs this type of query to other DNS
servers after it has received a recursive query from a resolver.

136
Q

Each DNS name server stores information about a discrete portion of the Internet
namespace. Such a portion is known as a(n)________.

A

zone. The DNS server that is primarily responsible for each zone is
considered to be authoritative for that zone.

137
Q

When you first install DNS on a server connected to the Internet, it should download
the latest set of root ________ automatically

A

hints. This is a text file that contains resource records for every available
root server.

138
Q

A host resource record maps the FQDN of any computer (host) in the domain to its IP
address. Normally, the appropriate host record is dynamically added or updated when
the host obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. An A resource record is used on an
IPv4 network, and an ________ resource record is used on an IPv6 network.

A

AAAA. If your network is configured to use both IPv4 and IPv6, each host
will have both A and AAAA resource records.

139
Q

________ forwarding is the relaying of a DNS request for zone information for
specific domains from one server to another one.

A

Conditional. This occurs when the first server is unable to process the
request.

140
Q

________-level domains include .com, .org, .edu, and .gov.

A

Top. Along with about two dozen top-level domain names, there are also
two-letter ISO standard country name abbreviations used as top-level domains.

141
Q

If the DNS Server is hosting Active Directory ________ DNS Zones, you must install
the AD DS role service on the server

A

Integrated. The DNS Server role is typically selected during the installation
of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) or via PowerShell.

142
Q

A ________ zone is a master copy of zone data hosted on a DNS server that is the
primary source of information for records found in this zone.

A

primary. This server is considered to be authoritative for this zone, and you
can update zone data directly on this server. It is also known as a master server.

143
Q

DNS Manager

A

The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in from which you can manage
most of the activities associated with operating a DNS server

144
Q

DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions)

A

Adds security to the DNS protocol by providing origin authority, data integrity, and
authenticated denial of existence

145
Q

Domain Name System

A

Hierarchical name-resolution system that resolves hostnames into IP addresses, and
vice versa

146
Q

Forward lookup query

A

DNS name-resolution process by which a hostname is resolved to an IP address

147
Q

Forwarding

A

Relaying of a DNS request from one server to another one when the first server cannot
process the request

148
Q

. Hostname

A

In DNS, the first or most-specific name assigned to an individual computer

149
Q

Recursion

A

Name-resolution technique wherein a DNS server queries other DNS servers on behalf
of the requesting client to obtain the required FQDN, which it returns to the client

150
Q

Reverse lookup query

A

DNS name-resolution process by which an IP address is resolved to a hostname

151
Q

Root hints

A

List of the names and IP addresses of DNS servers that are authoritative for the Internet
root domains

152
Q

Fully Qualified Domain Name

A

DNS domain name that unambiguously describes the location of the host within a
domain tree

153
Q

DHCP works by providing IP addressing information from a pool of addresses called
a scope.

A

True—The scope is defined in the DHCP server’s database.

154
Q

A DHCP server leases an IP address to the DHCP client for only a specified term.
The default term is 4 days.

A

False—The default lease term is 8 days. To continue using its leased IP address, a
DHCP client will attempt to renew its lease before it expires.

155
Q

Every DHCP server requires at least one scope with a pool of IP addresses available
for leasing to clients.

A

True–You can create a scope for each physical subnet on your network and use
this scope to define networking parameters.

156
Q

You can create only one scope on a DHCP server.

A

False—You can create multiple scopes to act as a backup method for other DHCP
servers and for assigning IP addresses specific to a subnet, such as default
gateway addresses.

157
Q

The DHCP option 003 Router specifies the IP address of the default gateway

A

True—The gateway is the interface to which the host sends packets, which are
destined for another subnet.

158
Q

A DHCP relay agent is a means to forward BOOTP broadcasts to other subnets in
search of a DHCP server.

A

True–A DHCP relay agent is a Windows Server 2012 R2 computer configured
with the Remote Access role (also known as Routing and Remote Access) to pass
BOOTP broadcasts.

159
Q

A filter is a routing technology that transmits data to all possible destinations on the
local subnet.

A

False– This describes a broadcast, permits the sender to send the data only once,
and all receivers can copy it.

160
Q

Stateless address configuration is a type of IPv6 address autoconfiguration that uses a
stateful address configuration protocol such as DHCPv6 to obtain nonlink-local
addresses and other IPv6 configuration parameters.

A

False—This describes stateful address configuration

161
Q

Dynamic Hyper Configuration Protocol is a service that allows a server to assign IP
addresses to host computers on a subnet.

A

False—This describes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol.

162
Q

PreBoot Execution Environment refers to a bootable ROM chip.

A

True—This enables client computers without an operating system to boot and
connect to the network for locating a WDS server.

163
Q

A DHCP server and a DHCP client both need to go through a ____-phase process
before DHCP configures the client with a working set of TCP/IP parameters.

A

4

Note that many of the communications are in the form of broadcasts. The
broadcast nature of these communications can present a major problem if routers on
an internetwork cannot forward these DHCP messages.

164
Q

DHCPv6 uses which types of address configuration?

A

Stateless address configuration and stateful address configuration

With both types of addresses, Router Advertisement messages include
address prefixes and stateful address configuration protocols.

165
Q

A(n) ________ is a range of IP addresses within a scope that you do not want to have
used by DHCP in leasing addresses to clients.

A

Exclusion

Typically, these are IP addresses of computers such as servers configured
with static IP addresses.

166
Q

With the release of Windows Server 2008 R2, Microsoft included a DHCP Filter
function. Windows Server 2012 and Windows Server 2012 R2 continue this function,
which allows you to specify a MAC address or range and allow or deny IP address
assignment on the network.

A

. Filter

This can be useful if you have a collection of servers, perhaps a
development pool of virtual machines you don’t want to receive IP addresses from a
particular DHCP server.

167
Q

In an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain, you must authorize the
DHCP server in Active Directory before it can lease IP addresses. This is to prevent
rogue DHCP servers from leasing improper IP addresses that would result in
communication problems.

A

rogue

When a domain controller or member server running DHCP starts up, it
queries AD DS for the list of authorized servers as identified by their IP addresses. If
its IP address is not present on this list, the DHCP Server service does not complete
its startup sequence.

168
Q

If a DHCP client accepts an IP address, it can use the address for a predefined period
called a ________.

A

lease. If a client cannot obtain a lease of an IP address from a DHCP
server, it cannot initialize TCP/IP normally.

169
Q

In Windows Server 2012 R2, DHCP is installed and configured as a server role.
Before installing DHCP, ensure that the server is configured with a ________IP
address that is compatible with the scope that you will be configuring for lease
purposes.

A

static. The DHCP server needs to have a static rather than a dynamic IP
address.

170
Q

In addition to PowerShell, you can also use ________commands to perform DHCP
management tasks from the command line, including creation of scopes.

A

netsh. You can use PowerShell or netsh; although Microsoft now favors the
use of PowerShell cmdlets

171
Q

In configuring DHCP scope properties, there is a setting that enables you to
automatically update the host (A) and pointer (PTR) records on the authoritative
________ servers.

A

DNS or Domain Name Service. DNS provides a name to the IP address
resolution.

172
Q

You can configure DHCP so that a DHCP server always assigns the same IP address
to a client computer. This feature is known as a client ________.

A

reservation. A reservation maps the IP address to a specific MAC address
and is useful for configuring servers that must always be reached at the same IP
address with a specified set of options.

173
Q

To authorize your DHCP server, you must be a member of the ________ Admins
group.

A

Enterprise. Authorization of a DHCP server in Active Directory helps
prevent rogue DHCP servers from leasing improper IP addresses.

174
Q

The ________ protocol is a UDP network protocol used by a network client to obtain
its IP address automatically.

A

Bootstrap or BOOTP. This is usually done during the bootstrap process
when a computer is starting up.

175
Q
Vendor class is a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_class used to identify a client’s vendor type and
configuration when obtaining a DHCP lease.
A
options. You can use the vendor class ID option (code 60) to specify vendor
classes.
176
Q

In Windows Server 2012/R2, the DHCP relay agent service is a component of
________.

A

RRAS or Routing and Remote Access Service. A DHCP relay agent is a
server configured to relay DHCP broadcast messages from one ________ to another

177
Q

When the Managed Address Configuration (M) flag is set to ________, DHCPv6 is
not used, and stateless addresses are obtained.

A

0.When set to 1, DHCPv6 is used to assign stateful addresses to IPv6
clients.

178
Q

Client reservation

A

A DHCP mechanism that ensures that a client always gets the same reserved IP address

179
Q

DHCP scope

A

A range of IP addresses on a DHCP server that is available for the server to lease to
client computers

180
Q

Lease

A

A predefined interval of time for which an IP address obtained from a DHCP server is
valid

181
Q

Other Stateful Configuration (O) flag

A

A parameter that determines how additional IPv6 configuration parameters are
obtained

182
Q

Managed Address Configuration (M) flag

A

A parameter that determines when DHCPv6 is used to obtain IPv6 stateful addresses

183
Q

Reservation

A

An IP address configured so that DHCP always assigns it to a specific DHCP client

184
Q

PreBoot Execution Environment

A

Enables client computers without an operating system to boot and connect to the
network for locating a WDS server

185
Q

Exclusion

A

Range of IP addresses within a scope that is configured to not be leased by DHCP to
clients

186
Q

Broadcast

A

Range of IP addresses within a scope that is configured to not be leased by DHCP to
clients

187
Q

User class

A

Used to differentiate clients according to their type, such as desktop, laptop, or server
computer

188
Q

In PowerShell commands (often called cmdlets) have the form:

A

verb-noun
● that is a verb indicating the action and a noun indicating the object for
example:
get-childitem

189
Q

Windows PowerShell
○ Windows PowerShell ISE
which is best used for scripting?

A

Windows PowerShell ISE

190
Q

What command records all of your work in powershell?

A

start-transcript

191
Q

How do you get help in powershell?

A

get-help

192
Q

How do you get services in powershell?

A

Get-Service

193
Q

How do you exclude in powershell?

A

> get-service -name win* -exclude winrm

194
Q

How do you view running services in powershell?

A

> get-service | where-object {$_.Status -eq “Running”}

195
Q

If statements in powershell

A
$a = 5
If($a -eq 5)
{
'$a equals 5’
}

Output:
$a equals 5

196
Q

For loops in powershell

A

for ($a = 50; $a -ge 0; $a=$a-10)
{
$a
}

Output:
50
40
30
20
10
0
For($i = 0; $i -le 5; $i++)
{
'$i equals ' + $i
}
Output:
$i equals 0
$i equals 1
$i equals 2
$i equals 3
$i equals 4
$i equals 5
197
Q

Difference between exit and break

A

Exit exits the script

break exits the current loop