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PSYC 1000 > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is psychology?

A

Using the scientific approach to understand how we process information acquired by our senses and experience emotions, and how those affect our actions; the scientific study of behaviour, thought and experience, and how they can be affected by physical, mental, social and environmental factors

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2
Q

What is the principle of parsimony?

A

The simplest (most parsimonious) of all competing explanations of a phenomenon should be the one we accept

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3
Q

What does ‘falsifiable’ mean?

A

The hypothesis is precise enough that it could be proven false

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4
Q

What is psuedoscience?

A

An idea that is presented as science but does not actually utilize basic principles of scientific thinking/procedures

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5
Q

What is scientific literacy?

A

The ability to understand, analyze, and apply scientific information

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6
Q

What is the biopsychosocial method?

A

A means of explaining behaviour as a product of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors

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7
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

A testable prediction about processes that can be observed and measured

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8
Q

What is a theory?

A

An explanation for a broad range of observations that also generates new hypotheses and integrates numerous findings into a coherent whole; not the same as opinions/beliefs, are not equally plausible, and the quality is not determined by the # of people who believe it

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9
Q

What does ‘critical thinking’ mean?

A

Critical thinking involves exercising curiosity and skepticism when evaluating the claims of others, and with our own assumptions and beliefs; question, avoid emotion, avoid over simplification, tolerate ambiguity, compare

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10
Q

What is the scientific method?

A

A way of learning about the world through collecting observations, developing theories to explain them, and using the theories to make predictions

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11
Q

What is determinism?

A

The belief that all events are governed by lawful, cause-and-effect relationships

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12
Q

What is functionalism?

A

The study of the purpose and function of behaviour and conscious experience; William James

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13
Q

What is psychoanalysis?

A

A psychological approach that attempts to explain how behaviour and personality are influenced by unconscious processes

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14
Q

What is Gestalt psychology?

A

An approach emphasizing that psychologists need to focus on the whole of perception and experience, rather than its parts

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15
Q

What is materialism?

A

The belief that humans, and other living things, are composed exclusively of physical matter

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16
Q

What is psychophysics?

A

The study of the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world

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17
Q

What is behaviourism?

A

An approach that dominated the first half of the 20th century of North American psychology and had a singular focus on studying only observable behaviour, with little to no reference to mental events or instincts as possible influences on behaviour; B.F. Skinner

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18
Q

What is empiricism?

A

A philosophical tenet that knowledge comes through experience

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19
Q

What is humanistic psychology?

A

It focuses on the unique aspects of each individual human, each person’s freedom to act, his or her rational thought, and the belief that humans are fundamentally different from other animals

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20
Q

What is dualism?

A

The belief that there are properties of humans that are not material (a mind or soul separate from the body)

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21
Q

What is clinical psychology?

A

The field of psychology that concentrates on the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders

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22
Q

What is cognitive psychology?

A

A modern psychological perspective that focuses on processes such as memory, thinking, and language

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23
Q

What is zeitgeist?

A

It refers to a general set of beliefs of a particular culture at a specific time in history

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24
Q

What is structuralism?

A

An attempt to analyze conscious experience by breaking it down into basic elements, and to understand how these elements work together; not valid/reliable; Titchener

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25
Q

What is social psychology?

A

The study of the influence of other people on our behaviour

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26
Q

How did psychology as a science emerge?

A

1 - Carefully measured observations that relied on introspection (not reliable, turn to systematic approach)
2 - Experiments

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27
Q

What is cognitivism?

A

Return to mental processes by using other approaches than introspection; Jean Piaget; objective confirmation

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28
Q

Why do we need a scientific approach?

A

Intuition is coloured by cognitive biases; Ex. hindsight bias, single case, perceiving order in incidental events; help organize

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29
Q

Why are we biased?

A

Simplify our thinking, helps us make decisions, protects how we view the world

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30
Q

What is an operational definition?

A

Statements that describe the procedures and specific measures used to record observations; objective/measurable, over simplification

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31
Q

What is knowledge mobilization?

A

Obligation to tell others; peer review; act of putting knowledge generated through research to active use

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32
Q

What are the six key principles of scientific thinking?

A

Falsifiability, replicability, extraordinary claims, Occam’s razor (simpler explanation?), ruling out rival hypotheses, correlation vs. causation

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33
Q

What is reliability?

A

Consistent and stable answers across multiple observations and points in time; Test re-test reliability, internal consistency

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34
Q

What is a variable?

A

The object or event being measured

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35
Q

What is the Hawthorne effect?

A

Behaviour change that occurs as a result of being observed; solution = unobtrusive measure

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36
Q

What is an appeal to common sense?

A

A claim that appears to be sound, but lacks supporting scientific evidence

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37
Q

What is a random sample?

A

A sampling technique in which every individual of a population has an equal chance of being included

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38
Q

What is the placebo effect?

A

A measurable and experienced improvement in health or behaviour that cannot be attributable to a medication or treatment; participant believes in the effectiveness of the manipulation; solution = control group with double-blind study

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39
Q

What is a population?

A

The group that researchers want to generalize about

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40
Q

What is a sample?

A

A select group of population members

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41
Q

What is anecdotal evidence?

A

An individual’s story or testimony about an observation or event that is used to make a claim as evidence

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42
Q

What are objective measurements?

A

The measure of an entity or behaviour that, within an allowed margin of error, is consistent across instruments and observers

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43
Q

What are convenience samples?

A

Samples of individuals who are the most readily available

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44
Q

What is social desirability?

A

Research participants respond in ways that increase the chances that they will be viewed favourably

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45
Q

What is replication?

A

The process of repeating a study and finding a similar outcome each time

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46
Q

What is a single-blind study?

A

A study in which participants do not know the true purpose of the study, or else do not know which type of treatment they are receiving (ex. a placebo or drug)

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47
Q

What is generalizability?

A

The degree to which one set of results can be applied to other situations, individuals, or events

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48
Q

What is an “appeal to authority”?

A

The belief in an “expert’s” claim even when no supporting data or scientific evidence is present

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49
Q

What are “demand characteristics”?

A

Inadvertent cues given off by the experimenter or the experimental context that provide information about how participants are expected to behave

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50
Q

What is “validity”?

A

The degree to which an instrument or procedure actually measures what it claims to measure

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51
Q

What is “ecological validity”?

A

The results of a laboratory study can be applied to or repeated in the natural environment

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52
Q

What is a double-blind study?

A

A study in which neither the participant nor the experimenter knows the exact treatment for any individual

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53
Q

What is “peer review”?

A

A process in which papers submitted in scholarly journals are read and critiqued by experts in the specific field of study

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54
Q

What are the 6 characteristics of quality scientific research?

A 
1 - Objective, valid, and reliable measurements
2 - Research can be generalized
3 - Reducing bias
4 - Findings are made public
5 - Results can be replicated
6 - Done ethically
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55
Q

What are ‘demand characteristics’?

A

They affect how participants respond in research studies; attempt to portray themselves in a positive light

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56
Q

What is ‘self-reporting’?

A

A method in which responses are provided directly by the people who are being studied, typically through face-to-face interviews, phone surveys, paper/pencil tests, and web-based questionnaires

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57
Q

What is a dependent variable?

A

The observation or measurement that is recorded during the experiment and subsequently compared across all groups

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58
Q

What is an independent variable?

A

The variable that the experimenter manipulates to distinguish between 2 or more groups

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59
Q

What is correlational research?

A

Involves measuring the degree of association between 2 or more variables

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60
Q

What are “within-subject designs”?

A

An experimental design in which the same participants respond to all types of stimuli or experience all experimental conditions

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61
Q

What is a control group?

A

The group that does not receive the treatment or stimuli targeting a specific behaviour; this group therefore serves as a baseline to which the experimental group is compared

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62
Q

What is a third variable problem?

A

The possibility that a third, unmeasured variable is actually responsible for a well-established correlation between 2 variables

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63
Q

What is quantitative research?

A

Examining an issue or behaviour by using numerical measurements and/or statistics

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64
Q

What is a case study?

A

An in-depth report about the details of a specific case; overgeneralization

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65
Q

What is qualitative research?

A

Examining an issue or behaviour without performing numerical measurements of the variables

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66
Q

What are illusory correlations?

A

Relationships that really exist only in the mind, rather than in reality

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67
Q

What are naturalistic observations?

A

Observations that unobtrusively observe and record behaviour as it occurs in the subject’s natural environment; without control or manipulation

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68
Q

What is quasi-experimental research?

A

A research technique in which the 2 or more groups that are compared are selected based on predetermined characteristics, rather than random assignment

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69
Q

What is research design?

A

A set of methods that allows a hypothesis to be tested

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70
Q

What is an experimental group?

A

The group in the experiment that receives a treatment or the stimuli targeting a specific behaviour

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71
Q

What is a confounding variable?

A

A variable outside of the researcher’s control that might affect or provide an alternative explanation for the results

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72
Q

What is random assignment?

A

A technique for dividing samples into 2 or more groups in which participants are equally likely to be placed in any condition of the experiment

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73
Q

What is ‘between-subjects design’?

A

An experimental design in which we compare the performance of participants who are in different groups

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74
Q

What is positive correlation?

A

Variables increase or decrease together

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75
Q

What is negative correlation?

A

Variables are inversely related (as one increases, the other decreases)

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76
Q

What do experiments rely on?

A

Randomization and the manipulation of an independent variable to show cause and effect

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77
Q

Which research method is most common?

A

Experimental, because the primary goal is to examine causes

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78
Q

How do researchers control for external factors?

A
  1. Random assignment, and 2. Standardizing procedures
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79
Q

What is statistical inference?

A

Start with the assumption that there is no difference between conditions (null hypothesis); if probability is <5%, we can reject the null

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80
Q

What is debriefing?

A

When researchers explain the true nature of the study, and especially the nature of and reason for any deceptions

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81
Q

What is informed consent?

A

A potential volunteer must be informed (know the purpose, tasks, and risks involved in the study) and give consent (agree to participate based on the information provided) without pressure

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82
Q

What is the research ethics board (REB)?

A

A committee of researchers and officials at an institution charged with the protection of research participants

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83
Q

What is deception?

A

Misleading or only partially informing participants of the true topic or hypothesis under investigation

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84
Q

Why use animal testing?

A
  1. Research questions affecting medical/public health cannot be answered without animal testing, 2. Ethics may not allow research on humans, 3. Can control genetic/environmental variables
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85
Q

What is construct validity?

A

The extent to which the variables in a study truly represent the abstract concept of interest to the researcher

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86
Q

What is experimenter bias?

A

The experimenter’s expectations may influence the results; Solution = double-blind procedure

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87
Q

What is anonymity?

A

Anonymity means that each individual’s responses are recorded without any identifying information that could link a response to a particular individual

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88
Q

What is confidentiality?

A

The results will be seen only by the researcher

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89
Q

What does it mean to do ethical research?

A

1 - Clear benefits of the research to society and those have to outweigh the risks imposed on participants
2 - Participants need to have the opportunity to provide informed consent

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90
Q

What are stem cells?

A

A unique type of cell that does not have a predestined function; cell ‘virgin’ can take any function in the body if in the appropriate environment

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91
Q

What is an action potential?

A

A wave of electrical activity that originates at the beginning of the axon near the cell body and rapidly travels down its length; a neural impulse that travels to the terminal buttons by the axon is generated by moving positive and negative charges (akin to a wave)

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92
Q

What are agonists?

A

Drugs that enhance or mimic the effects of a neurotransmitter’s action; fills and activates receptor site; L-dopa for Parkinson’s disease

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93
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

A brain structure that regulates basic biological needs and motivational systems

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94
Q

What are glial cells?

A

Specialized cells of the nervous system that are involved in mounting immune responses in the brain, removing waste, and synchronizing the activity of the billions of neurons that constitute the nervous system

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95
Q

What is resting potential?

A

Relatively stable state during which the cell is not transmitting messages

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96
Q

What is the all-or-none principle?

A

Individual nerve cells fire at the same strength every time an action potential occurs; the signal strength = frequency of firing

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97
Q

What is serotonin?

A

A monoamine involved in regulating mood, sleep, aggression and appetite; undersupply linked to depression symptoms

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98
Q

What are the adrenal glands?

A

A pair of endocrine glands located adjacent to the kidneys that release stress hormones, such as cortisol and epinephrine

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99
Q

What is myelin?

A

A fatty sheath that insulates axons from one another, resulting in increased speed and efficiency of neural communication

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100
Q

What is acetylcholine?

A

One of the most widespread neurotransmitters within the body, found at the junctions between nerve cells and skeletal muscles; it is very important for voluntary movement; attention/memory/learning; Huntingdon’s disease

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101
Q

What are antagonists?

A

Inhibit neurotransmitter activity by blocking receptors or preventing synthesis of a neurotransmitter; curare on darts

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102
Q

What is endorphin?

A

A hormone produced by the pituitary gland and the hypothalamus that functions to reduce pain and induce feelings of pleasure

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103
Q

What are synapses?

A

The microscopically small spaces that separate individual nerve cells

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104
Q

What does ‘reuptake’ mean?

A

A process whereby neurotransmitter molecules that have been released into the synapse are reabsorbed into the axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron

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105
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

The chemicals that function as messengers allowing neurons to communicate with each other; different neurotransmitters have different receptor sites (keys/locks)

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106
Q

What is dopamine?

A

A monoamine neurotransmitter involved in such varied functions as mood, control of voluntary movement, and processing of rewarding experiences; Parkinson’s disease, ADHD

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107
Q

What is glutamate?

A

Most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the brains of vertebrates; learning/memory; oversupply = migraine/seizures

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108
Q

What is the pituitary gland?

A

The master gland of the endocrine system that produces hormones and sends commands about hormone production to the other glands of the endocrine system

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109
Q

What is an axon?

A

Transports information in the form of electrochemical reactions from the cell body to the end of the neuron

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110
Q

What is GABA (gamma-amino butyric acid)?

A

The primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of the nervous system, meaning that it prevents neurons from generating action potentials; lowers arousal, sleep, learning/memory; Alcohol increases GABA activity

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111
Q

What are dendrites?

A

Small branches radiating from the cell body that receive messages from other cells and transmit those messages toward the rest of the cell

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112
Q

What is norepinephrine/noradrenaline?

A

A monoamine synthesized from dopamine molecules that is involved in regulating stress responses, including increasing arousal, attention and heart rate; undersupply linked to ADD

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113
Q

What are hormones?

A

Chemicals secreted by the glands of the endocrine system

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114
Q

What are neurons?

A

One of the major types of cells found in the nervous system, which are responsible for sending and receiving messages throughout the body

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115
Q

What is the cell body?

A

The part of a neuron that contains the nucleus that houses the cell’s genetic material

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116
Q

What is neurogenesis?

A

The formation of new neurons from immature stem cells

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117
Q

What is the refractory period?

A

(1) Brief period in which a neuron cannot fire; (2) a time period during which erection and orgasm are not physically possible

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118
Q

What is a synaptic cleft?

A

The minute space between the axon terminal (terminal button) and the dendrite

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119
Q

What are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?

A

(SSRIs) Slow reuptake process to increase serotonin and synapse; ex. Prozac

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120
Q

What was Descartes’ perspective?

A

The mind resides outside the body; known as dualism

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121
Q

What is the premise of psychology?

A

The human mind and the human brain are one

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122
Q

What is depolarization?

A

The ‘firing’ of a neuron, movement of charges

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123
Q

What is synaptic pruning?

A

Elimination and creation of new connections; A process in which weak and unused nerve cell connections are lost

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124
Q

What are nerves?

A

Consist of neural cables containing many axons

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125
Q

What is the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Arousing; fight or flight; prepare the body for action

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126
Q

What is the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Calming; rest and digest; helps maintain homeostatic balance in the presence of change

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127
Q

What is the endocrine system?

A

Set of glands that produce chemical messengers (hormones); slower but longer response than nervous system

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128
Q

What are hormones?

A

Substances synthesized by the endocrine glands and travel through the bloodstream (eg. epinephrine)

129
Q

What is the somatic nervous system?

A

Consists of nerves that control skeletal muscles, which are responsible for voluntary and reflexive movement; it also consists of nerves that receive sensory input from the body

130
Q

What are the occipital lobes?

A

Located at the rear of the brain and are where visual information is processed

131
Q

What is the corpus callosum?

A

A collection of neural fibres connecting the 2 brain hemispheres

132
Q

What is the brainstem?

A

The ‘stem’ or bottom of the brain and consists of 2 structures: the medulla and the pons; coordination of voluntary movement and balance

133
Q

What is the cerebellum?

A

(‘Little brain’) the lobe-like structure at the base of the brain that is involved in the monitoring of movement, maintaining balance, attention, and emotional responses

134
Q

What is the basal ganglia?

A

A group of 3 structures that are involved in facilitating planned movements, skill learning, and integrating sensory and movement information with the brain’s reward system

135
Q

What is the amygdala?

A

A group of nuclei in the medial portion (middle) of the temporal lobes in each hemisphere of the brain that facilitates memory formation for (negative) emotional events, mediates fear responses, and appears to play a role in recognizing and interpreting emotional stimuli, including facial expressions

136
Q

What is lesioning?

A

A technique that inflicts controlled damage to brain tissue so as to study its function

137
Q

What is the forebrain?

A

The most visibly obvious region of the brain, consists of all the neural structures that are located above the midbrain, including all of the folds/grooves on the outer surface of the brain; the multiple interconnected structures in the forebrain are critical to such complex processes as emotion, memory, thinking and reasoning

138
Q

What is transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS)?

A

A procedure in which researchers send an electromagnetic pulse to a targeted region of the brain, which can either stimulate or temporarily disable it

139
Q

What is functional MRI (fMRI)?

A

Brain imaging technology designed to measure changes in oxygen-rich blood flow, which is correlated with neural activity, throughout the brain

140
Q

What is the cerebral cortex?

A

The convoluted, wrinkled outer layer of the brain that is involved in multiple higher functions, such as thought, language, and personality

141
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system?

A

Portion of the peripheral nervous system responsible for regulating the activity of organs and glands

142
Q

What is the hindbrain?

A

A brain region consisting of structures that are critical to controlling basic, life-sustaining processes

143
Q

What is the midbrain?

A

Resides just above the hindbrain, primarily functions as a relay station between sensory and motor areas; tracking of visual stimuli and reflexes triggered by sound

144
Q

What are the parietal lobes?

A

Involved in our experiences of touch, as well as our bodily awareness; information about environment

145
Q

What is positron emission tomography (PET)?

A

A type of brain scanning technology in which a low level of radioactive glucose is injected into the blood, and its movement to regions of brain engaged in a particular task is measured

146
Q

What is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?

A

A technology designed to acquire highly detailed images of brain anatomy via exposure to a strong (and harmless) magnetic field; structural imaging

147
Q

What is the central nervous system (CNS)?

A

Consists of the brain and spinal cord

148
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

An integrated network involved in emotion and memory; hippocampus, amygdala, hypothalamus; processes information about internal states

149
Q

What is magnetoencephalography (MEG)?

A

Technology that measures magnetic fields created by the electrical activity of nerve cells in the brain

150
Q

What is the hippocampus?

A

Critical for learning and memory, particularly the formation of new episodic memories; mental maps

151
Q

What are the temporal lobes?

A

Located at the sides of the brain near the ears and are involved in hearing, language and some higher-aspects of vision such as object and face recognition; active in deaf with sign language

152
Q

What is neuroplasticity?

A

The capacity of the brain to change and rewire itself based on individual experience; Helps people recover from brain damage

153
Q

What are the frontal lobes?

A

Important in numerous higher cognitive functions, such as planning, regulating impulses and emotion, language production, and voluntary movement

154
Q

What is the thalamus?

A

A set of nuclei involved in relaying sensory information to different regions of the brain

155
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system?

A

A division of the nervous system that transmits signals between the brain and the rest of the body and is divided into 2 subcomponents (somatic and autonomic system)

156
Q

What is the electroencephalogram (EEG)?

A

A measure of brain activity that uses electrodes attached to the scalp to measure patterns of brain activity

157
Q

What have split-brain patients told us?

A

Corpus callosum surgically severed, optic chiasm stays intact; There are 2 hemispheres specialized for certain cognitive tasks; useful before brain imaging became available

158
Q

What is a computerized tomography (CT) scan?

A

A structural neuroimaging technique in which x-rays are sent through the brain by a tube that rotates around the head

159
Q

What is functional neuroimaging?

A

A type of brain scanning that provides information about which areas of the brain are active when a person performs a particular behaviour

160
Q

What is structural neuroimaging?

A

A type of brain scanning that produces images of the different structures of the brain

161
Q

What is diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)?

A

A form of structural neuroimaging allowing researchers or medical personnel to measure white-matter pathways in the brain

162
Q

What is a common process by which doctors diagnose brain injury?

A

1 - CT scan provides initial picture; 2 - MRI provides more detailed image (no metal fragments); 3 - DTI diagnoses white matter damage

163
Q

What is the medulla?

A

Base of brainstem; “life-sustaining” functions (i.e. breathing)

164
Q

What is the pons?

A

Helps coordinate unconscious movements; sleep

165
Q

What is the reticular formation?

A

A collection of numerous neural networks spread throughout brain stem; regulates cardiovascular system, breathing, sleep, consciousness, arousal; filter incoming sensory information

166
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

Associated with emotions/motivations; regulation of hunger/thirst/body temperature; Pleasure (dopamine producing cells); directs endocrine system via pituitary gland

167
Q

What is the cerebral cortex and how is it divided?

A

Processes external stimuli; Circonvolutions (folds); grey matter = cell bodies, white matter = axons; glial cells keep rest of brain healthy

168
Q

Why do we have such a large prefrontal cortex?

A

Executive function (good vs. bad, impulse control); top-down behaviour; social behaviour/relationships; humans can keep 150 relationships

169
Q

What is Broca’s area?

A

Verbal abilities, produces language

170
Q

What is Wernicke’s area?

A

Language comprehension

171
Q

What is left hemisphere’s role?

A

Generally, language and analytical thinking

172
Q

What is right hemisphere’s role?

A

Generally, visual and spacial tasks

173
Q

What is the preoperational stage?

A

(ages 2-7) The stage of development devoted to language development, using symbols, pretend play, and mastering the concept of conservation (Pretend play and egocentrism)

174
Q

What is the formal operational stage?

A

(ages 11-adulthood) The development of advanced cognitive processes such as abstract reasoning and hypothetical thinking (abstract logic and potential for mature moral reasoning)

175
Q

What is the sensitive period?

A

A window of time during which exposure to a specific type of environmental stimulation is needed for normal development of a specific ability

176
Q

What is the sensorimotor stage?

A

(birth-2 years) A time during which infants’ thinking about and exploration of the world are based on immediate sensory (eg. seeing, feeling) and motor (eg. grabbing, mouthing) experiences (object permanence and stranger anxiety)

177
Q

What is self-awareness?

A

The ability to recognize one’s individuality

178
Q

What is theory of mind?

A

The ability to understand that people have thoughts, beliefs, and perspectives that may be different from one’s own

179
Q

What is the caregiving behavioural system?

A

Focused on meeting the needs of others

180
Q

What is the attachment behavioural system?

A

Focused on meeting our own needs for security

181
Q

What is the core knowledge hypothesis?

A

The theory that infants have inborn abilities for understanding some key aspects of their environment

182
Q

What is temperament?

A

A general emotional reactivity typically found in infants that serves as the basis for the development of adult personality; person’s characteristic style and intensity of emotional reactivity

183
Q

What is inductive discipline?

A

Involves explaining the consequences of a child’s actions on other people, activating empathy for others’ feelings

184
Q

What is the concrete operational stage?

A

(ages 7-11) Developmental stage at which children develop skills in logical thinking and manipulating numbers (conservation and mathematical transformations)

185
Q

What is introjection?

A

The internalization of the conditional regard of significant others

186
Q

What is cognitive development?

A

The study of changes in memory, thought, and reasoning processes that occur throughout the lifespan

187
Q

What is attachment?

A

The enduring emotional bond formed between individuals; desire for physical closeness to caregiver

188
Q

What is scaffolding?

A

A highly attentive approach to teaching in which the teacher matches guidance to the learner’s needs

189
Q

What is conservation?

A

The knowledge that the quantity or amount of an object is not the same as the physical arrangement and appearance of that object

190
Q

What does egocentric mean?

A

Seeing the world only from one’s own perspective

191
Q

What is the zone of proximal development?

A

The concept that development is ideal when children attempt skills and activities that are just beyond what they can do alone, but they have guidance from adults who are attentive to their progress

192
Q

What is object permanence?

A

The ability to understand that objects exist even when they cannot be directly perceived

193
Q

What is assimilation?

A

A conservative process, whereby people fit new information into the belief systems they already possess; absorbs into existing schema

194
Q

What is “strange situation”?

A

A way of measuring infant attachment by observing how infants behave when exposed to different experiences that involve anxiety and comfort

195
Q

What is dishabituation?

A

The recovery of responsiveness to a habituated stimulus as the result of the presentation of a new stimulus

196
Q

What is habituation?

A

A decrease in responding with repeated exposure to a stimulus or event

197
Q

What is accommodation?

A

A creative process whereby people modify their belief structures based on experience; modifies schema

198
Q

What is Piaget’s Theory of Cognitive Development?

A

Sensorimotor -> Preoperational -> Concrete operational -> Formal operational

199
Q

What are the different attachment styles?

A

Secure (healthy relationships, distress at separation) or insecure (disorganized, anxious, avoidant)

200
Q

What does maturation mean?

A

Biologically-driven growth and development enabling a sequence of predictable cognitive and behavioural changes; nurture can adjust timing, but nature sets sequence

201
Q

What is cognition?

A

Mental activities that help us function, including problem-solving, storing knowledge, language

202
Q

What is a schema?

A

A ‘mental container’ that holds our experiences and organizes them according to similarities and differences

203
Q

How does Piaget describe development?

A

1 - combination of nurture and nature; 2 - occurs in steps

204
Q

What is socialization?

A

The process by which children learn norms and values that regulate their social environment

205
Q

What is authoritarian parenting?

A

Parents impose rules “because I said so” and expect obedience

206
Q

What is permissive parenting?

A

Parents submit to kids’ desires, not enforcing limits or standards for child behaviour

207
Q

What is authoritative parenting?

A

Parents enforce rules, limits, and standards but also explain, discuss, listen, and express respect for child’s ideas and wishes

208
Q

What happens when a child is deprived of attachment?

A

Difficulty forming secure attachments, increased risk for anxiety/depression, lowered intelligence, increased aggression

209
Q

What is spermarche?

A

During puberty, a male’s first ejaculation of sperm

210
Q

What is postconventional morality?

A

Considers rules and laws as relative

211
Q

What are primary sex traits?

A

Changes in the body that are part of reproduction

212
Q

What is conventional morality?

A

Regards social conventions and rules as guides for appropriate moral behaviour

213
Q

What is identity?

A

A clear sense of what kind of person you are, what types of people you belong with, and what roles you should play in society

214
Q

What is delay gratification?

A

Putting off immediate temptations in order to focus on longer-term goals

215
Q

What is menarche?

A

The onset of menstruation

216
Q

What is preconventional morality?

A

Characterized by self-interest in seeking reward or avoiding punishment

217
Q

What are secondary sex traits?

A

Changes in the body that are not part of reproduction

218
Q

What does identity formation consist of?

A

Exploring different values and behaviours, seeking inclusion in different social groups; eventual outcome = relatively stable and personally satisfying sense of self

219
Q

How do relationships change in adolescence?

A

Shift from family to friends/intimate relationships

220
Q

What are moral emotions?

A

These feelings are what lead to moral behaviour; reasoning follows as justification to self

221
Q

What leads to risk taking in adolescence?

A

Tug-of-war between emotional reward and prefrontal cortex; prefrontal cortex is still developing, so it is not often sufficient to override temptations

222
Q

What is menopause?

A

The termination of the menstrual cycle and reproductive ability in women

223
Q

What is dementia?

A

Mild to severe disruption of mental functioning, memory loss, disorientation, poor judgement, and decision making

224
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

A degenerative and terminal condition resulting in severe damage of the entire brain; buildup of proteins that clump together in spaces between neurons

225
Q

What is the socioemotional selectivity theory?

A

Describes how older people have learned to select for themselves more positive and nourishing experiences

226
Q

What are the four horsemen of the relationship apocalypse?

A

Being abusive, stonewalling, guilt-tripping, being contemptuous

227
Q

What is generativity?

A

Desire to have a positive impact on the world

228
Q

What do maturation, experience and education lead to?

A

Appreciating multiple answers, tolerate intellectual uncertainty, assess validity using critical thinking, accept multiple relativistic answers

229
Q

What are Lawrence Kohlberg’s levels of moral reasoning?

A

Preconventional morality (reward vs. punishment) -> Conventional morality (societal values) -> Posconventional morality (internal morality)

230
Q

What is Erik Erikson’s model of social development?

A

Model of lifelong psychosocial development; trust vs. mistrust -> autonomy vs. shame/doubt -> initiative vs. guilt -> competency vs. inferiority -> identity vs. role confusion -> intimacy vs. isolation -> generativity vs. stagnation -> integrity vs. despair

231
Q

How do cognitive abilities change in later years?

A

Crystallized intelligence remains stable, fluid intelligence declines

232
Q

What is bottom-up processing?

A

Occurs when we perceive individual bits of sensory information (ex. sounds) and use them to construct a more complex perception (ex. a message); Starts with primary visual cortex followed by association cortex

233
Q

What is selective attention?

A

Involves focussing on one particular event or task; what we focus on is what we perceive; attention is limited

234
Q

What is sensation?

A

The process of detecting external events with sense organs and turning those stimuli into neural signals

235
Q

What is signal detection theory?

A

Whether a stimulus is perceived depends on both sensory experience and judgement made by the subject

236
Q

What is the doctrine of specific nerve energies?

A

First proposed in 1826 by the German psychologist Johannes Muller, the doctrine states that the different senses are separated in the brain

237
Q

What is inattentional blindness?

A

A failure to notice clearly visible events or object because attention is directed elsewhere

238
Q

What is sensory adaptation?

A

The reduction of activity in sensory receptors with repeated exposure to a stimulus

239
Q

What is perception?

A

Involves attending to, organizing, and interpreting stimuli that we sense

240
Q

What is transduction?

A

Takes place when specialized receptors transform the physical energy of the outside world into neural impulses

241
Q

What is psychophysics?

A

The study of the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world

242
Q

What is Weber’s Law?

A

States that the just noticeable difference between 2 stimuli changes as a proportion of those stimuli

243
Q

What is divided attention?

A

Paying attention to more than one stimulus/task at the same time

244
Q

What is the difference threshold?

A

The smallest difference between stimuli that can be reliably detected at least 50% of the time

245
Q

What is top-down processing?

A

When our perceptions are influenced by our expectations or by our prior knowledge; starts with association cortex followed by primary visual cortex

246
Q

What is the absolute threshold?

A

The minimum amount of energy or quantity of a stimulus required for it to be reliably detected at least 50% of the time it is presented

247
Q

What is Gestalt psychology?

A

Although the individual parts of a stimulus may have little meaning on their own, these parts can be grouped together in ways that are perceived as distinct patterns (figure and ground, proximity, similarity, continuity, closure)

248
Q

What is the iris?

A

A round muscle that adjusts the size of the pupil; it also gives the eyes their characteristic colour

249
Q

What is perceptual constancy?

A

The ability to perceive objects as having constant shape, size, and colour despite changes in perspective

250
Q

What is dark adaptation?

A

The process by which the rods and cones become increasingly sensitive to light under low levels of illumination

251
Q

What is the sclera?

A

The white, outer surface of the eye

252
Q

What is the cornea?

A

The clear layer that covers the front portion of the eye and also contributes to the eye’s ability to focus

253
Q

What is the opponent-process theory?

A

A theory of colour perception stating that we perceive colour in terms of opposing pairs: red to green, yellow to blue, and white to black

254
Q

What is the Young-Helmholtz theory (or trichromatic theory)?

A

Maintains that the colour vision is determined by 3 different cone types that are wavelengths of light

255
Q

What is the lens?

A

A clear structure that focuses light onto the back of the eye

256
Q

What is the pupil?

A

Regulates the amount of light that enters the eye by changing its size; it dilates (expands) to allow more light to enter and constricts (shrinks) to allow less light into the eye

257
Q

What is the fovea?

A

The central region of the retina

258
Q

What is the optic nerve?

A

A dense bundle of fibres that connect to the brain

259
Q

What is convergence?

A

Occurs when the eye muscles contract so that both eyes focus on a single object

260
Q

What are monocular cues?

A

Depth cues that we can perceive with only one eye; linear perspective, relative size, texture gradient, interposition, height in plane

261
Q

What are binocular depth cues?

A

Distance cues that are based on the differing perspectives of both eyes

262
Q

What are cones?

A

Photoreceptors that are sensitive to the different wavelengths of light that we perceive as colour

263
Q

What are rods?

A

Photoreceptors that occupy peripheral regions of the retina; they are highly sensitive under low light levels

264
Q

What is retinal (or binocular) disparity?

A

The difference in relative position of an object as seen by both eyes, which provides information to the brain about depth

265
Q

What is the retina?

A

Lines the inner surface of the eye and consists of specialized receptors that absorb light and send signals related to the properties of light to the brain

266
Q

What path does visual information follow?

A

Light transformed into neural signal by photoreceptors in retina; information relayed via optic nerve through the thalamus then to occipital lobe of cortex; neural circuits travel to other regions for specific levels of processing (temporal/parietal lobes)

267
Q

What controls object/face perception?

A

Specialized perceptual regions of temporal lobe (ventral stream); facial recognition is specialized; some ganglion cells are dedicated; supercells integrate these feature signals to more complex forms

268
Q

How do senses pass to brain?

A

Reception (stimulation) -> Transduction (neural impulses) -> Transmission (processing)

269
Q

What does ‘subliminal’ mean?

A

Below our threshold for being able to consciously detect a stimulus, but still registered by sensory organ

270
Q

What is the Law of Pragnanz?

A

We perceive stimuli in our environment in their simplest form

271
Q

What creates different colours and intensities/brightness of light?

A

Wavelength and amplitude, respectfully

272
Q

What is somnambulism?

A

A disorder that involves wandering and other activities while asleep; also known as sleepwalking

273
Q

What is jet lag?

A

The discomfort a person feels when sleep cycles are out of synchronization with light and darkness

274
Q

What is positive sleep state misperception?

A

A condition in which an individual substantially overestimates the amount of sleep the person is getting

275
Q

What is problem-solving theory?

A

The theory that thoughts and concerns are continuous from waking to sleeping, and that dreams may function to facilitate finding solutions to problems encountered while awake

276
Q

What are nightmares?

A

Particularly vivid and disturbing dreams that occur during REM sleep

277
Q

What is consciousness?

A

A person’s subjective awareness, including thoughts, perceptions, experiences of the world, and self-awareness

278
Q

What is manifest content?

A

In psychoanalytic terms, the imagery and storylines that make up a dream

279
Q

What is the preserve and protect hypothesis?

A

Suggests that 2 adaptive functions of sleep are preserving energy and protecting the organism from harm

280
Q

What is sleep state misperception?

A

A condition in which a person substantially underestimates the amount of sleep she gets

281
Q

What is insomnia?

A

A disorder characterized by an extreme lack of sleep

282
Q

What is REM sleep?

A

A stage of sleep characterized by quickening brain waves, inhibited body movement, and rapid eye movement (REM)

283
Q

What are endogenous rhythms?

A

Biological rhythms that are generated by our body independent of external cues such as light

284
Q

What are circadian rhythms?

A

Internally driven daily cycles of approximately 24 hours affecting physiological and behavioural processes

285
Q

What is sleep displacement?

A

Occurs when an individual is prevented from sleeping at the normal time although she/he may be able to sleep earlier or later in the day than usual

286
Q

What are night terrors?

A

Intense bouts of panic and arousal that awaken the individual, typically in a heightened emotional state

287
Q

What is entrainment?

A

When biological rhythms become synchronized to external cues such as light, temperature or even a clock

288
Q

What is the restore and repair hypothesis?

A

The idea that the body needs to restore energy levels and repair any wear and tear during the day’s activities

289
Q

What is REM sleep behaviour disorder?

A

When a victim acts out their dreams

290
Q

What is sleep deprivation?

A

Occurs when an individual cannot or does not sleep

291
Q

What is polysomnography?

A

A set of objective measurements used to examine physiological variables during sleep

292
Q

What is the activation-synthesis hypothesis?

A

Suggests that dreams arise from brain activity originating from bursts of excitatory messages from the pons, a part of the brainstem

293
Q

What is latent content?

A

The actual symbolic meaning of a dream built on suppressed sexual or aggressive cues

294
Q

What is narcolepsy?

A

A disorder in which a person experiences extreme daytime sleepiness and even sleep attacks

295
Q

What is the neurocognitive hypothesis of dreaming?

A

Prediction that dreaming is not a completely random by-product of brain stem activity but rather reflects waking preoccupations and emotional experiences

296
Q

What is restless legs syndrome?

A

A persistent feeling of discomfort in the legs and the urge to continuously shift them into different positions

297
Q

What is sleep apnea?

A

A disorder characterized by the temporary inability to breathe during sleep

298
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

Building perceptions out of sensory details processed in different areas of the brain at the same time

299
Q

According to William James, what is the “stream of consciousness” governed by?

A

1 - Every thought tends to be part of a personal consciousness; 2 - Consciousness is in constant change; 3 - Within each personal consciousness thought is sensibly continuous; 4 - It attends to some parts to the exclusion of others

300
Q

What does attention do?

A

Guides perception; Involves processing of sensory information in such a way that it produces conscious experiences that we attend to

301
Q

What does Broadbent’s filter theory of attention say?

A

Attention is a bottleneck through which information passes; Pay attention to important stimuli while we ignore others

302
Q

What is selective inattention?

A

Refers to our failure to notice part of our environment when our attention is directed elsewhere

303
Q

What is naive realism?

A

False belief that our senses are infallible and that our perceptions offer perfect representations of the world

304
Q

What is the unconscious ‘low’ track?

A

Bottom up; below the absolute threshold; does not require attention; automatic actions

305
Q

What is the conscious ‘high’ track?

A

Top down (hippocampus); above absolute threshold; requires attention; deliberate actions

306
Q

What is the difference between initial and additional iterations?

A

Initial provides quick perceptions, whether additional iterations are needed; Additional iterations accompanied by reflective processes yield nuanced perceptions

307
Q

What are context effects?

A

Context provides us a basis for expectations

308
Q

What is a perceptual set?

A

What we expect to see influences what we do see (top-down processing)

309
Q

What are psychoactive drugs?

A

Substances that affect thinking, behaviour, perception and emotion

310
Q

What is dependence?

A

A need to take a drug to ward off unpleasant physical withdrawal symptoms; often referred to as addiction

311
Q

What is ecstasy (MDMA)?

A

A drug that is typically classified as a stimulant, but also has hallucinogenic effects

312
Q

What is physical dependence?

A

The need to take a drug to ward off unpleasant physical withdrawal symptoms

313
Q

What is tolerance?

A

When repeated use of a drug results in a need for a higher dose to get the intended effect

314
Q

What are sedative drugs?

A

Sometimes referred to as “downers”, depress activity of the central nervous system

315
Q

What are stimulants?

A

A category of drugs that speed up the nervous system, typically enhancing wakefulness and alertness

316
Q

What is marijuana?

A

A drug comprising the leaves and buds of the Cannabis plant that produces a combination of hallucinogenic, stimulant, and relaxing (narcotic) effects

317
Q

What is psychological dependence?

A

Occurs when emotional need for a drug develops without any underlying physical dependence

318
Q

What are opiates?

A

(aka narcotics) Drugs such as heroin and morphine that reduce pain and induce extremely intense feelings of euphoria

319
Q

What are hallucinogenic drugs?

A

Substances that produce perceptual distortions

PSYC 1000 (2 decks)

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