Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

How does obesity effect pregnancy?

A

Human pregnancy is an insulin-resistant state with a 40-50% increase in insulin resistance due to the need for increased energy stores. As obesity rates rise, it means the mother is already in a state of increased insulin and inflammation. This causes an increase in early nutrient availability for the fetus which causes increased, early fetal placental growth especially in the adipose tissues late in gestation.

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2
Q

What are some costs of preterm labour?

A

Admission to hospital can cause anxiety from familial separation and cost, the corticosteroid therapy has long-term effects, and the tocolytic medication can cause maternal and fetal side effects. Most of the time the woman won’t deliver pre-term anyway.

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3
Q

What are the hertfordshire records?

A

A ledge by Ethel Margaret Burnside that recorded birth, weight at birth and one year, illness, and health. Scientists used this to study later life outcomes. Found that babies born on the low end of normal bw were more likely to die of coronary heart disease. Also found an association with the risk of obesity, type 2 diabetes, and high lipid levels.

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4
Q

What did the dutch hunger winter reveal?

A

Revealed that famine in utero was detrimental to the long term health of the child. Introduced the idea of critical windows of vulnerability since the time of the exposure greatly affected the health effects.

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5
Q

What did the helsini birth cohort reveal?

A

Showed that boys and girls who would later get CHD had poor growth from birth to age 2, after which growth steadily increased. Found that thinness at 2 years and high BMI at 11 years is associated with CHD.

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6
Q

What occurs when the appropriate stimulus is applied at the correct window? If not?

A

In correct, it results in differentiation and maturation, optimal growth (in utero and postnatal), birth at term, and health until old age.
If not correct stimulus or window, can cause preterm birth, IUGR, low birthweight, catch-up growth, and increased adiposity, all resulting in programming and vulnerability to disease.

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7
Q

What are the philosophies of DOHaD?

A

A baby lives off it’s (grand)mother’s lifetime of experiences
The golden mean (happy medium)
The nature of the child (early life experiences cause disease)

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8
Q

What is DOHaD?

A

Exposure to altered environments during critical periods of development may alter function of physiological systems in mothers, fathers, and offspring and change postnatal set points.

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9
Q

What is developmental plasticity?

A

The ability to adapt to our environment and stimuli we are exposed to.

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10
Q

What are the different stages of early development?

A
  1. Fertilization: ovulation (ovum moves into tubes), fertilization creating zygote, moves down tube and cell divisions occur.
  2. Development of blastocyst: cell continue to divide becoming blastocyst and implanting in uterine lining.
  3. Development of embryo: develops in amniotic sac under uterine lining. Internal organs and body structures form.
  4. Development of fetus and placenta.
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11
Q

What are some developmental milestones?

A

Gastrulation: formation of 3 germ layers, gut, notochord by cell migration/division, primitive body plan fixed
Organogenesis: formation of organs/organ systems
Morphogenesis: development/differentiation of structures and form
Cellular differentiation: specialization of cells
Functional maturation: attainment of functional capacity of cell, tissue, organ

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12
Q

What is morphological memory?

A

In response to adversity, the fetus makes a series of physiological adaptations (that can be permanent) to survive. Can cause a decline in the number of cells and their function, causing disease and early threshold crossing. Adaptations may be mismatched to the long-term post-natal environment.

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13
Q

What are the different functions of the placenta?

A

Lungs, liver, gut, kidneys, endocrine glands, and defensive barriers. Large surface area and thin membrane separating maternal and fetal circulations allow exchange. Overall, provides oxygen and nutrients, removes waste products, produces hormones, and protects the fetus from endogenous factors.

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14
Q

After the blastocyst hatches from the zone pellucida, what two layers do the TB cells differentiate into?

A

The inner cytotrophoblast (CTB)

The outer syncytiotrophoblast (STB)

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15
Q

Describe the implantation of the zygote.

A
  1. TB lacunae are fluid filled spaces in the tissue.
  2. Maternal capillaries erode and maternal blood flows into the space in the lacunae.
  3. Lacunae fuse to form the intravillious space and grow all the way around the conceptus.
  4. Invasive growth of STB stops at the endometrium implantation site and does not grow into the maternal tissues.
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16
Q

What is decidualisation?

A

The transformation of the secretory endometrium into the decidua. The endometrial stromal cells change and store glycogen and lipids. Leukocytes from the mother infiltrate.

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17
Q

What are the different layers of the decidua?

A

Decidua basalis: maternal component of the placenta
Decidua parietalis: decidua lining the rest of the uterine cavity.
Decidua capsularis: superficial layer covering the chorion laeve

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18
Q

Describe the development of the placental villi.

A

Early on the embryo is fed through diffusion. As it grows, the nutrient demand increases and requires a more robust circulation system.
Primary TB villi: CTB cells penetrate into the buds of the STB
Secondary villi: mesoblasts grow into the primary, and villi expand into the lacunae that are filled with maternal blood.
Tertiary villi: mesoblasts begin to differentiate into specialized cells into connective tissue and blood vessels.
CTB will eventually disappear as the villi wall becomes thin, decreasing the distance between the maternal and fetal blood and allowing free exchange.

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19
Q

What occurs after the final branching of the villi?

A

The branches that deliver blood to the placenta undergo remodelling. They undergo dilation in order to meet the increasing demands of the fetus. Smooth muscle cells are lost from the walls of the spiral arteries. The EVT proliferate and migrate away from the placenta, down the lumen and through endometrial stroma. They interact with uNK cells to mediate spiral artery remodelling and the colonizing on the walls causes the opening to close.

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20
Q

What are some different methods of exchange at the maternal-fetal interface?

A

Diffusion: O2, CO2, fats, alcohol
Osmosis: H2O
Simplified transport: glucose via GLUTs (facilitated diffusion and transport)
Active transport: amino acids and peptides to form proteins on fetal side
Vesicular transport: macromolecules via endo/exocytosis in STB cells

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21
Q

What is the main source of energy and nutrition in the fetus?

A

Glucose. Placental TB cells can synthesize and store glycogen for local glucose requirements. Placental hormones modify the maternal metabolism (insulin resistance) to maximize glucose transfer to fetus.

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22
Q

How does the placenta act as an endocrine organ?

A

Before pregnancy: hormone production ensured by ovarian and pituitary hormones
Beginning of pregnancy: corpus luteum synthesizes estrogen and progesterone, maintained by human chorionic gonadotropin
During pregnancy: maternal hormones are regulated by placenta, pituitary, and fetal adrenal glands and gonads.

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23
Q

How does the placenta act as lungs?

A

Oxygenated blood from the placenta enters the RA via inferior vena cava. It by-passes the lung by going through the foramen ovale into the LA. Blood again passes lungs, going up aortic arch and through ductus arteriosus into the aorta. When blood leaves the placenta, the ductus venosus shuttles it away from the liver and towards the heart.

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24
Q

How is immunity transferred to the fetus?

A

The immune system is complete at the time of birth but the maturation of specific defences is delayed to conserve energy and nutrients. Once born, these developmental delays are countered by the transport of maternal immune factors to the infant by the placenta and breast milk.

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25
Q

How does immunity get transferred?

A

FcRn receptors localized to STB cells bind to the maternal IGG and shuttle it across the STB layer, releasing it into the CTB. As the CTB layer thins during gestation, more Abs can move across, causing an increase in fetal IgG with advancing gestational age.

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26
Q

How are the placenta and IUGR related?

A

Placental size accounts for much of the size variation at birth and placental insufficiency is a major cause of IUGR due to limited oxygen and nutrient delivery to the fetus.

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27
Q

What occurs in FGR pregnancies that cause restricted fetal growth?

A

In FGR or preeclampsia, the depth of the EVT invasion is reduced which means less remodelling by the EVT. This causes blood to flow at a higher pressure and be more pulsatile. This causes increased placental stress, reduced placental development, and overall poor fetal growth.

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28
Q

How can poor nutrition affect the placenta?

A

Poor nutrition can effect the architecture of the placenta, UN more so than ON. HF placentae may compensate for an excessive nutritional environment by reducing glucose storage. UN placentae may have reduced endocrine function. It can also affect the selective barrier function of the placenta.

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29
Q

How is glucose transported across the placental barrier?

A

It is transported by GLUT transporters down a concentration gradient. The fetal glucose is therefore determined by the placental consumption and transport. High fetal glucose results in decreased diffusion to fetus and increased placental consumption.

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30
Q

How does GDM effect glucose transporters?

A

Obesity and the type of GDM treatments have different impacts on pregnancy outcomes, including placental transport function. Non-obese women with insulin controlled-GDM have higher protein and mRNA expression of GLUT1 vs. diet controlled or healthy where as obese women with insulin controlled-GDN have reduced mRNA expression GLUT4 vs. diet control and obese, non-diabetic.

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31
Q

How does GDM affect amino acid transport?

A
System A (Na dependant of polar or neutral aa) is higher in women with GDM, with or without LGA babies vs. healthy controls. 
System L (Na indépendant of large neutral, branched, aromatic aa) is higher in women with GDM with LGA babies vs. healthy controls
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32
Q

How does maternal UN affect aa transport?

A

UN has been shown to reduce expression of aa and GLUT1 transporters in a baboon model, with associated reduction in fetal and placental weights.

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33
Q

What are ABC transporters?

A

Transporters that are critical for translocation out of the cell, transporting nutrients, steroids, xenobiotics, and various other things. They limit the absorption of stuff into the blood and help form a selective barrier and confer productions at key areas in the body during pregnancy, such as the placenta and the brain.

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34
Q

How does malnutrition effect the placental drug transport system?

A

Systems become dysregulated due to altered expression of ABC transporters. Women with GDM, regardless of BMI, expression of Abcb1a is lower. Abcb1 is lower in overweight/obese women with GDM. These altered transport mechanisms may result in increased fetal exposure to maternally derived metabolites, toxins, xenobiotics, and hormones. This reduced defensive barrier may also enable inflammatory mediators to enter the fetal compartment.

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35
Q

When is fetal development particularly impaired?

A

Pregnancies where malnutrition, inflammation/infection, and medication use coexist. Ex. place with high risk of infectious diseases, poor access to clean water, and malnutrition.

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36
Q

What occurs if immune placental programming is altered?

A

This will adversely effect the immune system of the development of the offspring. This may be caused by maternal malnutrition as the quantity or quality of the immune factors available for transfer are effected. Poor placental development can also cause this and it would reduce transfer of ab to the fetus.

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37
Q

How is Zika associated with the placenta?

A

Maternal infection with ZIKV during pregnancy can cause IUGR, spontaneous abortions, and microcephaly, resulting in a need to understand how the virus is crossing the placenta. ZIKV infects and replicated in placental macrophages as well as CTB cells, causing minimal cell death but still causing damage while allowing function to be maintained. Timing is important, as ZIKV results in higher viral lodes in the amniotic epithelial cells from mid-gestation to late-gestation placentae.

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38
Q

How is the fetus protected from cortisol and other glucocorticoids?

A

11BHSD-1 and 1 enzymes that inactivates cortisol to cortisone once in the placenta to prevent high levels of maternal cortisol in the fetus.

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39
Q

Why are glucocorticoids important in pregnancy?

A

They help mature many organ systems when given at the right time in development. Vital to the timing of normal pregnancies.

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40
Q

How does maternal malnutrition alter the placental GC barrier?

A

UN: saw a decrease in the amount of GC enzyme at day 50 resulting in a reduced barrier and a higher than healthy exposure level.
Dieting: caused reduced placental GC barrier due to lower levels of enzymes.

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41
Q

What are the different perspectives on brain development?

A

Structural development: studied and correlated with the mergence of behaviour
Behavioural development: can be analyzed and predictions made about what underlying circuitry must be emerging
Factors that influence both brain structure and behavioural development can be studied

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42
Q

What are the cellular origins of the nervous system?

A

Blastocyst undergoes gastrulation, rearranging into a multi-layered structure (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm)

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43
Q

What are some of the key structures of the nervous systems?

A

Neural plate: thickened ectodermal region that gives rise to the neural tube
Neural tube: structure from which the brain and spinal cord develop

44
Q

What is neurulation?

A

Ectoderm overlaying the notochord will generate the entire nervous system. Singles released from the notochord causes differentiation into neural stem cells (neuroectodermal cells) and forms neural tube.

45
Q

What do neuroectodermal cells differentiate into?

A

Ventral cells: spinal and hindbrain motor neurons and interneurons
Dorsal cells: sensory relay neurons and interneurons

46
Q

With the emergence of the anterior posterior signalling axis, what a different brain subdivisions appear?

A

Prosencephalon: generates entire forebrain
Mesencephalon: generates midbrain
Rhombencephalon: generates hindbrain (pons, medulla, cerebellum)
Spinal cord

47
Q

What is spatial patterning?

A

The differentiation of the brain into major subdivisions later seen in the adult brain.

48
Q

What spatial patterning occurs at the end of the second trimester?

A

Clear differentiation of other areas of the brain with the development of really distinct nuclei bodies that are preserved throughout adulthood.

49
Q

What are some important cells in the nervous system?

A

Neurons
Glial cells: oligodendroglia (myeline axons), astrocytes (cleaning environment), microglia (innate immune system in brain)

50
Q

Describe the growth and development of neurons.

A
Birth
Migration
Differentiation
Maturation
Synaptogenesis
Synaptic Pruning
Myelogenesis
51
Q

What cells are involved in cell birth?

A

Neural stem cells: self-renewing, multipoint cell that gives rise to neurons and glia
Progenitor cell: precursor cell derived from a stem cell, migrates and produced non-dividing cells known as neuroblasts and glioblasts

52
Q

What cells are involved in cell migration?

A

Radial glial cell: path-making cell that a migrating neuron follows to appropriate destination. Migrate to inner layer first. Damage has huge impact on fetal health due to loss of cell migration.

53
Q

Wat occurs in cell differentiation?

A

Signalling molecules control spatial and temporal patterns (genetic instructions, timing, and signals). Most signal secreted by one embryonic tissue or layer and act on adjacent tissues. Exposure as cells migrate results in differentiation.

54
Q

What occurs during cell maturation?

A

Axon and dendrite growth to appropriate length. Regulated by cell-adhesion molecules and tropic molecules. Goes on for years, may continue throughout adulthood.

55
Q

Describe synaptogenesis

A

Formation of synapses, increases rapidly in the first 12mo of life.

56
Q

Describe cell death and synaptic pruning.

A

Decrease in the number of cell and connections caused by genetic signals, experiences, hormones, and stress.

57
Q

What is myelogenesis?

A

Formation of myelin that begin after birth and continuing into early adulthood.

58
Q

What are some key motor regions of the brain?

A

Premotor cortex: damages causes weakness in arm muscles and issues with planned movement
Primary motor cortex: damage results in difficulty producing forceful movement (planning and initiation of voluntary movements)

59
Q

What is the function of the amygdala?

A

Highly processed sensory info from other areas, integrating and signalling out. Important in fear response and social development.

60
Q

What is the function of the limbic system?

A

Circuit devoted to emotional experience.

61
Q

What is the function of the brainstem?

A

Takes in incoming sensory signals and outputs motor signals.

62
Q

How are the gut and the brain related?

A

During and after birth, the gut is rapidly colonized by microorganisms. This effects the host physiology and development beyond the GI system, important in early life programming of brain circuits involved in the control of emotions, motor activity, and cognitive functions.

63
Q

How do antibiotics effect the gut micro biome?

A

Exposure to antibiotics during pregnancy/lactation may alter maternal micro biome, therefore influencing the assembly of the infant microbiome

64
Q

Does antibiotic use during pregnancy affect the gut micro biome and are there implications for the developing brain?

A

In stratum of 3-day old mice, saw significantly decreased expression of Pglyrp 2, 3, 4, Tlr2, PepT1 in both antibiotic treated males and females as well as Nod1 in treated females. In Pglyrp2 KO mice, in PFC saw an increase in c-Met (autism risk gene, regulates synapses formation) in both male and female and increased syp (indirect marker of synaptogenesis) in females. In striatum, saw reduced c-Met in females, reduced Bdnf (brain-derived neurotrophic factor, promotes growth of neutrons) in males, and increased syp in females. The male mice also indicated high sociability with c-met increased in both the striatum of juvenile male mice and the amygdala of juvenile female mice.

65
Q

How are the gut and the brain development related?

A

PPRs play a role in both immunity and neural development. The disruption in the gut microbiota caused increased susceptibility to neurodevelopment disorders and immune disturbances.

66
Q

What are some effects of abnormal postnatal environments?

A

Socioemotional deprivation: kids that did not get enough attention showed reduced FA (brain connectivity) in the left uncinate fasciculus as well as bilateral glucose hypo metabolism in the limbic brain regions both within and between regions (decreased brain activity results in decreased glucose metabolism)

67
Q

How are inflammation and infection related to PTB?

A

Causal links have been establish between infection and inflammation in pregnancy and preterm birth (PTB), which can cause perinatal hypoxia induced by immature lung developed and injuring the vulnerable neurons and glia.

68
Q

What is chorioamnionitis?

A

Infection and inflammation of the fetal membranes (amnion, chorion) induced by bacterial infection. Causes independent risk factor for positive screening of early autism features, cerebral palsy, and chronic lung disease. the inflammation caused an increased immune response in the fetal brain causing a decreased number of dendritic processes.

69
Q

What causes the neural circuit impairment in intrauterine inflammation?

A

Trp involved in serotonin (5-HT) synthesis. The inflammation leads to an increased 5-HT output to fetus which causes in increase in the fetal brain and results in a decreased 5-HT axon density in forebrain.

70
Q

How to HIV infected infants compare to normal infants?

A

They suffer from poor growth and cognitive development after birth, have more frequent and severe secondary infections, and a greater risk for disease later in life.

71
Q

How do HIV exposed, uninfected infants compare to their unexposed counterparts?

A

HIV had a small effect size on the language development but had a medium effect on the motor and cognitive abilities of the child.

72
Q

What is the HPA axis?

A

Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal Axis.
It controls the stress response, regulates food intake/energy expenditure, modifies immune and endocrine systems and mood through the use of glucocorticoids and synthetic glucocorticoids.

73
Q

What are the steps to the HPA axis?

A
  1. Stressful stimuli activates the neurosecretory CRH and AVP neutrons in the PVN of the hypothalamus
  2. Once activated, these neutrons release CRH/AVP at the median eminence into the hypophysial portal blood.
  3. Stimulate the ACTH release from anterior pituitary and increase in POMC gene expression in the anterior pituitary
  4. ACTH stimulates GC secretion from the adrenal cortex.
74
Q

What regulates the HPA axis?

A

A series of negative and positive feedback loops from the released GCs regulate the actions of the HPA axis.

75
Q

How does the fetus trigger the birthing process?

A

Late in gestation, the placental 11BHSD2 reduces, permitting increased maternal-to-fetal transfer of GCs. This activates the fetal HPA axis and results in an increase of fetal cortisol. This triggers the birthing process to begin.

76
Q

Why are GCs important in development?

A

They affect the development of organs/organ systems dependant upon timing and duration of exposure. They also can increase production and release of CRH in the placenta which can activate both maternal and fetal HPA axis.

77
Q

How are ABC efflux transporters important in the transport of GCs?

A

ABC efflux transporters exist in a variety of organs and tissues across the body. They are highly effective at transporting sGCs out. PGP transporters play an important role in protecting the fetus from sGCs. As gestation continues, the placental levels of PGP decrease and the corresponding levels of the PGP in the endothelial cells of the BBB increase, adding an additional level of protection in the fetus.

78
Q

What are some direct effects of GCs on the brain?

A

They affect many aspects of the neurogenesis and gliogenesis with the effects being greatest in structures that contain high levels of GR, and MRs such as the limbic system, the hypothalamus, and the cortex.
They also affect the axonal and dendritic development and synaptogenesis.

79
Q

How does advancing gestation effect GC levels in the brain?

A

The levels of GR and MR expression in specific brain regions change with advancing gestation, causing alterations in sensitivity to GCs and sGCs during the critical windows of development.

80
Q

What receptors do sGCs and GCs bind to?

A

sGCs bind to unoccupied MRs are these are starved of ligands which cause unregulated MR expression unlike the GRs in the pituitary and brain which are ligated and result in feedback inhibition of maternal and fetal HPA axes = reduced cortisol output.
Endogenous GCs result from prenatal stress resulting in an increase in fetal plasma Gcs, restyling in cortisol binding to both GR and MR causing an increased fetal HPA axis.

81
Q

How do GCs indirectly program the HPA axis?

A
  1. Thyroid hormone is critical for brain development including neurotransmitter system maturation.
  2. CBG and 11BHSD1 can have direct effect on local and peripheral [cortisol] in fetus
  3. 11BHSD enzymes and cortisol production from efta-adrenal tissues can be altered by environmental insults
82
Q

Why is serotonin important in development?

A

It is important in brain development. Produced by the placenta, the levels of placental serotonin decrease during pregnancy but endogenous serotonin, produced by fetal brain, increases once the brain takes over, becoming dependant on it’s own source.

83
Q

How does serotonin contribute to fetal programming?

A

As maternal stress increases, [serotonin] and expression of placental serotonin transporters increases. Could result in increased serotonin synthesis in placenta and levels in fetal department, which can impair cortical interneuron migration. Serotonin also increases vascular resistant and decreased unteroplacental blood flow, contributing to hypertension in preeclampsia and diabetes.

84
Q

Why are synthetic GCs given to mothers in threatened pre-term labour?

A

It is given to help mature the lungs and prevent respiratory fetal distress syndrome. However, these are poor substrates for 11BHDS2 and readily cross the placenta.

85
Q

What was found about fetal organ weights and sGCs?

A

If you administer beta methadone at the wrong time you see a decrease in a lot of the fetus but the brain to liver ratio is larger, indicating brain sparing. With subsequent treatments of corticosteroids, the head circumference decreased.

86
Q

How might UN be effecting the time of conception?

A

Might be working through HPA axis. Studies showed increased ACTH and cortisol in fetus from malnourished mother at an earlier time. This may lead to early fetal HPA activation due to reduced placental GC barrier, allowing more maternal hormones to come through. This shift occurring earlier can contribute to pre-term labour.

87
Q

What were some long-term effects of multiple sGC treatments in pregnancy?

A

Response to acute psychological stress was greater, effects of sGC on stress response was greater in girls, suggests that GC-induced programming my increase vulnerability of developing brain towards stress-related disorders, with implications for neurological function/demise late.

88
Q

What did the ice storm suggest about the exposure to natural disaster on maternal stress?

A

Saw negative cognitive and language development from age 2. Short gestation and lower birth weights with T1-T2 exposure. Brain sparing in boys. Severity of stress increased insulin secretion at age 13.

89
Q

How might post-natal stress effect an individual?

A

Adolescents who exerpienced more negative personal early life events showed larger grey matter volume decrease. Effected the developmental trajectory of the brain as well as emotional processing and HPA axis functioning.

90
Q

How might maternal care effect a child’s HPA axis?

A

Stressed mothers show reduced maternal care and offspring often showed same phenotype as those with malnourished mothers. Kids entered puberty earlier, had lower hippocampal GR, increased hypothalamic CRH mRNA expression, and lower ACTH and corticosterone response to stress.

91
Q

How might epigenetic effect the HPA axis of the offspring?

A

Study saw that in sheeps that were malnourished until 100 days prior to pregnancy, fetus still had a decrease in GR methylation and a corresponding increase in acetylation and increased transcription, allowing gene expression. In ice storm, found that differences in fetal methylation patterns if mother perceived storm as negative versus positive, and those with higher objective but not subjective stress saw higher changes in methylation. Then found that if you took kids from pos moms and gave them to high care mother, you can switch the methylation phenotype, indicating potential intervention of care.

92
Q

How are fathers involved in offspring stress?

A

Offspring with stressed dads had reduced HPA axis response to a stress test. Also found genes that were expressed in key regions of the brain that differed in the offspring of stressed dads. Found that paternal stress altered the miRNA expression of the sperm.

93
Q

How were inflammation and serotonin found to be related in the offspring?

A

Maternal inflammation disrupted serotonergic axon growth in the fetal forebrain.

94
Q

What is folate?

A

A vitamin that is analogous for ATP and required for DNA synthesis. The need to folate increases during times of rapid tissue growth as the rapidly dividing cells are often folate dependant.

95
Q

Why is folic acid often prescribed to pregnant women?

A

Folic acid supplementation prevents 70% of neural tube defects as the closure of the tube is dependant on maternal folic status.

96
Q

How did the government combat neural tube defects in unplanned pregnancy?

A

As 50% of pregnancies are unplanned and folic acid is recommended to be taken up to 3 months before getting pregnant, white flour, cornmeal, and pasta are now fortified with folic acid, increasing the daily folic acid intake by 150ug. It resulting in a 45% decrease in NTD prevalence.

97
Q

How is folate transported across the placenta?

A

Folate receptors on the maternal side bind folate and are brought into vesicles. Once in the vesicle, the folate is released and binds to the PCFT, crossing the barrier and being released into the syncytiotrophoblasts. From there, it binds to the RFC and is transported across into the cytotrophoblast cells.

98
Q

What are some different end points of folic acid?

A

Purines: important in DNA synthesis
Thymidylate
Methylation reactions

99
Q

What are some placenta-related pathologies that folate are associated with?

A

Pre-eclampsia
IUGR
Placental abruption
Spontaneous pregnancy loss

100
Q

How does folate effect placental growth?

A

It promotes trophoblast, proliferation, viability, and invasion.

101
Q

How might decreased folate result in preeclampsia?

A

As folate decreases, it results in increased homocysteine, which is associated with an increased risk for pre-eclampsia when found in maternal and umbilical cord plasma. Homocysteine also induced trophoblast apoptosis which can be mitigated by folic acid. Homocysteine also reduces trophoblast hG secretion, once again mitigated by folic acid.

102
Q

What is the proposed mechanism for folic acid intervention?

A

Folic acid leads to a decrease in homocysteine and an increase in endothelial function and placental implantation and development, leading to a decrease in maternal endothelial injury and a decreased risk of pre-eclampsia.

103
Q

How is folate deficiency and altered folate metabolism associated with male infertility?

A

Causes infertility and sub fertility, reduced sperm number, increased sperm DNA damage, and embryo defects. Studies saw fewer litters with similar implantation events but more resorption resulting in embryo loss.

104
Q

What was folic acid deficiency associated with in litters with a deficient father?

A

Increasing folic acid intake resulted in increasing placental weight and diameter as well as decreased congenital defects. Paternal deficiency caused congenital defects and delayed development such as small for gestational age. Many embryos had compound defects which were solely restricted to deficient dads.

105
Q

What occurs when low folate causes a purine imbalance?

A

Leads to a nucleotide imbalance which can lead to cell senescence, death or mutations.

106
Q

What occurs to thymidylate when folate is low?

A

Less dUMP becomes thymidylate, resulting in a build up of dUTP, resulting in base excision repair, which leads to more increase in dUTP and dsDNA breaks.

107
Q

What might cause mutations with paternal folate deficiencies?

A

Due to decrease in purine and increase in dUTP, seen to cause sperm mutations and chromatin fragmentation. More likely, it is that the folate availability impacts cellular methylation potential which can modify gene expression. Therefore paternal folic acid intake alters sperm DNA methylome.