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OS III > MIdterm > Flashcards

MIdterm Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five components of PRM

A

Inherent mobility of brain and SC, fluctuation of CSF, mobility of intracranial and intraspinal membranes, articulatory mobility of cranial bones, involuntary mobility of sacrum btw ilia

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2
Q

What creates cranial motion

A

Glial cells

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3
Q

What is the layer palpation used for cranial

A

Hair, skin, subcutaneous tissue, bone

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4
Q

Can you feel the CRI if a patient holds their breath

A

Yes

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5
Q

What is the Sutherland fulcrum

A

Functional name given to straight sinus

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6
Q

What is reciprocal tension membrane aka core link

A

Meninges and the cord constitute a link btw cranium and the sacrum

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7
Q

What fascia affect the PRM

A

Pannicular, axial and appendicular, meningeall, visceral

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8
Q

What creates the reciprocal tension membrane

A

Falx cerebra and cerebellum and tentorium; holds vault and base under constant tension; allows for change in the vault while maintaining constant volume; allows but limits motion

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9
Q

What are the main poles of attachment of the RTM

A
  • anteriorsuperior pole: Crista Galli
  • anterior/inferior pole: clinoid process of sphenoid
  • lateral pole: mastoid angels of parietals and petrous ridges of temporal bone
  • posterior pole: internal occipital protruberance and transverse ridges
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10
Q

What is a suspended automatic shifting fulcrum

A

Suspended: moves but remains in RTM
Automatic: moves with motion of CRI
Shifting: straight sinus moves up and down

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11
Q

Where is the point of function

A

Straight sinus - junction of falx and tentoria

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12
Q

What is extension of SBS paired with in terms of breathing

A

Exhalation; cheekbones prominent; SBS decreased angle

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13
Q

Where does the dura attach that influences sacral motion

A

Foramen mangnum and posterior body and disc of S2

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14
Q

What is the postural sacral axis

A

Transverse axis of nutation/counternutation throuh anterior part of S2

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15
Q

What is the pelvic/ileal axis

A

Functional transverse axis at S3; movement of ilia on sacrum

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16
Q

What axis does movement occur on for the sacrum during PRM

A

Superior transverse

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17
Q

What contributes to health

A

Unity, structure/function, and self healing

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18
Q

What are the models of osteopathic treatment

A

Postural structural, neuro, respiratory circulatory, bioenergy, psychosocial

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19
Q

What does the approach to the patient of osteopaths look like

A

Structural exam (objective); changing* address the cause and not the effect

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20
Q

What are the midline (unpaired) bones

A

Sphenoid, occiput, ethmoid, mandible, vomer, frontal

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21
Q

What are the paired bones

A
  • cranial vault: parietal, temporal, squamous temporal, frontal
  • facial: inferior nasal concha, lacrimal, maxilla, nasal, palatine, zygoma
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22
Q

What axis do the paired bones usually rotate around

A

AP axis in the coronal plane

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23
Q

What are the parts of the ethmoid

A
  • horizontal: cribriform plate; includes crista galli
  • perpendicular plate
  • lateral masses: form orbital plates - medial walls of orbit; forms middle and superior concha
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24
Q

How does the ethmoid move in flexion

A

Perpendicular plate is rotated by the sphenoid about its transverse axis; crista galli moves superiority and posteriorly
-external rotation: lateral masses expand inferiorly due to pull of external rotation of maxillae

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25
Q

How does the ethmoid move in extension

A

Crista galli moves inferiorly and anteriorly

-internal rotation

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26
Q

What clinical considerations would you consider for an ethmoid dysfunction

A
  • Sinusitis: lateral masses move into external rotation with widening o ethmoid notch and external rotation of maxillae, opening nasal passage; ER/IR creates pumping acting on ethmoid sinus
  • septal deviation
  • headache: lymphatic backup -> increased dural tension and vascular effects
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27
Q

What does the vomer articulate with

A

Sphenoid, ethmoid, septal cartilage, maxillae, palatines

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28
Q

Describe the motion of the vomer in flexion and extension

A

Flexion: wide flat palate
Extension: narrow, tall palate
*depresses the hard palate with SBS flexion

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29
Q

How do the ethmoid and vomer move during SBS flexion

A

Ethmoid: same as occiput
Vomer: same as sphenoid

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30
Q

What do the palatines articulate with

A

Sphenoid, ethmoid, maxilla, vomer, contralateral palatine, inferior concha

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31
Q

How do the palatines move during flexion

A

Palate flattens; eternally rotates (horizontal plate moves laterally and inferiorly)

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32
Q

What are clinal correlations for dysfunction of palatine

A

Swallowing/speech difficulties

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33
Q

How do you name a torsion

A

Superior sphenoid wing

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34
Q

What axis is involved in a torsion

A

AP (rotate in opp direction)

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35
Q

What axes are involved in lateral strains

A

2 vertical axes; sphenoid and occiput spin in same direction

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36
Q

How do you name a lateral strain

A

Direction of the translation of the basisphenoid (ie: left would be sphenoid base to left and occipital base to right)

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37
Q

How do you name sidebending rotation

A

Flexed side (convex side)

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38
Q

How do you test for SBS compression

A

Lift lateral angles of frontal bone anteriorly with the thumbs while stabilizing the lateral angles of the occiput posteriorly with the hands in vault hold

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39
Q

What does the parietal bone articulate with

A

Occiput, frontal, sphenoid temporal, opposite parietal

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40
Q

Which bone is the only one that connects all 4 fontanelles

A

Parietal

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41
Q

Where is the origin of the temporalis m

A

Lower temporal ridge

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42
Q

What happens to the Pterion asteroid and squamous sutures during flexion

A

Move laterally

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43
Q

What happens to the Sagittal suture during flexion

A

Ones inferiorly

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44
Q

What are the signs and sx of parietal bone dysfunction

A
  • cranial synostosis: premature closure of sutures
  • head pain: Om and asterion - tension HA pterion - temporal
  • giant cell arteritis
  • head, face and tooth pain (temporal)
45
Q

What does the squamous portion of the temporal bone obtain

A

Zygomatic process

46
Q

What does the petrous portion of the temporal bone contain

A

Otovestibular organ, eustahian tube exit, border of foramen lacerum (lacrimmation), attachment of tentorium, internal carotid, styloid process, jugular foramen

47
Q

What does the temporal bone in a newborn skull lack

A

Mastoid process

48
Q

What does internal rotation of the temporal bone abuse

A

High pitched tinnitus

49
Q

What happens during external and internal rotation of the temporal bones

A

External: squamous portion moves laterally, mastoid process moves medially
Internal: squamous moves medially; zygomatic process more prominent;

50
Q

What drives temporal bone motion

A

Occiput through Om

51
Q

What are the signs and sx of temporal bone SD

A
  • Tmj pain
  • head pain
  • neck pain: Scm
  • dizziness, ear infections swallowing and chewing; Bell’s palsy
52
Q

How does the frontal bone move

A

External: lateral side moves anterior/lateral and slightly inferior; glabella moves posteriorly

53
Q

What are the signs and sx of frontal bone SD

A
  • head pain from diminished cSF flow due to increased dural tension at cribriform plate: coronal suture: tension headaches ; pterion: temporal
  • sinusitis
  • double vision
  • anosmia
  • frontalis m
54
Q

What does bicoronal synostosis cause

A

Bracycephaly; restriction of growth of the anterior fossa resulting in wider skul

55
Q

What does unicoronal synostosis cause

A

Anterior plagioephaly; head flat on effected side and ear forward; c shape or facial twist (base of nose drawn towards affected side and tip of nose pointed away)

56
Q

Where is the Eustachian tube most likely to get blocked

A

At the cranial base where the sphenoid and temporal bones meet

57
Q

Where is the exit of the eustahian tube

A

Junction of petrous portion of temporal and sphenoid

58
Q

How can you treat otitis media

A

Temporal rocking …… or give them fucking antibiotics

59
Q

Which arteries cause the most headaches

A

Anterior and idle erebral and intracranial portion of internal carotid

60
Q

Which veins have a dural envelope

A

Superior and inferior Sagittarius sinus, straight sinus, transverse sinus

61
Q

Where does the trigem go out

A

superior orbital fissure (also 3 4 6) Foramen rotunda and Oale

62
Q

Where are the foramen oale and rotunda located

A

Sphenoid bone

63
Q

Where is the trigem ganglion

A

Temporal bone

64
Q

Where does the tentorium erebelli attach

A

Petrous portion of temporal bone

65
Q

What are some benefits that research has shown of cranial

A

Shorter IU stay; easier to fall asleep (neuro) *used in post trauma

66
Q

What help you pout

A

Depressor labii inferior

67
Q

What does the leator Anguli orisdo

A

Snarl

68
Q

What does risorius do

A

Approiates lips and draws lips and lateral corners lateral - grimace

69
Q

What trauma an cause TJ

A

Direct whiplash third olar extraction intubation * if direct blow with losed outh - posterior capsule injury

70
Q

What an be some auses of tj

A

Opensatory changes - short leg syndrome scoliosis *work oral habits sports developmental ab ood disorders

71
Q

What an cause intraapsular TJ

A

Infection RA OA gout artiular dis displacement

72
Q

What are risk factors for TJ

A

Neck trauma female hormone

73
Q

Are there genetic risks for TJ

A

No

74
Q

When should you do radiographs for TJ

A

R/o tooth problems *ri

75
Q

What hoe eerises an you do for TJ

A

Pads of fingers over hin open outh and push against fingers as you inhale; exhale and lose outh

76
Q

What is the teporalis self treatment

A

Hot packs for 15-20 in; stretch with pinky finger pad placed firmly behind hairline and rest of the fingers in hair around ears apply traction up while opening and losing outh

77
Q

What has poorer prognosis with TJ

A

Psychiatri factors; prolonged use of opiates beno alcohol

78
Q

What is a facilitated segment

A

SD; *two hallmarks - lower threshold and hypersensitiiity

79
Q

What would indicate parasympathetic dysfunction

A

On suture restriction; OA AA SD; sacrum

80
Q

How an you balance the ANS

A

see-\/ 4 technique; regional: rib raising paraspinal inhibition; ab ollateral ganglion; type II SD of spine; suboipital inhibition; sphenopallatine ganglia release; sacral inhibition and rocking; SI gap

81
Q

What deceases sympathetic activity

A

RIb raising; paraspinal inhibition; ganglia inhibition; type II SD

82
Q

What will normalize parasympathetic tone

A

Suboipital release; sphenopalatine release sacral inhibition and rocking; SI gap; BLT

83
Q

What did the Hearts of rabbits with T3 and atlas SD look like

A

Abnormal Olor to tissue; abundant fibrils; edema; hemorrhagic areas

84
Q

What should you look at for head pain

A

Head neck upper thorax upper ribs UE sacrum posture leg strength

85
Q

What auses head pain of anterior 2/3 s posterior 1/3

A

Anterior: trigem; posterior: lesser oipital (1-3) and recurrent branches of 9 and 10

86
Q

What tension HA PE findings will you see

A

Periranial tenderness; neck tenderness; neuro normal

87
Q

What is the neuro treatment of tension HA

A

-analgesics

88
Q

What is the etaboli treatment for tension HA

A

Sleep hygiene hormonal influences hydration

89
Q

What treatment is ost effective for tension HA

A

FR

90
Q

What are the risk factors for migraine

A

Analgesia overuse; multiple sclerosis

91
Q

What is the ost frequent ause of neck -headache

A

2-3 facet

92
Q

What is neck tongue syndrome

A

Rapid head turning auses subluxation of posterior AA joint and 2 spinal root kopression; neck pain occipital pain ipsilaterall tongue sensory symptoms

93
Q

What OT should you not do for neck ha

A

HLA

94
Q

What are the eraperitonial organs (no mesentery)

A

Retro: descending and horizontal duodenum; pancreas; ascending and descending kolon; see-u; upper 2/3 rektu infra: lower 1/3 rektu

95
Q

What does iseral pain feel like

A

Irritation spasm; poorly localized; ague; deep burning; sweating; N; pallor

96
Q

What does Soatik pain feel like

A

Well localized; asymmetric ; sharp; aggravated

97
Q

What is the percutaneous reflex of orley

A

Direct transfer of inflammatory irritation from isera to peritoneu; not reflex through iseral afferent reflex; ie: appendicitis - peritonitis

98
Q

What is the sympathetic part of ANS in GI system

A

-thoracic splanchnic n - seliak and superior mesenteric ganglion; lumbar splanchnic- inferior mesenteric

99
Q

What levels do each of theganglion have

A

See-Liak: T5-9; superior: T10-11; Inf: T12-L2

100
Q

What does the left agus n innerate

A

Greater urature of stomach

101
Q

How does the pelvic diaphragm go

A

During inhalation - inferiorly

102
Q

What nodes do diff parts of the abdomen drain

A

See Liak: stomach duodenu and spleen and liver; superior: jejunum ileum ascending and transverse olon; inferior: desneindg and sigmoid rectum

103
Q

What are some antiinflaatory foods

A

Olive oil tomatoes nuts spinach kale salon blueberries and oranges

104
Q

When do you stop OT in Gi patient

A

-relaxation of soft tissues; altered Autonomic tone; peripheral asodilation (increased skin temp/redness/swelling); increase in HR or resp rate; urgent to use restroom

105
Q

What is the diff btw sacral rocking and inhibition

A

Rocking increases parasympathetic tone; inhibition dereases it

106
Q

What are the kontraindikations to mesenteric release

A

AAA; open surgical wound

107
Q

Describe olon release

A

-sigmoid: on anteroedial side of left pel Bri with fore directed toward RUQ; descending: L posterolateral flank with medially directed fore; transverse: inferior to costal margin with inferior directed force; ascending: right posterolateral flank with a edially directed fore

108
Q

What are the indications for si release

A

Indigestion delayed gastri eptying holestasis

109
Q

When would you not perfor SI release

A

Peritonitis splenomegaly recent ag surgery

OS III (2 decks)

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