Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neurodevelopmental Determents MH > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 main things that are studied in neurodevelopment?

A
  1. mechanisms that govern the developmental trajectories of the NS
  2. alternative pathways underlying pathological outcomes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are some factors that can influence neurodevelopment?

A

Genes and environment (drugs, toxins, stressors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is neuropsychology?

A

it is the study of brain-behaviour relationships

>assessment of brain function based on behavioural expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the main function of neurons?

A

They form the basis of communication within the brain through networks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the main function of glial cells?

A

they are the “supportive” cells in the NS that help the neurons function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What two things are integral to proper function of the brain (like learning and memory)

A

growth and change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Important changes on the brain occur when? What can interfere with this?

A

at critical periods

Teratogens that disrupt proper development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Neuroplasticity

A

Mechanisms that allow the brain to change and adapt to environmental stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does neuroplasticity allow for?

A
  • compensatory mechanisms after an injury

- adaptation to changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Do we have the same amount of neuroplasticity at all ages in life?

A

No

Younger individuals have more plasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Early embryonic cells become what?

A

Neural progenitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Do neurons and glial cells have different progenitor cells?

A

No, they can stem from the same progenitor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What genes regulate neurogenesis and gliogenesis?

A

Different genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Do neurons or glial cells usually develop first?

A

Neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Do we keep generating neurons throughout our lives?

A

No, we have most of our neurons at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If we do not generate any more neurons after birth, why does our brain get bigger?

A

Because we develop more glia during life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Do we need all the neurons we are born with?

A

No, the neurons we do not use get pruned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the electrical and chemical communicators in the brain

A 
Electrical = action poteital 
Chemical = neurotransmitters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why do some babies who were exposed to alcohol in utero get fetal alcohol syndrome and some do not? (2)

A
  1. It depends on the stage of development they were exposed

2. Some genes are protective and some genes put you more at risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Embryogenesis:

A

Process by which an embryo develops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Inner cell mass develops into what?

A

embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the trophoblast contribute to?

A

the placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many days after fertilization does implantation occur?

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What layer does the nervous system develop from?

A

ectoderm germ layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The neural tube is developed by what time point?

A

3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What part of the neural tube develops into the brain

A

the front part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What factors can impact the development of the NS

A

Genetic Factors
Environmental Factors
- toxins, drugs, diet
***often a combination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the progression of the central dogma? What is a last additional factor?

A

Genes – DNA – mRNA – Protein

Post translational modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How are human’s brains similar to other animals?

A

Similar types of neurons, synapses and neurotransmitters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How many genes were mapped in the human genome project

A

30 000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can post-translational modification depend on?

A

Another protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What happens when a gene that codes for something like BDNF becomes mutated?

A

It can impair the functioning of other proteins that depend on it for post-translational modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a SNP

A

Single nucleotide polymorphism = there is a different nucleotide at a single location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Do SNPs always cause problems?

A

No, they can be non-consequentical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is “whole genome sequencing”?

A

It identifies the complete DNA sequence of an organism’s genome at a single point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How many genes were mapped in the human genome project

A

30 000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What can post-translational modification depend on?

A

Another protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What happens when a gene that codes for something like BDNF becomes mutated?

A

It can impair the functioning of other proteins that depend on it for post-translational modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a SNP

A

Single nucleotide polymorphism = there is a different nucleotide at a single location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Do SNPs always cause problems?

A

No, they can be non-consequentical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is “whole genome sequencing”?

A

It identifies the complete DNA sequence of an organism’s genome at a single point in time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is RNA-sequencing and what can it be used for?

A

Detects the presence and quantity of RNA in a genome

> Used to see how much of a protein is being made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. What is CRISPR,
    2 How does it work
  2. What was it originally created to do?
A
  1. It is a gene editing tool
  2. It targets gene activation or repression within a 20-nucleotide target sequence
  3. It was created to manipulate animal DNA to make animal models for diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Genotype:

A

genes- raw material and blueprints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Phenotype

A

structural and functional expression (like behaviour or physical appearance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Critical Periods:

A

Specific period during development when external stimuli may help to shape neurodevelopmental processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Complete penetrance

A

ALL individuals with the gene mutation will show disease symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

High penetrance

A

highly likely that individuals with the mutation will show disease symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Incomplete penetrance

A

Some individuals fail to show symptoms even though the mutant genotype is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Most neurodevelopmental disorders have _____ penetrance

What does this suggest?

A

Incomplete

Suggests that it is not only the mutation but other factors like the environment that cause a disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Bidirectionality of environment and gene

A

Environmental “stimuli” can affect neuronal activity during development
Neuronal activity can influence the expression of many genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How is the gene-environment interaction studied in humans

A

Twin studies

Usually twins reared apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is medical genetics?

A

The study of inherited factors and mechanisms that influence medical/behavioural outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Heredity:

A

Circumstance where phenotypic trait is passed form parents to children through genetic inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is it called when there is an abnormal chromosome number?

A

Aneuploidy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Karyotype:

A

Technique that checks the number and appearance of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are 3 types of monogenic genetic disorders?

A
  1. Sex-Linked = inheritance related to the sex of the individual (X-linked mutations)
  2. Autosomal Dominant = one allele possessed gene mutation, another is normal but the phenotype is still observed
  3. Autosomal recessive = both alleles in gene pair are mutated and produce the phenotype
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What make multifactorial (polygenic) conditions more complicated/

A

It does not follow the same rules of inheritance and there are variable phenotypes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are 3 factors of mitochondrial disorders?

A
  • “Non-traditional” inheritance (more rare)
  • Only a few disorders
  • Characterized by alterations in the mitochondrial DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Expressivity:

A

variability in clinical severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Penetrance:

A

Frequency of expression of genotype that results in specific phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are 3 DNA technology/linkage analysis for disorders

A
  1. Condition seen in other family members
  2. Gene mapping to ID possible variants/mutations
  3. Localize gene to chromosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Linkage analysis:

A

Searching for genetic code that could allow genetic testing for inheritable conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Genetic factors operate in the context of what?

A

Environmental conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Detrimental environmental exposure when during brain development result in a potential of a greater impact on brain structure and function?

A

Earlier stages

> Critical periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Fetal brain is most vulnerable to chemical and infectious agents in the _____ ______ ______

A

Maternal blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What can make some people more prone to the detrimental effects of teratogens?

A

People who possess a genetic susceptibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Teratogen:

A

Agent or factor external to the fetus that can cause structural or functional malformations during prenatal development
Ex. Alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Why can infection during pregnancy be bad?

A

They trigger an immune response and the immune factors might alter the neurodevelopment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is an example of an activity that can promote neurogenesis

A

Exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

If mom has a mental health disorder is it more or less likely for the child to have a mental health disorder?

A

Higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are 5 environmental factors that can impact neurodevelopment

A
  1. Intrauterine infections
  2. Neurotoxins
  3. Heavy metal exposure
  4. Stress/diet
  5. Maternal mental health
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How does Zika harm the fetus and what can be the result?

A

The virus diverts resources away from mechanisms needed to produce neurons and there will be a heightened immune response
» Microcephaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What exactly can Zika do to neurons

A

It can either directly kill developing neurons or it can just limit their growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the primary (3) effects of prenatal HSV infection

A
  1. lesions appear within 2 weeks of exposure
  2. genital inflammation
  3. Fever, headache, nausea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the secondary effects of prenatal HSV infection (4)

A
  1. Psychological effects including depression (for mom)
  2. Possible weakening of the BBB
  3. Inflammatory mechanisms can result in a pre-term birth
  4. Activates inflammatory mechanisms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What bacterial infection can be passed from the mother to the child that affects the genitals and eyes?

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What 4 issues can happen to pregnant women (and their babies) with clamydia?

A
  • Reproductive issues
  • Blindness for child
  • Preterm birth
  • Infertility or miscarriage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

When there is increased inflammation during pregnancy, what is happening in the fetal brain (4)?

A
  • Activated microglia
  • activated astrocytes
  • maturation arrest or death of oligodendrocytes
  • Axonal loss or death of neurons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the potential phenotypic consequences of increased inflammation in the developing brain (4)

A
  • preterm birth
  • motor deficits
  • cognitive and behavioural impairment
  • psychiatric illness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Stress can lead to the release of what?

A

Cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the effects of cytokines on the fetus?

A

Not clear, but it could impact neuronal development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Stress reduces what factors in the brain that are important for survival??

A

BDNF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Stress can also increase levels of proteins that are ____ to neurodevelopment

A

toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What important function does BDNF do?

A

It is important for the growth and survival of neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Neurotoxin:

A

A chemical/substance that is toxic to neurons (impacts brain development)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are 2 neurotoxins and what do they do?

A

Tetrodotoxin - inhibits sodium channels (kills all activity dependent mechanisms)
Botulinum Toxin - inhibits ACh at the neuromuscular junction and results in paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Why is activity at the neuromuscular junction during development important?

A

It helps to fine tune muscle activity and proper neuronal development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How do pesticides affect neurons?

A

they damage neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is an example of a pesticide that has been linked to Parkinson’s

A

Paraquat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are 4 elements in a proper diet that are very important in facilitating neuronal development?

A
  • Folate
  • Choline
  • Omega 3 fatty acids
  • Water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What can happen to the baby if the mom has folic acid deficiencies

A

Spina Bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What heavy metal is known to be toxic to neurons and what does it do (3)?

A

Mercury:

  • Delay neuronal development
  • Sensory impairment
  • reactive with selenium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the consequence when mercury reacts with selenium?

A

It will disable selenium form being able to protect neurons from oxidative damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

A mother can transfer unbalanced _______ ______ to the fetus

A

Neurotransmitter processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Children born of mentally ill mothers can more likely to develop which 2 mental illnesses?

A

Depression and schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What timeline of the mother smoking can cause harm to the fetus?

A

Only with prolonged smoking

If she stops smoking early in pregnancy it does not seem to have as great of an effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is a potential impact on the baby of the mother smoking

A

Head size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the effect of PAHS, an air pollutant, on neurodevelopment

A

It has a potential neurotoxic effect that could impact neurodevelopmental trajectory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is BPA found in and what are the potiential effects of it?

A

Plastics

> Can have neurodevelopmental issues and impact feeding behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Paternal exposure:

A

Anything the father of the baby is exposed to before his partner’s pregnancy can cause possible epigenetic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What can be the impact of paternal alcoholism on the baby

A

May exhibit hyperactivity and decreased cognitive performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the potential epigenetic mechanisms of stress that can impact a child?

A

Exposure to stress –> Modulation of BDNF signalling –> Changes in synaptic plasticity–>:
1. Vulnerability to anxiety
or
2. Vulnerability to alcohol consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are some of the multiple factors on how the environment can affect the brain (5)

A
  • Loss of protein homeostasis
  • DNA damage
  • Lysosomal dysfunction
  • Epigenetic changes
  • Immune dysregulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What behavioural signatures that are tested to determine if there is a neurological disorder (4)

A
  • Learning and memory (attention and executive function)
  • visual-motor integration
  • social behaviour
  • motor skills
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is ultrasound used for?

A

To detect structural aspects during embryonic and fetal development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Prenatal testing is done especially for what?

A

High risk pregnancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is considered a high risk pregnancy?

A

mother over 35 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is Integrated Prenatal Screening (IPS)

A

testing the maternal blood to look for biomarkers from the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is the nuchal translucency test?

A

It measures the fluid-filled space between the back of the feral neck and the uterine lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What measurement on the nuchal translucency is considered abnormal

A

More then 3.5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What do the nuchal translucency correlate with? (4)

A
  • Miscarriage
  • Still birth
  • Down syndrome
  • heart defects and rare genetic disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Karyotype:

A

chart of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What does karyotyping allow for?

A

allows for the identification of genetic disorders caused by chromosome alterations/abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Aneuploidy:

A

an abnormal number of chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is an amniocentesis test?

A

Takes up amniotic fluid that contains fetal cells that can be tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What tests can be done after an amniocentesis (5)

A
  • karyotyping
  • molecular testing
    - PCR
    - FISH
    - PAPP-A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What levels of PAPP-A is associated with down syndrome?

A

low levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Why don’t mons like having an amniocentesis

A

Because it can result in the loss of the fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What is Chronic Villus Sampling (CVS)

A

The collection and examination of fragments of placental tissue (chorionic villi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are the 5 aspects of multi-method approaches to diagnosis neurodevelopmental disorders

A
  • imaging
  • molecular testing
  • genetic testing
  • psychological testing
  • assessment of mental retardation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Why is it hard to do clinical assessments during development?

A

Because a child changes so quickly and there is no “normal” trajectory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What behavioural assessments CAN you do with a newborn to assess normal development? (6)

A
  • lack of alertness
  • poor quality of sleep
  • abnormal cry
  • feeding problems or constant drooling
  • spastic movement
  • abnormal head size
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are structural imaging techniques

A

Ultrasound
CT scan
MRi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are functional imaging techniqies

A

fMRI

PET

126
Q

What are standards of normality?

A

Early developmental assessments that involve age and stage specific testing and “normative reference”

127
Q

What is fragile X syndrome?

A

Abnormal FMR protein makes astrocytes not properly support the neuron so it has delayed development

128
Q

Cognitive psychology

A

Study of the effects of brain function on psychological processes

129
Q

Cognitive neuroscience

A

Molecular and biochemical processes underlying cognitive function

130
Q

Why is there a focus on the development of the adolescent brain over the adult brain?

A

Because the adolescent brain is still developing a lot

131
Q

What part of the brain do we keep lots of plasticity even as adults? Why?

A

Hippocampus

For memory formation

132
Q

The bursts and plateaus of neurodevelopment are correlated with what?

A

Social and academic changes

133
Q

Some conditions do not become apparent until late adolescence or young adulthood, what makes them apparent?

A

There are increases multi-tasking demands and higher work load

134
Q

What are the 3 areas of speech assessment

A

Articulation = pronounce words
Expressive Language = express thoughts coherently
Receptive Language = ability to understand language and follow directions

135
Q

What makes diagnosis in adolescence easier than in infancy

A

They are able to communicate with language

There are more concrete developmental milestones for defined characteristics of neurological testing

136
Q

What is new on the DSM 5?

A

There are treatment strategies suggested

137
Q

Learning disorder:

A

Neurological condition affecting the brain’s ability to receive, process, retain, and respond to information

138
Q

What are some of the areas affected by learning disorders? (6)

A 
Reading 
Writing 
Listening 
Speaking 
Reasoning 
Math
139
Q

Are people with learning disabilities unintelligent?

A

No, they generally have average or above average intelligence

140
Q

Learning disorders are now thought of as on a _____

A

spectrum

141
Q

Why is it that many people fall under the category of “multiple impairments” for learning disorders?

A

Because often if there is an abnormality with part of the brain there will be more than one problem

142
Q

Psychosocial manifestations fo a LD (6)

A
  • Attention
  • Concentration
  • Inference
  • Emotional labelling
  • Interactional dysfunction
  • Social and communicative competence
143
Q

The cause if LD is unknown, but there have been correlations

A
  • Prenatal exposure to drugs, toxins or heavy metals
  • Birth complications
  • Genetic (run in families)
144
Q

Concordance:

A

Both twins have disability

145
Q

Discordance:

A

One twin has the disability

146
Q

Dysregulation of ______ in the brain is thought to be linked to LD, either hyper or hypo

A

pruning

147
Q

Linkage analysis has found correlations between which two chromosomes and dyslexia

A

15 and 6

148
Q

Although statistically boys have more LD than girls, why might those stats be wrong?

A

Difference in how the problem manifests itself in boys and girls:

  • Boys act out
  • Girls get chatty or quiet
149
Q

what can be the reason that two disorders often occur together? (comorbid)

A

There is overlap in risk factors and/or genetic susceptibilities

150
Q

there is an increased risk for juvenile delinquency and substance abuse for what disorder

A

Learning disorder

151
Q

Do people grow out of learning disorders?

A

No, adolescent LD generally will persist into adulthood

152
Q

What are the co-morbidities of LD? (4)

A
  • Depression
  • Aggressive behaviour
  • Social incompetence
  • Emotional problems
153
Q

What is the neurological underpinning to a learning disorder

A

The improper development of the cortex

154
Q

Cognitive impairment is almost always associates with what

A

a learning disability

155
Q

What gene has been linked with learning disability

A

SHANK3

156
Q

What percentage of people have some form or dyslexia?

A

~1 in 5

157
Q

People with dyslexia can read, it just takes what?

A

More time and more cognitive resources

158
Q

Dyslexia is not a visual disorder but rather a _____ disorder

A

Language

159
Q

What type of spelling is common in people with dyslexia

A

Phonetic spelling

160
Q

The lateral (Sylvian) fissure is important for ______ processing

A

Language

161
Q

What are the functions of the lateral fissure

A

Receiving both auditory and visual information

Wernicke’s area

162
Q

Evolutionarily, why are learning disabilities associated with reading not speaking

A

Because our brains are automatically designed to make speech sounds, not to read

163
Q

What can you do to mitigate the symptoms of a LD

A

Reading

> A skill that can be strengthened through practice

164
Q

What is a key feature of all the fetal alcohol spectrum disorders?

A

Brain damage

165
Q

Which FASD is the most severe?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

166
Q

What is the prevalence of FASD

A

24-48/1000

167
Q

Why is alcohol so dangerous to a fetus?

A

Because it crosses the placental barrier

168
Q

What are the 3 principles of teratology?

A
  1. Results in abnormal development
  2. Time of exposure (most risk in 1st trimester)
  3. Dose and duration of exposure (unknown)
169
Q

FAS is known as a _______ condition

A

Teratogenic

170
Q

What are the major criteria for FAS diagnosis (3)`

A
  • Prenatal and/or post natal growth deficiencies
  • 3 cardinal facial features
  • CNS abnormalities
171
Q

What are the 3 cardinal facial features of FAS

A

Small eyes
Smooth philtrum (cupid’s bow)
Thin upper lip

172
Q

Is FASD heritable?

A

No

173
Q

What 2 types of drinking increase the risk that a baby will have FASD

A

binge drinking

drinking during the first trimester

174
Q

What are 3 distinct brain characteristics of FASD

A

Microcephaly
Thin corpus callosum
Abnormal cerebellum

175
Q

What is the critical period for most damaging effect of alcohol on the structure/function of the brain?

A

3-12 weeks gestation

176
Q

People with FASD have a predisposition to what?

A

Addictive behaviour

177
Q

What are 3 cognitive disabilities of FASD

A
  • Learning disorders and general mental retardation
  • Attention deficits
  • Reasoning and problem solving issues
178
Q

Behavioural symptoms of FASD (6)

A
  • Attention deficit
  • hyperactivity
  • Memory loss
  • Conduct issues
  • Cognitive deficits
  • Learning disabilities
179
Q

What receptor does alcohol (ethanol) stimulate

A

GABA

180
Q

GABA-A receptor:

A

Ionotropic

Gates Cl channel

181
Q

GABA-B receptor:

A

Metabotropic

Gates K+ channels

182
Q

Which of the GABA receptors does ethanol bind to?

A

GABA-A

183
Q

What happens when ethanol binds to the GABA-A receptor

A

It increases the time that the Na channel is open, so more sodium comes in and an action potential is more likely

184
Q

4 cormorbidities of FASD

A
  • Anxiety and mood disorders (depression)
  • ADHD
  • Addiction
  • Suicide
185
Q

Is there a cure for FASD

A

There is no cure, the damage is permanent

>Focus on prevention

186
Q

What are the treatments/interventions for FASD

A
  • Optimize environmental environment
  • Limit alcohol consumption
  • Give parents strategies to deal with kid
  • Social support
187
Q

What is a limit to animal research on FASD

A

Animals metabolize alcohol differently than humans

188
Q

What is resveratrol

A

An antioxidant that is found in red wine

189
Q

Is having a single drink during pregnancy ok?

A

It can have just as much of an effect as binge drinking, so don’t risk it

190
Q

What is an issue with retrospective studies on FASD

A

Moms likely do not want to admit how much they drank while pregnant because they know it is bad

191
Q

What are the different binding sites on the GABA A receptor (5)

A 
GABA 
Alcohol 
Benzodiazepine 
Barbiturates 
Steroids
192
Q

Most of the etiology of ADHD is speculative and extrapolated based on what?

A

based on treatments that work

193
Q

What were the 3 early criterion for attention

A
  1. Central feature of awareness, what we choose to focus on
  2. Effortful
  3. Motivated by a goal `
194
Q

Executive function requires what 3 things?

A
  • Sustained mental effort
  • self regulation
  • planning and execution
195
Q

What are the 2 symptoms of ADHD?

A
  1. Faulty attention

2. Hyperactivity and impulsivity

196
Q

Which symptom of ADHD is more prevalent in females?

A

Inattention

197
Q

What 2 things are required for a diagnosis of ADHD?

A
  1. Inattention and/or hyperactivity and impulsivity

2. Skill impairment

198
Q

People with the inattentive subtype of ADHA have difficulty attending to ______ and _____ tasks

A

repetitive and effortful

199
Q

What is the performance vs skill paradigm in ADHD

A

People with ADHD have all of the necessary skills, they cannot access the skill at that time

200
Q

Inattention in ADHD

A

Inability to inhibit need to perform a more interesting task

201
Q

Impulsivity in ADHD

A

Do not think before they act and have issues weighing the consequences of their actions

202
Q

Over-arousal in ADHD

A

Lack of inhibition, restless, and emotionally reactive

203
Q

Difficulty with gratification in ADHD

A

They required frequent, immediate, and predictable rewards. They are not good at waiting for long term goals

204
Q

Emotions and locus of control in ADHD

A

Have rapid ups and downs and blame behaviour on others

205
Q

Where are the delays in brain maturation in people with ADHD

A
  • Basal ganglia
  • PFC
  • Cerebellum
206
Q

What role does the abnormal PFC play in ADHD (5)

A

Difficulty with:

  • attention
  • spatial working memory
  • short term memory
  • planning and organization
  • language skills
207
Q

What role does the abnormal cerebellum play in ADHD

A

response inhibition and motor coordination

208
Q

Brain structure abnormalities in ADHD (4)

A
  • Smaller right PFC
  • Delayed maturation of PFC
  • Smaller cerebellum
  • Abnormal structure and function of basal ganglia
209
Q

What role does the basal ganglia play in ADHD

A

improper self-regulation of emotions

210
Q

What 3 NT are possibly affected in ADHD

A

Dopamine
Norepinephrine
Serotonin

211
Q

What is the role of dopamine in ADHD

A

Reward/motivation and pleasure seeking behaviours

212
Q

What role does norepinephrine play in ADHD

A

Emotional and behavioural regulation

213
Q

Dopamine can be converted into what?

A

Norepinephrine

214
Q

What converts dopamine into norepinephrine

A

Dopamine-bata-hydroxylase

215
Q

An imbalance in dopamine can lead to an imbalance of what?

A

Norepinephrine

216
Q

Norepinephrine is related to fight or flight, how could this be impacted in ADHD

A

Thought that it might play a role in the hyperactivity

217
Q

It has been shown that what reward pathway is impaired in ADHD

A

Mesolimbic Dopamine system

218
Q

what brain structures are involved in the mesolimbic dopamine system?

A

Ventral tegmental area
Nucleus accumbens
PFC

219
Q

How could stimulants help ADHD

A

It will allow for more dopamine in the mesolimbic dopamine system and potentially decrease hyperactivity

220
Q

4 genes that have been linked to impulsive behaviour

A

DAT1 (dopamine transporter)
DRD2 (dopamine receptor)
MAO-A (monoamine oxidase-A)
5HTT (serotonin transporter)

221
Q

High levels of manganese in the hair of ADHD ppl has been correlated with:

A

soy-based infant formulas

222
Q

What is the hypothesis of manganese and ADHD

A

It can accumulate in the brain and has been correlated with the loss of dopamine in the mesolimbic dopamine system

223
Q

What are 4 other prenatal environmental risk factors for ADHD

A

alcohol
cocaine
lead
smoking

224
Q

If the mom or child has any of these 4 disorders it could be a risk factor for ADHD

A
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Encephalitis
  • radiation from cancer
  • TBI
225
Q

3 co-morbid factors with ADHD

A
  1. Speech and language problems
  2. Poor academic performance
  3. Learning disability
226
Q

Do symptoms of ADHD carry into adulthood?

A

Most do carry into adulthood but some diminish

227
Q

What is the multi-pronged approach to ADHD treatment

A
  • medical
  • behavioural
  • environmental (limit drug use)
228
Q

Stimulant drugs for ADHD affect which 2 NT

A

dopamine and norepinephrine

229
Q

2 chemical compound names for stimulant drugs

A

Methylphenidate

Dextroamphetamine

230
Q

What are 3 common names for methylphenidate

A

Ritalin
Cincerta
Metadate

231
Q

What is the common name for dextroamphetamine

A

Adderall

232
Q

Which of the stimulant drugs is more effective and why?

A

Adderall

Allows for more dopamine by blocking reuptake

233
Q

What is the non-stimulant alternative for an ADHD drug? What NT does it target?

A

Atomoxetine

Norepinephrine

234
Q

Why would you choose a non-stimulant ADHD drug?

A

Because it does not contain amphetamine so it is less damaging to the developing brain and it is not addictive

235
Q

Aggressive behaviour

A

characterized by verbal or physical attack that could be a “protective” response or may destructive toward the self and others

236
Q

Impaired cognitive function in aggression

A

May leas to incorrect perception of danger or offence

237
Q

Impaired escape or avoidance in aggression

A

Behaviours likely causes by high levels of anxiety and impaired stress response

238
Q

Impulsivity and aggression

A

Can be a precursor to aggressive behaviours

Can be frustration at inability to express one’s self

239
Q

Delayed neurodevelopment in aggression

A

aggression may be an altered mechanism for communicating emotions *especially in delays with cognitive and communication areas

240
Q

Significant life trauma or maltreatment and aggression

A

May lead to aggressive behaviours

241
Q

Low threshold for anger

A

associated with impairment in emotional regulation

242
Q

6 potential causes of aggressive behaviour

A
  1. Impaired cog function
  2. Impaired escape or avoidance
  3. Impulsivity
  4. Delayed neurodevelopment
    5 Trauma or maltreatment
  5. Low anger threshold
243
Q

2 categories of aggressive behaviours

A

Proactive and reactive

244
Q

Proactive aggression

A

Seeking out to do harm to a specific person

245
Q

Reactive aggression

A

A response to perceived harm, slight or violation

246
Q

Aggressive behaviour is characteristic of what neurological conditions (7)

A 
depression 
bioplar disorder 
TBI 
PTSD 
Alzheimer's 
Dementia 
Down syndrome 
ADHD
247
Q

How is aggressive behaviour treated?

A

Treating the specific individual characteristics by identifying the underlying the “primary symptoms”

248
Q

5 symptoms of aggressive behaviour

A 
Impulsivity 
Emotional instability 
Anxious 
Cognitive disorganization
Predatory aggressive behaviour
249
Q

2 major types of aggressive disorders

A 
Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)
Conduct disorder (CD)
250
Q

What is the current focus in research on aggression

A

Studying adolescents and identifying precursors through longitudinal studies

251
Q

What are the risk factors that can be identified at an early age for aggressive behaviour

A

Difficult infant/temperamental
Negative parenting behaviour
»both together

252
Q

Where is an ____ and ____ difference in the prevalence rates

A

age and gender

253
Q

What are 2 potential prenatal risk factors to aggressive behaviour

A

Smoking and other drug use during pregnancy

254
Q

Brain inhibition is linked to 4 executive functions

A
  • working memory
  • self regulation
  • internalization
  • reconstruction
255
Q

What area of the brain processes much of the executive functions in aggressive behaviour

A

Prefrontal cortex fronto-striatal region (part of the basal ganglia)

256
Q

4 brain regions implicated in aggression

A

Ventro-medial PFC
Orbitofrontal cortex
Nucleus accubmens
Amygdaya

257
Q

Ventromedia PFC in aggression

A

Delay of gratification

258
Q

Orbitofrontal cortex in aggression. Is it larger or smaller?

A

restrain impulsive aggression

> larger

259
Q

Nucleus accubmens in aggression

A

Reward and reinforcement

260
Q

Amygdala in aggression. Is it larger or smaller?

A

Emotional memories used for decision making

>Smaller

261
Q

Which NT plays the biggest role in aggression

A

serotonin

>central role in impulsivity

262
Q

Serotinin interacts with what 4 NT in aggression

A

Norepinephrine (irritability)
Dopamine (reward)
Glutamate (excitation)
GABA (inhibition)

263
Q

Is it the amount of serotonin that is important in aggression?

A

No, it is its balance with other NT

264
Q

Mice lacking which serotonin receptor exhibited increased impulsivity and aggression

A

5-HT1B

265
Q

4 neurodevelopmental predispositions to aggressive behaviour

A
  • Genetic influence
  • Prenatal exposure to high levels of testosterone (males)
  • Childhood trauma or stress
  • intrauterine exposure to smoke
266
Q

What is the hypothesis of MAO and aggression. Why?

A

Inhibition of brain MAO during fetal brain development is a risk factor for aggression. Leads to excess dopamine in the synapse and the brain gets used to the excess excitation and seeks it out

267
Q

vasopressin in aggression

A

it is involved in the stress response and seems to be more of it in aggressive males

268
Q

Long term exposure to cortisol _______ serotonin in the limbic system. What does this impact?

A

Suppresses

Major impact of emotional stability and impulsivity

269
Q

There is an ________ relationship between serotonin and aggressive behaviour

A

Inverse

270
Q

Activating the 5TH1A receptor _______ aggression

A

decreases

271
Q

Vasopressin (which has been linked to aggressive behaviour) is dependent on what hormone?

A

Testosterone

272
Q

There is high levels of vasopressin and testosterone in what brain area. What does this do?

A

Lateral septum

Plays a key role in emotional process and stress response

273
Q

What are the treatment strategies for aggression

A

CBT

Medication

274
Q

What is the medical interventions for aggression focused on

A

Targeting the underlying symptoms, like impulsivity

275
Q

What drugs can be used to treat aggression

A

Stimulants
Antipsychotics
Mood stabilizers

276
Q

What is Tourette’s Syndrome?

A

Neurological condition characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements and vocalizations called tics

277
Q

When is onset for Tourette’s

A

Early childhood or adolescence (2-15 y/o)

278
Q

Do motor or vocal tics typically appear first

A

Motor

279
Q

Sometimes the motor tics go un-noticed until when?

A

Until the vocal tics set in

280
Q

Categorization of Tourette’s tics

A

Simple and complex

281
Q

Simple tics

A

Involves a few muscles or simple sounds

282
Q

Complex tics

A

Involves multiple groups of muscles

>Orchestrated in bouts of muscle contractions or is manifested as single words or complete sentences

283
Q

Examples of simple motor tics

A
  • eye blinking
  • jerking of the neck
  • shrugging of shoulders
  • face grimacing
  • coughing
284
Q

Examples of complex motor tics

A
  • grooming behaviours
  • facial gestures
  • jumping, stomping of feet
  • smelling objects
285
Q

Examples of simple vocal tics

A
  • Clearing of throat
  • Sniffing
  • Grunting
  • Barking
286
Q

Examples of complex vocal tics

A

Repetition of words or phrases out of context

  • Coprolalia
  • Palilalia
  • Echolalia
287
Q

Coporalia

A

Use of obscenities (rare)

288
Q

Parilalia

A

Repetition of one’s own sounds or words

289
Q

Echolalia

A

Repetition of recently heard words, sounds, or phrases

290
Q

Do complex tics always develop

A

No, some people just have simple tics

291
Q

What is a misconception of Tourettes that can make diagnosis hard

A

Misconception that Tourette’s is often associated with coporalia, so it can lead to people not going for diagnosis

292
Q

What are the core features of TS (3)

A

Multiple motor tics
One or more vocal tics
Motor and vocal tics may appear separately or simultaneously

293
Q

Diagnostics criteria of TS

A
  • Tics must be seen many times a day for a year
  • Tics must be present for 3 months straight
  • Tics impair aspects of social and emotional well being
294
Q

Are people aware of the tics before they happen in TS

A

Most have a premonition they will happen but some do not

295
Q

TS movements are described as “_______” but _______

A

Purposeful but unwanted

296
Q

What is more concrete proof that TS tics are involuntary

A

They can happen during sleep

297
Q

MRI of TS patients show what

A

A generally normal brain

298
Q

What brain abnormality has been seen in TS. It is more prevalent in who?

A

Corpus callosum

Males

299
Q

There is hypoperfusion in what brain areas in TS

A

Basal ganglia
Orbitofrontal cortex
Temporal lobe

300
Q

There is decrease activity in what 2 brain regions in TS

A

Cortex and striatum

301
Q

Is the cause of TS known

A

No

302
Q

People with parents with TS are ____ more likely to get it too

A

3 times

303
Q

What are the candidate genes implicated in TS

A 
Dopamine receptors (DRD1, 2, 4, 5)
Dopamine transporters
304
Q

Environmental risk factors of TS (5)

A
  • Infection in childhood
  • Low birth weight
  • First trimester sickness
  • Smoking during pregnancy
  • Labour more that 24 hours (possible hypoxia)
305
Q

PANDAS and TS

A

Hypothesis that the immunological response to anti-streptococcal antibodies target neuron in the basal ganglia

306
Q

What cortical pathway has been associated with TS

A

Cortirostriatal-Thalamocortical pathway

307
Q

What size of caudate nucleus is associated with tics

A

smaller

308
Q

What pharmacological treatment involvng dopamine has shown some success in treating TS. What drug is used

A

Blocking dopamine receptors has been shown to reduce tics

> Haloperidol

309
Q

What are SSRIs used for in treating TS

A

Treating comorbid impulsivity, obsession and compulsions, anxiety

310
Q

What are 2 alternative methods of treating TS

A
  • Fish oil supplements

- Deep brain stimulation of basal ganglia

311
Q

Behavioural therapy can be combined with what pharmacological therapy to treat TS

A
  • Antipsychotics
    Risperidone
  • Stimulants

Neurodevelopmental Determents MH (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions