Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

“A 56 year old woman complaints of fatigue. Accodring to her medical records, she has HT, peptic ulcer and nephrolithiasis.
Laboratory findings:
se[Ca]: 2,8 mmol/L
se [PO4]: 0,6 mmol/L
se[ALP]: 450 U/L
DEXA scan: T-score of -2,8 SD on the hip and forarm

What tests would you order to determine the exact cause of her disease?”

A

Hypercalcemia: nephrolithiasis and fatigue

Hypophosphatemia:

ALP of 450: should be < 150 –> indicates osteoclast activity.

Osteoporotic T score (normal >-1.0, Measured by DEXA

Diagnosis:
Primary hyperparathyroidism (oversecretion of PTH, can be caused by adenoma or hyperplasia)

Osteoporosis bc of PTH –> osteoblast activity increase –> bone resorption increase

PTH increase osteoclast activity -> Ca2+ increase

PTH increases production of Vit.D, and thus phosphate decrease

Additional tests:

  • Scintigraphy with 99Tc
  • US
  • PTH and Vit.D levels
  • Biopsy
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2
Q

“A 68 year old non-smoking man has been complaining of progressive weakness for 2 weeks. In addition to these symptoms he has developed intermittent cough, pleuritic chest pain and excretional dyspnea for 6 days. In the last weeks he frequently experienced nausea and vomited several times. Medical history reveals no HT or coronary heart disease. He has a long history of heartburn - he takes regularly antacids and drinks 1-2 L milk/ day.

Laboratory findings:
se Ca: 2.8 mmol/L
se Phosphate: 1.8 mmol/L
BUN: 24 mmol/L
HCO3: 38 mmol/L
PTH and Vit.D: normal

What is the most likely diagnosis?”

A

MILK ALKALI SYNDROME: chronic ingestion of high amount og antacids + hypercalcemia are strong clues

Hypercalcemia:

  • ingested too much bicarb.
  • CNS depressing effect

Hyperphosphatemia: . PTH is normal and so phosphat excretion is normal. More sticks around to bind Ca

High BUN: 2-10 er vanlig.
- kidney failure due to milk-alkali syndrome bc. og nephrocalcinosis

High bicarb: over-absorption –> mild alkalosis

Since PTH and Vit. D are normal = other causes ruled out - ie. hyperparathyroidism

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3
Q

“A 35 year old woman is complaining about frequent muscle cramps. She was admitted to the hospital after having a convulsion. She had thyroidectomy 3 months ago and she is on thyroid hormone substitutions since then. Physical examination revealed a positive Chvosteks signa and Trousseaus phenomenon.

Laboratory findings:
se [Ca]: 1 mmol/L
se[PO4]: 2.0 mmol/L
serum ALP: 140 U/L

What is your diagnosis? What further tests would you order to support your diagnosis?”

A

Diagnosis: PTH deficiency due to thyroidectomy where the parathyroids glands also were removed whilst removing the parathyroids.

Severe hypocalcemia:
- hyperflexible muscles, muscle cramping and convulsions (chevostek and Trossaus signs)

Chevostek: twitching masseter muscle

Trossaus phenomenom: inflate BP-cuff–> forarm contract/spasms

Hyperphosphataemia:
- PTH stimulates phosphate excretion. Without PTH –> Phosphate increase

Further tests:

  • PTH levels
  • Imaging
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4
Q

“A 66 year old woman felt a sharp, sudden lumbar pain as she was lifting a bag of groceries out of the supermarket cart. An X-ray taken in the emergency showed a compression fracture of L1.

Laboratory findings:
se[Ca]: 2,4 mmol/L
se[PO4]: 1,1 mmol/L

What is your diagnosis? What further tests should you order?”

A

Pathological fracture –> likely due to primary (postmenopausal) osteoporosis

Estrogen stimulates OPG production, and OPG decreases osteoclast activity. Low estrogen –> overactive osteoclasts –> extensive bone remodeling

If it was osteomalacia: Ca and Pi would be low

If she had hyperparathroidism: Ca high, Phos low (or high) depending on origin

Tests:
DEXA: see T-score to diagnose osteoporesis

Labs:

  • PTH, ALP, urinary calciym and phosphate (all should be normal)
  • Check estrogen
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5
Q

“A 60 year old diabetic woman has been on hemodialysis for 15 years. She recently started to complain about cardiac pain. She has no history of cardiac illness. Physical examination reveals pale, grey-yellow colored skin, but nothing else remearkable. Exercise electrocardiogram shows ST-T alterations.

Laboratory findings:
ALAT: 45 U/L
ASAT: 52 U/L
serum creatinine: 180 umol/L
serum Ca: 2,1 mmol/L
serum phosphate: 2,8 mmol/L
serum PTH: elevated

What is the possible diagnosis? What further tests would you perform?”

A

RF with secondary hyperparathyroidism: damage kidney cannot remove enough phosphate –> hyperphosphatemia –> bind free Ca –> free Ca decrease —> stimulate PTH secretion.

Hypocalemia also occur becase low vitamin D levels will reduce Ca2+ reabs

FGF-23

ALAT is normal (<45U/L)
ASAT at 52 is slightly elevated (normal < 45 U/L)
ALP is normal (150U/L)

High seCreatinine: indicate low GFR, poor kidney function

Cardiac pain: ST-T changes

Paleness:related to anemia due to decreased EPO.

Rule out AMI
US
Serum electrolytes

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6
Q

“A 65 year old man complains of frequent urination and urinary retention. There is no macroscopic hematuria, urination is not painful. He complains of recurrent abdominal pain in the last weeks.

Laboratory findings:
serum Ca: 3,5 mmol/L
serum PO4: 2 mmol/L
BUN: normal

What is the possible diagnosis? What further tests would you perform to support your diagnosis?”

A

PROSTATE CARCINOMA WITH BONE METASTASES

Prostate enlarged (no pain, no blood, no bleeding).

Severe hypercalcemia: alarmingly high -> at risk for cardiac arrest

Elevated phosphate: neoplastic bone lesion

Further test:

  • Prostate evaluation
  • Imaging of metastases
  • ALP
  • PTH
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7
Q

“Some weeks after having a sore throat and high fever, the patient has developed edema. His blood pressure is increased.
Urinalysis
volume: 450mL/day
protein: +++ (3g/day)
sediment: 50-100 erythrycytes/HPF, leukocytes rarely
creatinine clearance: 30 mL/min
What is the presumable diagnosis?”

A

RPGN - nephritic syndrome. Can be post-streptococcal. Subendothelial IC-deposition. High protein excretion can cause edema. HT due to increased renin secretion (low GFR)

Borderline oliguria. 3g protein is above normal -> due to GN.

ESR = 50-100, indicate hematuria

Creatinine clearance indicate GFR = 120-125mL/min (normally)

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8
Q
"Laboratory findings of a patient with massive edemas: 
serum total protein: 40g/L
serum cholesterol: 8mmol/L
ESR: 28mm/h
BP: 120/80 mmHg
Urinalysis:
quantity: 1800mL/day
protein: ++++ (12g/day)
sediment: 1-2 leukocytes/hpf, erythrocytes rarely, a lot a hyaline casts
What is the presumable diagnosis?
"
A

Diagnosis: nephrotic syndrome. Higher risk of atherosclerosis

Massive edema, normal BP

Total protein is too low, due to severe kidney excretion

High cholesterol: liver tries to compensate to low serum proteins, including lipoproteins

Increased ESR

Slightly increased urine volume

SEVERE proteinemia, albumin is being lost too

Hyalin casts: not just of normal composition

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9
Q
"A febrile patient complaints of lumbar pain.
Urinalysis: 
protein: ++
pus: +++
sediment: a lot of leukocytes, some erythrocytes, epithelial cells, a lot of bcteria, leukocyte casts.
Ck: 100mL/min
ESR: 38mm/h
What is the presumble diagnosis?"
A

Pyelonephritis

  • Moderate protein in urine, some glomerular damage
  • Pyuria: WBC in urine –> UTI
  • Leukocyte = infection
  • RBC = damage
  • Low Ccr.: impaired kidney function
  • Increased ESR: in inflammation especially

Pyelonephritis is usually due to ascending UTI.

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10
Q

“Laboratory findings of a patient include the following:
Urinalysis:
sediment: 3-5 erythrocytes/Hpf, rarely lekocytes
the erythrocytes are isomorphic;
there is a miminal proteinuri, the urinary protein electrophoresis does not show selectivity in the proteinuria;
Ck: 120mL/min
What can be the probable diagnosis: glomerular hematuria or urinary tract bleeding?”

A

Mild urinary tract bleeding (3-5 RBC/hpf)

Normal morphology of RBC (if glomerular damage the RBC would be dehydrated)

Minimal proteinuria:

GFR not impaired

Diagnosis:
- mild bleeding, most likely due to smalll nephrolithiasis

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11
Q
"After receving a massive dose of aminoglycoside antibiotics, a patient with no prior symptoms of kidney disease develops a body weight gain of 3kg over a period of 3 days. He does not void urine spontaneously. The total volume of urine collected by catheterization is 200mL/day. 
Other laboratory results:
serum creatinine: 440umol/L
serum urea: 28,5 mmol/L
plasma K+: 6.2 mmol/L
What is the most likely diagnosis?"
A

Diagnosis: ACUTE RENAL FAILURE due to aminoglycoside toxicity

Causes ATN by the toxicity

Gained 3kg in fluids.

anuria (borderline), sudden retention problem

High creatinine = indicate RF

Hyperkalemia indicates RF

Retention parameters: hyperkalemia, high creatinine and increased serum urea.

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12
Q

“The serum glucose level is 15 mmol/L in a diabetic ketoacidosis. GFR is markedly decreased (20mL/min). Tubular function tests are negative. No glucose can be detected in the urine (by repeated tests).
How is this possible?”

A

Kimmelstein-Wilsons disease:

Negative tubular function test BUT severely decreased GFR (6th of normal) –> tubules have more time to reabsorb glucose –> no glucosuria.

Diabetic nephropathy –> diabetic angiopathy –> nodular sclerosis –> KWD.

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13
Q
"Laboratory findings of a patient: 
Urinalysis: 
color: straw-yellow
pus: +++
transparency: turbic (nubecular)
blood: +
quantity: 400mL (present), 1600mL/day
glucose: negative
acetone: negative
specific gravity: 1022
ubg: normal
protein: 50mg/day
bilirubin: negative
Urinary sediment:
20-30 epithelial cells, 30-40 WBC, 3-4 RBC, per hpf
Further data: 
body temperture: 38*C
WBC: 12 G/L, RBC: 4,5 T/L, ESR: 2mm/h
creatinine clearance: 120mL/min
cultivation of E.coli: positive

What is the most likely diagnosis?”

A

UTI by E.coli infection

Pyuria by WBCs = infection

ESR 2 = not chronic infection

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14
Q

“A person fainted while working in the summer heat for a long time.
Complaints: thirst, dry mouth, weakness, oliguria
Physical examination: decreased skin turgor, blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg
Laboratory parameters:
se[Na]: 152 mmol/L
se[K]: 5 mmol/L
htc: 0,45
HGB: 160 g/L
MCV: 70 fL
How do you explain the laboratory parameters? What is to be done with the patient? “

A

HYPERNATREMIC HYPOVOLEMIA due to heat exhaustion. Severe dehydration.

BP sligtly low

Hypernatremia - sweat is hypOSMOTIC because of the Na-reabs. in the sweat ducts.

K+: borderline high. More fluid than electrolyte loss.

Htc is normal:
Normal hemoglobin: rules out that blood loss is the cause of the hypovolemia

Microcystosis (MCV): low. H20 pulled out by osmolar forces, leading to cell dehydration

Treatment:

  • cooling
  • should be given an electrolyte solution
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15
Q

“An elderly person gets sick while enjoying himself on Octoberfest: he complains of a headache and muscle cramps. He is disoriented. He has drunk 4 liters of beer during the past 2 hours.
Physical examination: alcoholic breath, increased plantar extensor reflex. BP: 180/100 mmHg

Laboratory parameters:
se[Na]: 126mmol/L
se[K]: 4 mmol/L
MCV: 102 fl
Htc: 0,36
se[creatinine]: 150mmol/L
se [urea]: 18 mmol/L
urine densityr: 1,015 kg/L; [Na]: 20 mmol/L

How do you explain the symptoms and the laboratory results?”

A

Urine should be more diluted, and there is a clear urine retention. All parameters suggest there is something wrong with the kidney —> most likely the whole nephron is involved. Renin disease –> affect the renin production. Babinsci reflex –>increased pressure in the skull —> risk for brain edema, will explain the neurological symptoms. The muscle cramps are due to the CNS involvement.

Lab parameters (hyponatremia) indicates a hypovolemic hyponatremia –> water poisioning–> hypoosmolarity –> also increased risk for brain edema (same reason, pressure will increase in the skull).

Beer is hypotonic w/some alcohol. Decreased htc = decreased RBC count–> water intoxication. Both creatinine and urea are high bc. if you loose concentration ability you loose dilution capability. Urine density would be “more normal” if the kidney funtion was optimal.

In a healthy person: would see normal kidney parameters, but hyponatremia (no RF-markers). Presence of RF-markers = indicate renal failure or insufficiency

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16
Q

“An elderly woman has been on NSAIDS treatment for a long time, because of her rheumatoid arthritis. She got very weak after having an acute diarrhea, she feels too dizzy and needs to sit down.

Physical examination: decreased skin trugor. BP in supine position = 120/80, but standing = 90/55 mmHg

Laboratory parameters:
se[Na]: 116 mmol/L
se [K]: 6,2 mmol/L
Htc: 0,48
se[creatinine]: 180mol/L
se [urea]: 18 mmol/L
urine [Na]: 50 mmol/L

How do you explain the symptoms and the laboratory results?

A

Hypovolemic hyponatremia due to RF and diarrhea

  • Long term use of NSAIDs can cause Renal medullary hypoxia, especially in ppl with already poor health, and have RAAS activation

When RAAS is activated –> constrict afferent arteriole, and the kidney can become hypoxic. PGE2 released in response –> dilate afferent arteriole –> restore blood flow.

NSAIDs inhibit PGE2, kidney remain hypoxic –> excrete sodium

Called ANALGESIC NEPHROPATHY

RF: explains increased sodium excretion and potassium retention.

Orthostatic HT: due to hypovolemia

Hyponatremia: due to excretion

Urinary sodium: RF sign

Hyperkalemia RF due to decreased urinary excretion of K+

Htc is high: due to hypovolemia

Azotemia

Decreased skin trugor: dehydration sign

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17
Q

“How will the following laboratory values be changed in a protracted, untreated diabetic ketoacidosis coma before treatment?

Total potassium of the body
Total sodium of the body
Total water (fluid) of the body

Does the serum [K] change in parallel with the potassium amount of the body? How do you think the appropriate treatment will change the serum [K] concentrations?”

A

DKA: a state where the body has no insulin-mediated glucose regualtion, and thus it will continue to produce glucose, although the serum levels are very high. Glucose is osmotically active, and attracts both solutes and solvents. When glucose serum limit is reached, glucose excretion by the kidneys takes both solutes and water with it

Total potassium of the body: DECREASE. Serum concentration will occur normal or high, because glucose forces i.c. potassium into the blood

Total sodium of the body: DECREASE: lost via urine

Total water of the body: DECREASE. DKA causes polyuria –> water loss

Treatment: infusion and insulin administration –> help drive K+ back into the cells.

Calcium-gluconate

Normalization of glucose will help normalization of the osmotic diuresis

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18
Q

“An elderly man gets chemotherapy for his chronic lymphoid leukemia. He complaints of intermittent palpitations, and being disoriented. BP: 90/60 mmHg

Laboratory paramters:
se[Na]: 135 mmol/L
se [K]: 8,2 mmol/L
Htc: 0,28

How can you explain the laboratory results? What kind of ECG abnormalities can you expect to see? What would you do with him?”

A

Low BP
Normonartemia
Hyperkalcemia
Critically low htc

TUMOR-LYSIS syndrome, causes K+ increase

Low htc due to BM overpopulation due to malignancy.

ECG abnormalities

  • high T wave, tent like
  • Prolonged PQ
  • P-wave flattening, or disappears
  • Wider QRS
  • V-fib susceptible

Treatment:

  • treat hyperkalemia
  • Treat hypotension and low hematocrit
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19
Q

“A woman gets hospitalized after having broken several of her bones in a car accident. BP: 80/50 mmHg, HR: 130 bpm. The patient develops oliguria after being stabilized.

Laboratory parameters: 
se [Na]: 150 mmol/L
se[K]: 7,2 mmol/L
se [creatinine]: 350 umol/L
se[urea]: 18,8 mmol/L
htc: 0,33
Urine amount (by catheterization): 200mL.
What emergency treatment is necessary? How can you explain the parameters seen later?"
A

CIRCULATORY SHOCK! High risk for MOF, with significant renal failure. Suspect CRUSH syndrome.

Emergency treatment:

  • stop bleeding
  • give calcium gluconate
  • Restore BP with IV dextran
  • Give bicarbonate to prevent acidosis
  • Insulin + glucose: to move K+ back into cells

Blood is redistributed. Can get acute tubular necrosis

20
Q

“What is the direction of change in the parameters below during respiratory acidosis?
aHCO3
stHCO3
BE

During generation and compensation”

A

aHCO3 will initially increase, and after compensation further increase. Dependent both metabolically and respiratory. Kidney compensate by reabs. more HCO3

stHCO3 will initially be unchanged, and after compensation increase. Only dependent on metabolism.

BE will be unchanged initially, and finally positive.
Generally: shows the base deficit reflecting the metabolic side, no change initially
Compensation: pos = base excess = lack of acids.

OBS: 6-8h needed for compensation, and up to 3-5 days for maximal effect. Need to synthesize channel proteins

21
Q

“Diabetic ketoacidosis. How and why do the indicated parameters deviate from normal?
pH, pCO2, BE, aHCO3, stHCO3, AG se[K]”

A

pH decrease because of ketones (acidic), but will become less acidic with compensation

pCO2: related to compensation, so initially equal, but when compensation starts the pCO2 will decrease

BE: strongly negative due to lack of base, but when kidneys start to compensate the value will be a bit less negative

aHCO3: both respiratory and metabolic parameter. Increase in H+ will deplete HCO3 as a buffer, so initially it will decrease. Lung compensation, further decrease, and then a little less decrease with kidney compensation.

stHCO3: depleted as buffer, but increases with kidney compensation

AG: ketones = aniones —> high AG

seK+: INCREASED
- insulin is a stimulator of Na+/K+ ATPase –> lack of insulin will cause decreased cellular uptake.

22
Q

“Traumatic shock (bleeding, crush). The acid-base parameters during the first hours and one day later:

pH: 7.2 --> 7.05
pCO2: 20 --> 55 mmHg
HCO3: 8 ---> 13 mmol/L
st HCO3: 11 mmol/L  both times
BB: 28 mEq/L both times
BE: -18mEq/L both times

One day after the trauma symptoms of shock-lung develop. Identify the type and analuyze the different stages of the acid-base imbalance”

A

At day of accident:
PRIMARY METABOLIC ACIDOSIS with normal respiratory compensation

One day later:
METABOLIC + RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS because the lungs cannot compensate because of ARDS

23
Q
"A 35-year-old woman reports to the ED with shortness of breath. She has cyanosis of the lips. She has had a productive cough for 2 weeks. Her temperature is 39 oC, blood pressure 110/76 mmHg, heart rate 108 bpm, respirations 32/min, rapid and shallow. Breath sounds are diminished in both bases, with coarse bronchi in the upper lobes. 
Her ABG results are:
     pH = 7.44, 
     pCO2 = 28 mmHg, 
      aHCO3− = 18 mmol/l, 
     stHCO3− = 20 mmol/l,
     AG = 12 mmol/l, 
     pO2 = 54 mmHg
How do you interpret her ABG result? What other test would you order to verify your diagnosis?"
A

Start of resp. alkalosis due to hyperventilation in relation to pulmonary edema caused by sepsis (or pneumonia), secondary metabolic acidosis.

24
Q
"A 23 year-old woman with exacerbated rheumatoid arthritis enters to the ED. She has frequently vomited lately. 
Her medication: Aspirin 3–5 pills/day. 
Her ABG result:
     pH = 7.70, 
     pCO2 = 25 mmHg, 
     aHCO3− = 30 mmol/l, 
     AG = 22 mmol/l
     (Calculated pCO2 = 42–44 mmHg.)
What kind of acid-base disorders does she have?"
A

Aspirin side-effect = vomiting = GI problem = loose H+ –> increase pH.

3-5 pills = overdose!

Alkalemia, low pCO2 = alkalemia. Rapid and deep breathing.

AG is 22 –> PRIMARY METABOLIC ACIDOSIS REGARDLESS OF pH and HCO3

Additional respiratory alkalosis.

SALICYLATE POISIONING.

Primary metabolic acidosis with co-existing respiratory and metabolic alkalosis

25
``` "A 60-year-old male presents to the ED from a nursing home. He has been breathing rapidly and is less responsive than usual. There is nothing else remarkable in the anamnestic data. His serum electrolyte panel and ABG: Na+ = 123 mmol/l, K+ = 3.9 mmol/l, Cl− = 99 mmol/l pH = 7.31, pCO2 = 10 mmHg, aHCO3− = 5 mmol/l (Calculated pCO2 = 13.5–17.5 mmHg) What kind of acid-base disorders does he have?" ```
Hyponatremia + PRIMARY METABOLIC ACIDOSIS with hyperventilation causing a coexisting respiratory alkalosis and a coexisting metabolic acidosis. Hyponatremia can cause the unresponseiveness. aHCO3 decreased = metabolic acidosis AG higher than normal = primary metabolic acidosis pCO2 lower than normal = resp alkalosis.
26
``` "A 42 year-old type 1 DM female has flu for four days with incessant vomiting. She presents to the ED two days after stopping insulin due to no food intake. Her serum electrolyte panel and ABG: Na+ = 130 mmol/l, K+ = 5.5 mmol/l, Cl− = 80 mmol/l, glucose = 15 mmol/l, pH = 7.21, pCO2 = 25 mmHg, aHCO3− = 10 mmol/l. (Calculated pCO2 = 21–25 mmHg) What kind of acid-base disorders does she have?" ```
DKA. without insulin cells cannot take up glucose --> starvation ---> liver starts producing ketone bodies Na low K high Cl low glucose too high pH = acidemia pCO2 = resp compensation aHCO3 low =metabolic source of acidosis DKA with normal rep. com + coexisting metabolic alkalosis from vomiting. HYPOnatremia, HYPERkalemia, HYPOcalcemia
27
``` "A 30-year-old female bone marrow transplanted patient with neutropenic fever has been receiving multiple antibiotics including amphotericin B. She developed rigors and dyspnea. Her serum electrolyte panel and ABG: Na+ = 125 mmol/l, K+ = 2.5 mmol/l, Cl− = 100 mmol/l, pH = 7.07, pCO2 = 28 mmHg, aHCO3− = 8 mmol/l. (Calculated pCO2 = 18–22 mmHg.) What kind of acid-base disorders does she have?" ```
Primary metabolic acidosis with coexisting respiratory and metabolic acidosis. Rigors can be explained by hypokalemia. Immunocompromised patients. Innocent infections can become life threathening. Dyspnea --> resp. comp. ``` Na low. K low Cl normal pH severely low aHCO3 severely low pCO2 low = resp comp. AG = 17 ``` expected pCO2 = 18-20 --> coexisting resp. acido corrected HCO3 13 = additional metabolic acidossi.
28
"A 25-year-old woman has been admitted because of a severe dyspnea of sudden onset. She mentions that she wakes up at night because of coughing lately. She also noticed a wheezing sound occasionally, during respiration. She is allergic, she has been smoking for 5 years, 5 cigarettes/day. Physical examination: diaphragm is found low by percussion, exhalation is prolonged, with a bit of wheezing at the end. Pulmonary function tests: FVC: 3.02 l (80%), FEV1: 1.52 l (45%). Reversibility test with Salbutamol: FVC: 3.52 (95%) FEV1: 1.75 l (62 %) What is the most likely diagnosis?"
ASTHMA! Wheezing --> due to bronchoconstriction, mucus hypersecretion Low diaphragm due to long expansion in response to obstruction Prolonged exhalation due to obstructive disease Pulmonary function test: FEV normal, which proves prolonged expiration Tiffanau index below 80 = obstructive disease Salbutamol causes changes --> not chronic = asthma Allergies are at risk for developing asthma
29
"A 67-year-old man complains of coughing. He is currently producing a lot of yellowish-greenish sputum, that is more than the amount he usually has. It is hard for him even to get to the toilet, because of his severe dyspnea. He has been treated for hypertension and hyperlipidemia for years. He weighs 100 kg. He has been smoking since the age of 14, around 30 cigarettes/day. Physical examination: his lips are markedly cyanotic, exhalation is prolonged with occasional wheezing at the end. Bronchial ronchi can be heard. ABG: pH: 7.35; pCO2: 43 mmHg, pO2: 54 mmHg Pulmonary function tests: FVC 2.12 l (52 %) FEV1: 0.97 l ( 32%), TLC: 5.24 l (105%), RV: 3.27 (176%), Raw: 0.87 kPa·s/l. Reversibility test with Salbutamol: FVC: 2.19 l (54%) FEV1: 1.01 l (33 %) What sort of ventilatory defect is present? What is the most likely diagnosis?"
Ventilatory defect most probably due to obstructive disease (irreversible) (COPD). Chronic bronchitis, worsening with an acute bacterial infection Usually people with elevated pCO2 --> but not this man because of acute infection -->caused hyperventilation and pCO2 to drop to almost normal level. ``` Lower range pH. Normal pCO2 (upper range), pO2 is very low. ``` Blue bloater.
30
"A 55-year-old woman complains of hardening of her skin, having fissures on her hands. She has been avoiding climbing stairs for years due to breathlessness. Her dyspnea got much worse in the last few years. Auscultation of the lungs does not reveal any abnormality. Chest radiography shows increased opacification on both sides, mostly at the bases, above the diaphragm. The heart appears enlarged to the right, the pulmonary trunks are thicker on both sides. Pulmonary function tests: FVC: 3.01 l (64 %), FEV1:2.75 l (68%), TLCO:54 %, KLCO: 45% ABG at rest: pH: 7.38, pCO2: 38 mmHg, pO2: 81 mmHg ABG after 6 min of exercise: pH: 7.42; pCO2:34 mmHg, pO2: 75 mmHg ECG: signs of right ventricular strain, P pulmonale What sort of ventilatory defect is present? What additional tests should be performed? What is the possible diagnosis?"
CREST/ Scleroderma RVH due to pulmonary HT, cor pulmonale Restrictive lung disease, autoimmunity. Check for autoimmune-Ab. ECG: p-pulmonale.
31
What laboratory tests would you perform in case of an upper respiratory inflammatory disease accompanied with fever? Mention a few positive and negative acute phase proteins!
- Temperature - WBC count: 4-10 G/L --> bacterial (neutrophils increase) or viral (lymphocytes increase) - CRP: 1-8 mg/L (10-40 = viral, 41-200 = bacterial) - Obtain specimen and culture - Procalcitonin: increases in severe bacterial, fungal and parasitic infections - ESR: normal if < 20 mm/h - Serum protein electrophoresis: during inflammation, albumin decrease, gamma globulins increase (A/G ratio decrease: 1.25-2.5) Positive APP: CRP, Serum amyloid A, fibrinogen, ceruloplasmin, protease inhibitor, haptoglobin, complement factors, hepcidin Negative APP: Transferrin, albumin
32
What is the significance of an elevated ESR?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate: a test based on the sedimentation speed of RBC, in Westergren tubes, blood will sediment due to gravity. Time will be measured. Reference range: - male: 2-10 mm/h - female: 2-20 mm/h Increased ESR: indicates secretion of positive APP bc. the proteins will decrease the negative potential on RBC-surface --> make them less repellant toward one another. Repelling effect: zeta-potential Zeta decrease = ESR increase Increased ESR is seen in: - Inflammation: ESR inc. - Tissue damage/necrosis - Pregnancy - Anemia: ESR inc - Old age - Hyperalbuminemia: ESR inc.
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A 54 year old male patient complains of dysuria. He voids frequently, but little amount. The laboratory tests show an elevated PSA value. What may be the cause of the symptoms and the laboratory result?? What other tests would you perform?
PSA is a tumor antigen, elevated. Usually indicate prostate cancer, prostate hypertrophy (benign), and prostatitis. PSA has low specificity. Possible diagnosis: Prostate carcinoma, Benign prostate hyperplasia Other tests: - DRE - Test for other than cancer: inflammation i.e. - Prostate imaging - Check for metastasis - Immunohistochemistry
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What would characterize an ideal tumor marker?
Both sensitivity and specificity should be < 95% Sensitivity: those with disease have the marker Specificity: those who are not sick have the marker Marker level should correspond to growth, and if treated the levels should decrease. Tumor should be detectable early. Examples: - Carcinoembryonic antigen = CEA - a-fetalprotein - hCG - Calcitonin - Serotonin - PSA
35
A middle aged hemophilic patient, who had numerous blood transfusions before, is admitted to a hospital, to drain her huge ascites. The laboratory tests show an elevated AFP level. Laproscopy performed at the time of draining the ascites fluid revealed several large solid lesions in the liver. What is a likely explanation of these findings?
AFP: < 44 ug/L AFP increased, can indicate yolk sac tumor or hepatocellular carcinoma Solid large lesions + ascites = indicates liver failure. Transfusins given most likely bc. og HBV/HCV infection. These are oncogenic viruses that can cause hepatocellular carcinoma in a cirrhotic liver. Mechanism of ascites: - liver damage --> portal HT --> increased cap. hydrostatic P in abdomen pushes fluid into the peritoneal cavity - Impaired liver function --> hypoalbuminemia --> decreased colloid osmotic pressure --> edema - low circulating blood volume --> RAAS activated --> retention of Na and H20 --> diluted, protein-deprived blood is more prone for edema formation
36
The plasma AFP level was found to be abnormal on screening a pregnant woman. What do you think this means, and what other tests should be done? What is the significance of an abnormal AFP level in a man or non-pregnant woman?
AFP should normally be elevated in pregnant women. Usually excreted in urine. AFP is the fetal form of Albumin LOW: Downs syndrome or intrauterine death HIGH: open neural tube and omphalocele --> can also indicate twins Further tests: - US - Chorionic villous sampling Abnormal in men and non-pregnant women: Hepatocellular carcinoma and germ cell line tumors
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``` "Evaluation of the plasma proteins of a 50-year-old male patient gives the following results: total serum protein: 90 g/l A/G quotient: 0.38 albumin: 27% globulins: α1: 4% (normal) α2 : 6% (normal) β: 8% (normal) γ: 55% (↑↑↑) IgG: 56 g/l (↑) IgA: 0 g/l (↓) IgM: 0.6 g/l (↓) CRP: normal ESR: 100 mm/h serum Ca++: 2.71 mmol/l uric acid: 708 μmol/l Anti-IgG and anti-kappa antibodies are strongly positive. What is the most likely diagnosis and what diagnostic procedure would you order?" ```
Multiple myeloma plasmacytoma. Can take a BM biopsy to confirm it. Check for metastases SeProt: 90 (20-80) is elevated --> dehydration or increased prot. synth A/G-ratio: 0.38 (1.2-2-5) is very decreased. Decreased albumin or increased globulin synthesis Albumin 27% (50%): decreased -> panproteinemia suspected Globulin: normal, except gamma which is very much increased. CRP normal ESR elevated. Hypercalcemia at 2.71 (2.2-2.6) Uric acid indicates RF, uric acid is 708 (150-400) Anti-IgG and anti-kappa Ab are strongly positive
38
"A 46-year-old obese woman was admitted to the hospital with subfebrility and malaise. Her right thigh is swollen, with tight skin and dilated superficial veins. A day ago she started complaining of nausea, sweating, dyspnea and chest pain. Laboratory data: RBC: 4.1 T/l; WBC: 13 G/l; PLT: 240 G/l ESR: 25 mm/h LDH: 600 U/l CK: 160 U/l D-dimer: high (> 3 μg/ml) AT-III concentration: 60 % of normal What may cause her symptoms? What tests would you perform to support your diagnosis?"
DVT. Most likely suffered from a pulmonary emnolism due to the DVT. Not saddle embolus in the segmental arteries, because these causes sudden death. Signs of DVT and PE or AMI. - RBC normal - WBC is above normal - Platelets are normal - ESR slightly elevated - LDH is very high - CK is normal High D-dimer: indicates fibrinolysis Further tests: - X-ray - CT pulm. angiogram - ECG
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"A 45-year-old woman visits her physician for poor health and recurrent fever. She has been troubled by menorrhagia, bleeding after slight traumas and frequent nosebleeds in the last few months. Her laboratory parameters: platelet count: 8 G/l bleeding time: 15 min prothrombin time: INR = 1.00 aPTT: 40 sec fibrinogen concentration: 3 g/l (normal). What is the possible cause of her bleeding disorder?"
ACUTE LEUKEMIA or IDIOPATHIC THROMBOCYTOPENIA - aPTT and INR are normal. All coagulation diseases are excluded. Platelet count is severely low, bleeding time increased, both indicate THROMBOCYTOPENIA
40
``` "The patient is a 28-year-old female who has pronounced bleeding after tooth extraction and menorrhagia, which has caused repeatedly an iron deficiency anemia. Bleeding from cuts is prolonged and large hematomas may appear after bruising. A brother of the patient and her son are affected by a similar bleeding tendency. Laboratory data: platelet count: 176 G/l bleeding time: longer than 30 min platelet adhesion: abnormal ADP induced aggregation: normal clot retraction: normal aPTT: 55 sec thrombin time: 21 sec. What is the most likely diagnosis?" ```
Probably von Willebran Disease A problem in the intrinsic pathway and platelet surface adhesion. vWD: , lack of vWF, leads to decreased attatchment for platelets and thus the seen increased bleeding tendency. aPTT prolonged because vWD cannot form vWF + fVIII complex, increased time of intrinsic coagulation pathway Lowered platelet count, severely prolonged bleeding time
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"A 41-year-old woman has had 3 spontaneous abortions and later gave birth to a premature baby. She was diagnosed to have SLE 5 years ago. She has been admitted to the hospital today with a strong pain in her left leg. Some of her laboratory test results: WBC: 10 G/l ESR: 20 mm/h D-dimer: strongly positive (> 3 μg/ml) aPTT: 62 sec thrombin time: 20 sec What can be the cause of her complaints, and how can we prove it?"
SLE patients tend to develop antiphospholipid syndome (HUGES syndrome). Hypercoagulable state and thrombus formation --> developed DVT --> PE WBC upper limit Positive D-dimer = fibrinolysis Increased aPTT = coagulopathy
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"A 3-year-old boy, who suffered from frequent hematomas since he first started to walk, developed a large swelling on his head following a fall. After admission to hospital the surgeon was looking for an abscess, but found blood instead. He is slightly anemic. Laboratory parameters: platelet count: 164 G/l bleeding time: 4 min prothrombin time: INR = 1.12 aPTT: 60 sec thrombin time: 20 sec euglobulin lysis time: 140 min, normal What tests are necessary to establish a diagnosis?"
aPTT indicates an intrinsic pathway problem. Probably a factor deficiency. Hemophilia is an X-linked deficiency: - fVIII - Hemophilia A - fIX - Hemophilia B - fXI - Hemophilia C (extremely rare) Further tests: - serum levels of specific coagulation factors should be directly measured to see if he has hemophilia A or B.
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"The patient is a 27-year-old pregnant woman without a history of bleeding symptoms. She is in her 38th week of pregnancy with her fourth child. Four hours before admission she suddenly experienced a severe pain in the abdomen followed by start of birth pains that were almost continuous. Half an hour after admission she lost some blood from her vagina that did not clot. The uterus was found totally contracted on physical examination. Fetal hearts sounds are not detectable. Laboratory data: platelet count: 20 G/l bleeding time: 8 min prothrombin time: INR = 4.29 aPTT: 80 sec thrombin time: 30 sec. What is the probable cause of bleeding? How do you think the FDP concentration changes in this condition?"
Show a severly reduced ability to stop bleeding. DIC, which could be caused by obstretic complications such as abruptio placentae, pre-ecclampsia or amniotic fluid embolism. Fibrin degradation production (e.g. D-dimer) wiuld be increased in case of DIC and should be measured. Platelet severely low --> thrombocytopenia. aPTT severly long. Thrombin time of 30 sec indicates problem with common pathway = DIC
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"A 34-year-old previously healthy woman suddenly got sick after having arrived to her hotel from a long air trip. She has dyspnea and hemoptysis. She is found to have tachypnea, tachycardia and distended neck veins on physical examination. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what tests can we use to support it? What may be the cause of the problem?"
VENOUS THROMBUS leading to an EMBOLISM. Cause of problem: all congenital and acquired diseases can cause thrombus formation - Leiden - AT-III lack - Birth control pills - Smoking - Prothrombin gene mutation Further tests: - ECG to rule out AMI - Chest X-ray - CT pulm. angiography - Screen for hypercoagulable diseases. Long air trips can cause stasis.
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"A 53-year-old woman has a bleeding tendency since she was a child. She got a bump on her forehead two day ago, and now has a dark, purple periorbital hematoma. Laboratory findings: platelet count: 250 G/l bleeding time: longer than 30 min prothrombin time: INR = 1.16; aPTT: 30 sec; thrombin time: 20 sec platelet adhesion and aggregation: decreased clot retraction: less than normal. What may cause her bleeding tendency?"
Bleeding tendency involves the platelet function. It can be: - GLANZMANNS THROMBASTHENIA (AR) - platelets are defective or low levels of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa - BERNARD-SOULIER SYNDROME (AR): platelets have a defective glycoprotein Ib (bind vWF) - ACQUIRED THROMBOCYTOPATHY: drug induced (i.e. Aspirin) Bleeding time 30 min is severly increased: indicates platelet deficiency INR/aPTT/TT are all within normal range Clot reaction = decreased
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"A 76-year-old male has been on anticoagulant therapy for years because of his chronic atrial fibrillation. He has been recently treated with a broad-spectrum antibiotic for his febrile illness. He has been complaining of frequent nosebleeds since yesterday. His stools have turned tar-like. What can be the cause of his complaints and what is to be done?"
Black, Tarry stool (MELENA) is a sign of an upper GI bleeding; blood darkens as its hemoglobin is altered by digestive enzymes and bacterial flora. Warfarin: commonly prescribed as an anticoagulant for patients with AFIB to avoid thrombus formation. Many AB interact with Warfarin to cause increased bleeding tendency. Two mechanisms: - Inhibition of CYP450 enzymes (involved in Warfarin metabolism) - Clearance of VitK synthesizing interstitial flora. Treatment: given Vit. K injection, or reduce Warfarin amount.