Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Bone Path III > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

3 types of osteoporosis

A

Generalized
Regional
Localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CATBITES for generalized osteoporosis

A

Congenital: OI
Acquired: no
Trauma: for whole body? Na, haha
Blood: sickle cell anemia and thalassemia
Infection: nope
Tumor: MM (in which sometimes osteoporosis is first finding), lyric mets,
Endocrine: Hyperparathyroidism
Surgery: steroids
Nutritional: vitamin d deficiencies (rickets in kids, osteomalacia in adults)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Generalized osteoporosis causes (12)

A 
Age
Post menopause
Steroids
Heparin
MM
Mets
HyperPTH
Scurvy
Osteomalacia
Rickets
Sickle cell anemia
OI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Regional osteoporosis causes (2)

A

Disuse/immobilization, RSD/CRPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Localized osteoporosis causes (3)

A

Infection
Inflammatory arthritis
Neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Definition of osteoporosis

A

Low bone mass
Microarchitectural deterioration of bone tissue
=> enhanced bone fragility => increase in fracture risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Senile/post menopausal osteoporosis age range

A

5th-6th decades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Senile/post menopausal osteoporosis gender preference and ratio

A

F>M 4:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Does senile/post-menopausal osteoporosis cause pain?

A

Only when complicated by fracture and deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Useful lab findings in senile/post menopausal osteoporosis

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MC osteoporotic-related fracture states

A

Spine
Hip
Wrist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Up to 30% of seniors wit hip fracture die within how many months of injury

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pathology of senile/postmenopausal osteoporosis?

A

Unknown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Discuss bone quality and amount in senile/post-menopausal osteoporosis

A

Normal bone quality, but deficient in amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What factors of senile/post-menopausal osteoporosis result in thinned cortex and trabecular accentuation?

A

Resportion of cortical and medullary bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What will you find on an x-ray of an individual with senile/post-menopausal osteoporosis? (10)

A

Cortical thinning
Altered trabecular patterns
PSEUDOHEMANGIOMATOUS
PENCIL THIN CORTICES and endplates
General radio lucency
PANCAKE PLANA (must ddx from serious pathology: mets and MM)
WEDGED TRAPEZOIDAL SHAPE (ddx: compression fractures)
BICONCAVE end plates (fish/codfish/hourglass at multiple contiguous levels)
ISOLATED END PLATE INFRACTION
SCHMORL’s nodes (MC tx and upper LX)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Additional features of senile/postmenopausal osteoporosis

A

Colles, numeral neck, ankle malleoli fx’s

Insufficiency fx’s : sacrum (H/I/arc), pubis, medial femoral necks, tib/fib, calcaneus, metatarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Proximal femora stress lines. Which one lasts the longest?

A 
#1 principal compressive group lasts the longest
#2 principal tensile group
#3 secondary compressive group
WARDS TRIANGLE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ddx for 24 year old with decreased bone mass

A

Thalassemia

OI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome (RSD)/Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) definition

A

Regional osteoporosis
Post-trauma bone disorder
ACUTE PAINFUL OSTEOPOROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the difference between RSDS and disuse osteoporosis?

A

PAIN!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Age range for RSDS regional osteoporosis

A

> 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

History for RSDS regional osteoporosis

A

History of recent trauma which may have been trivial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

RSDS progression

A

Progressive P, swelling and atrophy DISTAL TO TRAUMA SITE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Marrow fat that goes into a joint space ddx

A

Fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pathological feature of RSDS regional osteoporosis

A

Neurovascular imbalance, promoting osseous hyperemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What will you see on an x-ray of RSDS regional osteoporosis

A

PATCHY, MOTTLED OSTEOPOROSIS
Later: uniform osteoporosis
NO JOINT DISEASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Three forms of regional osteoporosis

A

RSDS
Disuse
Transient regional osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When would changes appear on an x-ray from disuse & immobilzation osteoporosis

A

7-10 days, extreme by 2-3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

4 radiological patterns of disuse atrophy

A
  1. Uniform
  2. Spotty
  3. Bands (linear transverse subchondral/metaphysical lucent zones)
  4. Cortical lamination or scalloping: loss of def in outer/inner cortical margins
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If function is restored to the involved body part, what will happen in disuse and immobilization osteoporosis?

A

Normal appearance and complete resititution is anticipated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Transient regional osteoporosis cause

A

No associated etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Transient regional osteoporosis prognosis

A

Reversible and sudden

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Transient regional osteoporosis has two entities:

A
  1. Transient osteoporosis of the hip

2. Regional migratory osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Transient regional osteoporosis of the hip affects what age group and what gender more?

A

20-40 years

M>F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Transient osteoporosis of the hip is associated with what feminine condition and what side?

A

Haha pregnancy and left hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where would you see marked osteoporosis in transient osteoporosis of the hip?

A

Femoral head, less severe in femoral neck and acetabulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Regional migratory osteoporosis affects what gender most?

A

M>F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Regional migratory osteoporosis prefers UE or LE?

A

LE (foot, ankle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What describes regional migratory osteoporosis?

A

Localized, regressing, migratory osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

3 causes of localized osteoporosis

A

Inflammatory arthritis (RA)
Infection
Neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Define osteomalacia

A

Lack of OSTEOID MINERALIZATION leading to GENERALIZED BONE SOFTENING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Clinical features of osteomalacia (3)

A

Muscle weakness
Bone pain
Deformities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What 3 measures will be elevated in osteomalacia?

A

Parathormone, alkaline phosphatase, urinary hydroxyproline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Normal to decreased __ and __ will be seen in osteomalacia

A

Calcium and phosphorous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What condition would have osteoid seams?

A

Osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is an osteoid seam, and what condition would you see it in?

A

Increased amount of uncalcifed osteoid tissue seen in osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What condition would have pseudofractures? What are pseudo fractureS?

A

Osteomalacia

Probably insufficiency fractures healing with uncalcifed osteoid (osteoid seam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are 4 alternate terms used for pseudofractures? What condition are they associated with?

A 
Osteomalacia
Increment fractures
Milkman' syndrome
Looser' lines
Umbau zonen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Radiological features associated with osteomalacia (4)

A

Decreased bone density
Coarse trabecular pattern
Loss of cortical definition
Pseudofractures (ddx pagers, fibrous dysplasia, rickets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is rickets?

A

Deficiency in vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 3 forms of rickets?

A
  1. Vitamin D deficiency
  2. Renal osteodystrophy (renal rickets).
  3. Renal tubular defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Renal osteodystrophy is chronic or acute renal disease

A

Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Renal tubular defect definition and what condition is it associated with?

A

Failure to resort phosphate in urine interferes with osseous mineralization due to lake of phosphate
Associated with rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Age group for rickets

A

6months to 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Clinical features of rickets (7)

A 
Growth plate swelling
Irritability
Deformities
Tetany
Delayed maturity
Weakness
Elevated alkaline phsophatase levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Pathological feature of rickets

A

Growth plate cartilage hypertrophied

Failure to mineralized or degenerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Radiologic features of rickets (6)

A 
Generalized osteopenia
Coarse trabecular changes
Widened growth plates
Architects (costal) rosary
Absent zone of provisional calcification
Frayed "paintbrush" and cupped metaphyses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the two defining features of rickets?

A

Widened growth plate and paint brush appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Scurvy is aka

A

Barlow disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Scurvy is a deficiency fo what vitamin

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How long does it take for scurvy to develop?

A

4-10 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In what condition will you find capillary fragility?

A

Scurvy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What age will yo find scurvy?

A

4-14 months?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where would you find spontaneous hemorrhages?

A

Scurvy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In what condition would you find costal rosary (scorbutic rosary)?q

A

Scurvy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What radiological features would you find in scurvy?

A 
Abnormal growing ends of long bonds
Osteoporosis
DENSE ZONE OF PROVISIONAL CALCIFICATION (white line of franker)
RING EPIPHYSIS (wimberger's sign)
Pelken's spurs 
Scorbutic zone (trummerfeld zone)
Subperiosteal hemorrhages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Insuffiency fractures and bowing is associated with what condition?

A

Rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Subperiosteal hemorrhages are due to what and promote what in what condition

A

Due to deficiency of intracellular cement which in turn promotes vascular fragility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Names associated with scurvy

A
  • Barlow’ disease
  • white line of frankel (dense zone of provisional calcification)
  • wimberger’s sign (ring epiphysis)
  • pelken’s spurs
  • trummerfeld zone (scorbutic zone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Describe pathogenesis behind hyperparathyroidism

A

Increased PTH activity => osteoclasts effect on skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Three forms of hyperparathyroidism

A

Primary (Parathyroid tumor)
Secondary (renal disease)
Tertiary (renal dialysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Gender greatest affected by hyperparathyroidism

A

F>M, 3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Age group of hyperparathyroidism

A

30-50 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Clinical features of hyperparathyroidism (5)

A 
Weakness
Lethargy
Poly dips is
Polyuria
Elevated ALPase and parathormone levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What levels are elevated in hyperparathyroidism? (2)

A

Elevated alkaline phosphatase and parathormone levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Soft tissue calcification ddx list

A

Hyperparathyroidism
Scleroderma
SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

tumor of ribs ddx

A

Malignant: Mets
Benign: fibrous displasia
If also Mandible: browns tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Pathological features of hyperpTH

A

Osteoclasts and osteolytic resorption with fibrous tissue displacement (osteitis fibrosis cystica)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Define osteitis fibrosis cystica and what condition it is associated with

A

Hyper PTH

Osteoclastic and osteolytic resorption with fibrous tissue replacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Define Brown’s tumors and are pathological feature of which condition?

A

HyperPTH

D/t hemorrhagic giant cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Hallmark pathological feature of HyperPTH

A

Subperiosteal bone resorption, specifically of radial side of 2-3rd phalanges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

5 radiological features associated with hyperpTH

A 
Osteopenia
Accentuated trabecular patterns
Subperiosteal resorption
Loss of cortical definition
BROWN TUMORS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Target sites of hyperPTH

A

Hand!
Skull!
Spine!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is seen in the hand of an individual with HyperPTH

A

Subperiosteal resorption of the radial margins of proximal and middle phalanges of 2nd and 3rd digits with acroosteolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is seen in the skull of an individual with hyperPTH

A

Salt and pepper, resorption of lamina dura (teeth!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is seen in the spine of an individual with hyperPTH

A

Osteopenia, trabecular accentuation, end plate concavities
RUGGER JERSEY SPINE
WIDENED SI JINOTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Ddx for sclerotic pubic rami in x-ray (3)

A
  1. Osteitis pubis
  2. Infection
  3. HPT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Ddx for widened SI joint

A
  1. AS
  2. Reiters
  3. Psoriatic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Radiological features of HPT (ST changeS) (4)

A

Nephorcalcinosis
Renal calculus
Chondrocalcinosis
Calcification in various periarticular tissues and viseral organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Causes of acromegaly? (2)

A

Pituitary eosinophilia ademona = excess growth hormone AFTER growth plates have fused
Excessive growth hormone production before growth centers close = GIGANTISM!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

5 clinical features of acromegaly

A

Prominent forehead
Thickened tongue
Broad and large hands
Predisposition to degenerative arthritis (esp. spine and weight bearing joints)predisposition to CTS probs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Pathological features of acromegaly (3)

A

Activation of periosteum appositional new bone, articular cartilage proliferation and subcutaneous hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Radiologic features of the foot specifically in acromegaly?

A

Heel pad >20mm (1 inch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Why would sella turcica be enlarged? And this is seen most predominantly in what condition?

A

D/t pituitary neoplasm

Acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is prognathism? And what condition is it associated with?

A

Widened mandibular angle

Acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Radiological features in the skull in someone with acromegaly (4)

A

Sella turcica enlargement, sinus overgrowth, malocclusion, prognathism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Radiological features of the hand in someone with acromegaly (4)

A

Widened shafts, bony protuberances, enlarged distal tufts (spade-like), widened joint spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Spade-like tufts are associated with what condition?

A

Acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Why will you see widened joint spaces in acromegaly?

A

Cartilage overgrowth! Duh haha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is going to happen in an individuals joints who has acromegaly?

A

Wear out at earlier age in odd spots = DJD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Compression fractures at every level. What MUST be on your ddx? What else?

A

Corticosteroid use.

Cushing’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Excessive glucocorticoid steroids form adrenal cortex = what condition

A

Cushing’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

A neoplasm in which area can produce similar clinical features as cushings?

A

Anterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Where does a patient store fat in cushings? What is it called?

A

Upper thorax (buffalo hump) and face (moon face)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Clinical features of cushings (3)

A

Accelerated hair growth and HTN
Moon face and buffalo hump
Purple stria on abdomen and axillae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Air in the bone vs. air in the disc. Name it!

A

Bone: cushings! Collapsed vertebra d/t osteonecrosis!
Disc: vacuum phenomenon found in DJD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Osteoporosis of cushing’s disease radiological findings (2)

A

Thinned vortices, density diminished

BICONCAVE END PLATE CONFIGURATIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Osteonecrosis of cushing’s/steroid induced osteonecrosis radiological finding

A

Vertebral body collapse - after steroid meds - d/t ischemic necrosis (called intervertebral vacuum cleft sign)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Where is osteonecrosis d.t cushings/steroid-induced osteonecrosis found? (3)

A

Femoral and numeral heads
Distal femora
Talus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Skeletal dysplasias (4) + sclerosis bone dysplasias (3)

A 
Achondroplasia
OI
Marfan's
Cleidocranial dysplasia
\+
Osteopetrosis
Osteopoikilosis
Melorheostosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Achondroplasia aka (3)

A

Chondrodystrophia fetalis
Chondrodystrophic dwarfism
Micromelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is achondroplasia?

A

Hereditary, autosomal dominant disturbance in epiphyseal-chondroblastic growth and maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What causes achondroplasia?

A

Unknown
Parents are normal in 90% of cases
Two achondroplastics = may manifest severe form which is usually lethal within the first weeks of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Average height of achondroplasia?

A

50 inches!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is rhizomelia and what condition is it associated with?

A

Long bones shorted especially proximal ones

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Is UE or LE more affected in achondroplasia?

A

UE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Explain the head of an individual with achondroplasia

A

Large cranium, prominent forehead and depressed nasal bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the spinal column like in an individual with achondroplasia?

A

Length = normal, thus dwarfism is due to limb shortening yo!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Thoracolumbar kyphosis develops in which skeletal dysplasia condition?

A

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Rolling gait is caused by the posterior tilt of the pelvis and posterior angulation of the hip joints is charactersistc of which skeletal dysplasia?

A

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

MC cause of ivory vertebra:

A

Osteoblastic mets

Hodgkin lympha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Posterior body scalloping is noted in ___ anterior body scalloping noted in ___

A

Achondroplasia; hodgkins lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Trident hand is associated with what skeletal dysplasia

A

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is trident hand

A

Separation of 3rd and 4th digits and inability to approximate them in extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

May die at birth due to a difficult delivery, small foramen magnum or constricted thorax are clinical features of which condition

A

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Small foremen magnum is seen in which condition

A

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Hydrocephalus and small foramen magnum can lead to cord compression are neurological complications of which skeletal displasia

A

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Most significant complication in adulthood of achondroplasia

A

Congenital spinal stenosis = often leading to paraplegia!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Four clinical syndromes caused by spinal stenosis… which is most commonly seen in which condition?

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

  1. NR compression d/t disc herniation/osteophyte formation
  2. Transverse myelopathy over several years d/t severe kyphosis
  3. Acute transverse myelopathy with sudden paraplegia following trauma
  4. Intermittent claudication of cauda equine d/t ischemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Define brachycephaly

A

Large cranium though short in ant-post dimension seen in achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Prominent frontal bones and small nasal bones

A

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Metaphysical cupping

A

Splayed bone ends seen in achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Champagne glass pelvis

A

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Tell me about the discs of individuals with achondroplasia

A

Increased, height of discs = vertebral bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Interpedicular spaces of achondroplasia

A

Decreased in lumbar region = narrowing of spinal canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Bullet nose vertebra

A

Achondroplasia

Angular kyphosis develops at TL = resulting in this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Pedicles of achondroplasia

A

Short and thick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Spatulatled or paddled shaped pelvis is d/t

A

Tilting of the pelvis

Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Key features of achondroplasia (10)

A 
Champagne glass pelvis
Stenosis foramen magnum
Basilar impression is frequent
Brachycephaly
Small interpedicular spaces in lumbar spine
Bullet-nosed vertebra
Spatulated or paddle shaped pelvis
Trident hand
Rhizomelia
Big booty big booty big booty on x-ray
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Ddx of achondroplasia (3)

A

Mucopolysaccharidoses, trisomy, spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Most serious involvement in osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Skeleton but can see changes in ligaments, skin, sclera, inner ear and dentition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Synonyms of OI (4)

A

Osteopsathyrosis idiopathica, jollities Ossian, fragilitas Ossian, lobstein’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

3 major clinical criteria for diagnosis of OI

A

Only 2 need to be present:

  1. Osteoporosis with abnormal fragility of skeleton
  2. Blue sclera
  3. Abnormal dentition (dentinogenesis imperfecta)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Hearing loss, generalized ligamentous laxity, episodic sweating and abnormal temperature regulation, easy bruising, hyperlastic scars and premature vascular calcification are other findings of which skeletal dysplasia?

A

OI

146
Q

What are the forms of OI?

A
  1. Congenita = lots of stillborn and infant mortality

2. Tarda (normal life expectancy)

147
Q

What are the 2 main subdivisions of OI tarda?

A

Type 1: acquired bowing

Type 2 no bowing deformities

148
Q

What is your ddx of type 1 OI Tarda?

A

Rickets!!! D/t acquired bowing

149
Q

Trivial trauma fractures, blue sclera, brown choroid, “Saturn’s ring” around cornea, blue-ish gray to yellowish-brown opalescent teeth, otosclerosis, abnormal temperature regulation, crappy platelet aggregation, growth retardation, LE more affected than others clinical features of what condition

A

OI

150
Q

Enzyme deficiency of ATPase may be cause of what condition?

A

OI

151
Q

Cardinal features of OI (3)

A

Decreased bone density
Pencil-thin vortices
Multiple fractures

152
Q

3 subgroups of OI based on radiographic findings:

A

Thin and gracile bones
Short thick bones
Cystic bones

153
Q

Ddx of pseudotumors found in OI?

A

Osteosarcoma

154
Q

What is a pseudotumor and what is it found in?

A

Excessive callus formation

155
Q

5 radiological features of OI

A 
Wormian bones
Playtbasia (w/basilar impression)
Kyphoscoliosis
Biconcave lens vertebra
Premature DJD and protrusio acetabuli
156
Q

Midline defects (SBO)

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

157
Q

Accessory ossification center in metacarpal is indicative of what skeletal dysplasia?

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

158
Q

Brachycephaly, wormian bones, small faces d/t underdeveloped sinus are indicative of what skeletal dysplasia

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

159
Q

Cases without clavicular or cranial findings are called

A

Mutational dysostosis

Cleidocranial dysplasia

160
Q

Narrow or cone shaped chest indicative of which condition

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

161
Q

MC complaints of cleidocranial dysplasia patients

A

Abnormal dentition with severe caries and periodontitis

162
Q

Widening of principal sutures (sagittal and coronal) giving a hot cross-bun appearance is indicative of which skeletal dysplasia

A

Cleidocranial dysplasaia

163
Q

Enlarged foramen magnum indicative of which skeletal dysplasia? Which features a stenotic foramen magnum?

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia; achondroplasia

164
Q

What percent of cases of cleidocranial dysplasia has a completely missing clavicle?

A

10%

165
Q

Small and underdeveloped pelvic bones = small pelvic bone seen in which skeletal dysplasia

A

Cleidocranial dysplasai

166
Q

Shortening of radius with abnormal wrist articulation is occasionally seen in which skeletal dysplasia

A

Cleidocranial dysplasia

167
Q

3 complications of cleidocranial dysplasia

A

Hearing loss
Dental problems
Dislocations of shoulders and hips with scoliosis

168
Q

Scoliosis is common in which skeletal dysplasia

A

Marfan’s

169
Q

key features of marfan’s (4)

A

Scoliosis, C1-2 instability, dissecting aortic arch aneurysms, arachnodactyly

170
Q

Hyperkyphosis seen in which skeletal dysplasia

A

Marfan’s

171
Q

These individuals are generally >6 feet. Not gigantism

A

Marfan’s

172
Q

Ehlers danlos causes the same joint laxity as this condition

A

Marfan’s

173
Q

Hip dislocations, genu recurvatum, patellar dislocations and pes plants are clinical features of which condition

A

Marfan’s

174
Q

Myopia and contracted pupils (2’ to absent dilator m of pupil) encountered in which condition

A

Marfan’s

175
Q

Floppy valve syndrome. Define and indicate which condition

A

Dilation of ascending aorta with valve abnormalities => L sided insufficiency
Marfan’s

176
Q

Elongation of extremities without increase in width classic finding of which condition

A

Marfan’s

177
Q

Osteoporosis Is a feature of marfan’s. T/F

A

False

However, vortices are thinned and trabeculae are delicate

178
Q

Widened spinal canal, posterior body scalloping of vertebral bodies present in which condition

A

Marfan’s.

Note: posterior body scalloping is best finding in achondroplasia

179
Q

Pectus excavatum deformity with elongated ribs seen in which condition

A

Marfan’s

180
Q

Homocystinuria seen in which condition

A

Marfans

181
Q

What 4 features would you use to differentiate marfan’s from others

A

Look for osteoporosis
Vertebral body flattening
Mental retardation
Homocystinuria

182
Q

3 sclerosis bone dysplasias

A

Osteopetrosis
Osteopoikilosis
Melorheostosis

183
Q

Sclerosis bone dysplasias MC feature

A

Increase in bone density!

184
Q

Sclerosing bone dysplasias feature a disturbance of bone…

A

remodeling and formation

185
Q

Osteopetrosis defining features (2)

A

Rare hereditary and familial bone abnormality

Lack of resorption of normal primitive osteochondroid tissue

186
Q

Two forms of osteopetrosis

A
  1. Benign autosomal dominant

2. Severe malignant autosomal recessive (consanguinity! Hah)

187
Q

Synonyms of osteopetrosis (6)

A

Albert-schonberg’s disease
Osteosclerosis
Osteopetrosis generalisata, osteosclerosis generalisata, marble bones, chalk bones

188
Q

CHALK BONES is a synonym for which condition

A

Osteopetrosis

189
Q

Severe malignant autosomal recessive osteopetrosis is found when? And what happens next?

A

Infancy

They die within second year of life

190
Q

Severe anemia, thrombocytopenia, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, failure to thrive, osteomyelitis are features of

A

Severe malignant autosomal recessive osteopetrosis

191
Q

FAILURE TO THRIVE

A

Osteopetrosis - severe malignant autosomal recessive

192
Q

Possible optic nerve atrophy is seen in which condition

A

Due to cranium involvement

Osteopetrosis

193
Q

What are two known sequela of osteopetrosis

A

Leukemia and sarcoma

194
Q

Most frequent cause of death is (2)

A

Massive hemorrhage and recurrent infection

195
Q

How are 50% of osteopetrosis causes discovered?

A

By accident! As they’re asymptomatic

196
Q

Ddx of osteopetrosis (2)

A

Idiopathic hypercalcemia and heavy metal poisoning

197
Q

Is CMT contraindicated in osteopetrosis?

A

Yes! Bones are brittle

198
Q

Lab findings in osteopetrosis (3)

A

Anemia
Thrombocytopenia
Serum ca2+ elevated

199
Q

Osteoclasts unresponsive to PTH and unable to resorb bone and cartilage are pathological features of which condition

A

Osteopetrosis

200
Q

BONE WITHIN A BONE APPERANCE
ERLENMEYER FLASK DEFORMITY
SANDWICH VERTEBRA
Are classic features of which condition

A

Osteopetrosis

201
Q

Bone within a bone appearance

A

Striations seen in osteopetrosis

202
Q

Can’t remodel bone thus producing flared metaphysis. Name this and the associated condition

A

Erlenmeyer flask deformity of osteopetrosis

203
Q

Long bones are flared and elongated metaphysis are radiological features associated with which condition

A

Osteopetrosis

204
Q

Uniformly dense vertebra, dense bands adjacent to END plates with normal appearing midbody. Name it and the associated condition

A

Sandwich vertebra and osteopetrosis

205
Q

Pathological fractures are associated with which condition

A

Osteopetrosis

206
Q

Small round or ovoid radiopacities appearing in juxtaarticular regions of bone is characteristic of which condition

A

Osteopoikilosis!!

207
Q

Synonyms of osteopoikilosis (2)

A

Osteopathic condensates disseminate

Spotted bones

208
Q

25% of these cases have cutaneous abnormalities including dermatofibrosis lenticularis disseminata, predisposition to keloid formation and sclerodeerma like lesions

A

Osteopoikilosis

209
Q

Normal lab findings are seen in which conditions

A

Marfan’s
Osteopoikilosis
Melorheostosis

210
Q

Spongy bone remodeling related to mechanical stress is characteristic of which condition

A

Osteopoikilosis

211
Q

This condition may be a anifestation of a metabolic disorder of connective tissue

A

Osteopoikilosis

212
Q

The histology of this condition resemble a solitary bone island

A

Osteopoikilosis

213
Q

Symmetric lesions with predilection for long tubular bones, carpals and tarsals in jUXTA-ARTICULAR POSITION are radiologic features of which condition

A

Osteopoikilosis

214
Q

Which condition is associated with osteopathic striata and melorheostosis

A

Osteopoikilosis

215
Q

Ddx for osteopoikilosis (3)

A

Blastic mets
Tuberous sclerosis
Mastocytosis

216
Q

Rare, sclerosis bone dysplasia

A

Melorheostosis

217
Q

Wax flowing down a lighted candle

A

Melorheostosis

218
Q

Leri type of osteopetrosis, osteosarcoma eberneizzante monomelica
Flowing hyperostosis are synonyms for which condition

A

MELORHEOSTOSIS

219
Q

What is the most common presenting symptom of melorheostosis?

A

PAIN!!!!

220
Q

What is seen more in adults than in children in helorheostosis? (2)

A

Joint swelling and limitation of motion

221
Q

Genu varus, foot valgus and dislocation of patella are common in which condtion?

A

MELORHEOSTOSIS

222
Q

An amorous pigmentation, scleroderma like atrophy of skin and muscle wasting are soft tissue changes seen in which condition

A

Melorheostosis

223
Q

These conditions most commonly affect lower limbs (4)

A

Regional migratory osteoporosis
OI
Marfan’s - LE exhibits greater overgrowth than upper
Melorheostosis

224
Q

What begins more proximal and progresses dismally?

A

Melorheostosis

225
Q

Ddx for melorheostosis (3)

A

Osteoblasts mets
Mastocytosis
Tuberous sclerosis

226
Q

Most marked roentgen feature

A

Cortical thickening in a streaked or wavy pattern

227
Q

Hyperostotic bone protruding under periosteum and usually follows along one side of long bone are characteristic of which condition

A

Melorheostosis

228
Q

Hematologist conditions (5)

A 
Sickle cell anemia
Thalassemia
Hemophilia
Aneurysms
Osteonecrosis conditions
229
Q

Chronic congenital hereditary hemolytic anemia characterized by abnormal Hb structure

A

Sickle cell anemia

230
Q

Splenomegaly and sometimes gallstones are associated with this condition

A

Sickle cell anemia

231
Q

H shaped vertebra, bioconcave, sclerotic are characteristic of which condition

A

Sickle cell anemia

232
Q

Abdominal crises, jaundice, bone pain, DACTYLITIS, infections, gallstones, cardiac and renal failure, hepatosplenomegaly and marrow displasia are seen in which condition

A

Sickle cell anemia

233
Q

Which form is most symptomatic in sickle cell anemia

A

HbS-S

234
Q

Bone changes due to marrow hyperplasia, ischemia and necrosis are characteristic of which condition

A

Sickle cell anemia

235
Q

Major signs of sickle cell anemia (9)

A 
Generalized osteoporosis (marrow hyperplasia)
Thin cortices (increased radiolucency)
Coarse trabeculae
Large vascular channels
Widened medullary cavity
Growth deformities
Epiphyseal ischemic necrosis
Medullary infarcts (metaphysis or diaphysis)
Secondary salmonella osteomyelitis
236
Q

What are some characteristics found in the spine of a sickle cell anemia patient

A

Vertebral bodies are osteoporotic

Deformed end plates with central depression (hyperplasia of central portion of vertebra)

237
Q

step off, fish, H vertebra are deformities found in which hematologic condition

A

Sickle cell anemia

238
Q

Vertebral body collapse seen in which hematologist condition

A

SICKLE CELL ANEMIA

239
Q

Osteomyelitis d/t staph aureus and salmonella are seen in which hematologist condition

A

Sickle cell anemia

240
Q

Hereditary disorder of hemoglobin synthesis producing anemia is what hemotoligic condition

A

Thalassemia

241
Q

Synonyms of thalassemia

A

Cooley’ anemia and mediterranean anemia

242
Q

Pallor, underdevelopment, organometallic, altered fancies, abnormal blood exam are characteristic of which condition

A

Thalassemia

243
Q

Marrow hyperplasia! (Hair on end appearance in skull!) characteristic of which condition

A

Thalassemia!

Marrow hyperplasia is also seen in sickle cell anemia

244
Q

Marrow hyperplasia, cortical thinning, widened medullary cavity, loss of tubulation, coarse trabecular (honeycomb), growth disturbances, fractures, chondrocalcinosis and hemochromatosis, granular osteoporosis and fish vertebrae are characteristic of which condition

A

Thalassemia

245
Q

HONEY COMB
Hair on end appearance in skull
Rodent fancies
Are characteristic of which condition

A

Thalassemia!

246
Q

Describe the spine seen in thalassemia (3)

A

Coarse trabeculae
Thin vortices
End plates normal

247
Q

Describe the skull of thalassemia (2)

A

Frontal bone shows earliest and most prominent changes:

Hair on end: granular, widened dipole, vertical radiating spicules

248
Q

Sinuses of thalassemia

A

Obliterated, rodent fancies

249
Q

Chest of thalassemia (5)

A 
Cardiomegaly
Posterior mediastinal masses
Opaque liver and lymph nodes
Rib expansion
Coarsened trabeculae
250
Q

Long bones in thalassemia

A

Osteoporotic and lack normal metaphysis/diaphysis concave constriction, sometimes erlenmeyer flask deformity

251
Q

Deficiency of various clotting factors

A

Hemophilia

252
Q

Hemophilia’ gender preference

A

Male

253
Q

Hemorrhage within joints, especially knee, ankle and elbow (BI/symmetrical)

A

Hemophilia

254
Q

Lack of factor VIII is classic __

A

Hemophilia A;

Factor IX is hemophilia B

255
Q

Repeated hemarthrosis precipitates synovial proliferation similar to what 2 conditions

A

Pan us, similar to gout and CPPD

256
Q

Fibrosis, bone erosion, osteoporosis, growth disturbances, late cartilage degeneration (cysts and sclerosis) are characteristic of what conditions

A

Hemophilia

257
Q

Dx for hemophilia (1)

A

Juvenile RA

258
Q

Mc joints affected in hemophilia (3)

A

Knee
Ankle
Elbow

259
Q

Enlarged ephiphyses, widened intercondylar nothced and squared inferior patella are characteristic of which condition

A

Hemophilia

260
Q

Could see fluid in lung fields - consolidation seen in which condition

A

Hemophilia

261
Q

Atherosclerosis is MC cause of which condition. List others

A

Aneurysms

Infection, stenosis, syphilis, arteritis

262
Q

Abdominal aortic aneurysm is seen at which lumbar levels

A

L2-4 ST mass
Peripheral rim calcifcation
Vertebral erosions (oppenheimer)

263
Q

How big does an aneurysm have to be to be AAA in plain film

A

3.8 cm

264
Q

Diagnostic modality of choice for AAA

A

US or CT

265
Q

Chance of rupture

A

<5 cm = < 5%
>6cm = 15%
>7cm = 75%

266
Q

General features of aortic arch aneurysm (4)

A

Atherslcoris, syphilis, trauma, marfan’s

267
Q

2nd MC abdominal aneurysm site

A

Common iliac arteries

268
Q

3rd MC abdominal site

A

Splenic artery aneurysm

269
Q

Osteonecrosis aka

A

AVN, ischemic necrosis, aseptic necrosis

270
Q

Two types of osteopetrosis

A
  1. Epiphyseal necrosis

2. Metaphysical/diaphyseal infarcts

271
Q

Epiphyseal necrosis may remain clinically silent until

A

Articular collapse occurs

272
Q

Metaphysical/diaphyseal infarct ddx - these are asymptomatic

A

Enchondroma

273
Q

Epiphyseal infarcts are self limiting over 2-8 years, progressing through 4 phases

A

Avascular
Revascularization
Repair
Deformity

274
Q

7 features of avascular phase

A 
Loss of blood supply
Bone death
Cartilage growth
Low grade synovitis
Disuse, hypermedia
No clinical findings
Normal x-ray
275
Q

5 features of revascularization phase of osteonecrosis

A 
Neovascularization periphery center
Subchondral fx
Fibrosis and granulation tissue (bone resorption)
Woven bone
Altered biomechanical stress
276
Q

2 features of repair phase of osteonecrosis

A

Bone deposition

Regression of osteoclasis

277
Q

2 features of deformity phase of osteonecrosis

A

Normal bone

Femoral head flattening

278
Q

Epiphyseal osteonecrosis. Describe it. (6)

A 
Collapse of articular cortex
Fragmentation
Sclerosis
Mottled trabecular pattern
Subchondral cysts
Subchondral fx
279
Q

Cortical infarcts are what seen where

A

Periostitis and patch loss of density seen in distal femur, proximal tibia and proximal humerus

280
Q

Ddx for osteonecrosis

3

A

Bone infarct
Enchondroma
Chondrosarcoma

281
Q

Spontaneous osteopetrosis of femoral head in adults cause:

A

Avascular necrosis of femoral head from unknown cause

282
Q

Synonym of spontaneous osteonecrosis of femoral head in adults

A

Chandler’s disease

283
Q

Male:female ratio and age of spontaneous osteopetrosis of femoral head in adults

A

4:1, 30-70 years old

50% bilateral

284
Q

Necrotic wedge at anterosuperior aspect of head separated by fibrous tissue and sclerotic margin of abnormal bone

A

Spontaneous osteopetrosis of femoral head in adults

285
Q

Need AP and frog leg views to diagnosis what condition

A

Spontaneous osteonecrosis of femoral head in adults

286
Q

Signs of spontaneous osteopetrosis of femoral head in adults (6)

A 
Anterosuperior aspect
Cortical collapse
Cystic radiolucencies
Sclerosis
Fragmentation
Degenerative joint changes, medial periosteal bone apposition, subchondral fracture, trabecular alteration and wedged or semilunar configuration
287
Q

Subchondral fracture seen in what condition

A

Spontaneous osteonecrosis of femoral head in adults

288
Q

Spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee cause and affects what area

A

Unknown; medial console of distal femur in adults

289
Q

Epidemiology of spontaneous osteopetrosis of the knee

A

Females 40-60 years old

290
Q

Ddx spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee (1)

A

OD

291
Q

Legg-calve-perthes disease occurs in what age group and what gender

A

3-12
5:1 male predominance
10% bilateral

292
Q

Legg-calves-perthes disease lateral develops into waht

A

Secondary DJD

293
Q

Four stages of LCP disease

A

Avascular
Revascularization
Repair
Deformity

294
Q

Is cartilage affected in LCP disease?

A

No

295
Q

How long does LCP disease work?

A

2-8 years

296
Q

What is best for diagnosising LCP disease in early stages?

A

MRI

297
Q

Soft tissue swelling, small obturator foramen, increased medial joint space, small femoral head, wide teardrop, epiphyseal fragmentation, sclerosis

A

Leg-Calve-Perthes disease

298
Q

Short, wide metaphysis, with cysts; enlarged greater trochanter, head deformities

A

LCP disease

299
Q

Lateral displacement treated with correctional osteotomy to promote remodeling of cartilage and femoral neck in which condition

A

LCP disease

300
Q

Keinboch’s disease definition

A

Avascular necrosis of carpal lunate

301
Q

LCP disease clinical features (4)

A

Painful limp
Reduced mobility
Muscle atrophy
Trendelenburg test positive

302
Q

Gender preference of keinboch’s disease

A

Males 9:1

303
Q

Age group for keinboch’s disease

A

20-40 years of age

304
Q

Classic findings of keinboch’s disease

A

Severe pain with wrist or middle finger extension

305
Q

Clinical features of keinboch’s disease (2)

A

History of acute or chronic trauma

Worsening pain and disability

306
Q

Keinboch’s disease pathological features (4)

A

AVN d/t cut off blood supply
Resorption
Deposition of calcium appears as chalky white on x-ray
Fragmentation and collapse

307
Q

Radiological features of keinboch’s disease (3)

A

Increased density (patchy sclerosis)
Lucent areas
Articular collapse
Decreased size of lunate

308
Q

Osgood schlatter’s disease clinical features (4)

A

M>F
11-15 years of age
History of single violent injury or repetitive flex-ext movements
Pain/swelling and tenderness over tibial tubercle

309
Q

BI lateral views with slight medial rotation using high and low kV to diagnosis this condition

A

Osgood-schlatter

310
Q

5 radiological features of osgood-schlatter’s disease

A

Displaced skin contour
Thickened and indistinct patellar ligament
Blurred and opacified infrapatellar fat
Isolated irregular ossicles
Anterior surface irregularities in tuberosity

311
Q

Scheuermann’s disease is classically of what part of the spine

A

Thoracic

312
Q

Scheuermann’s affects what age group

A

Adolescents

313
Q

Synonyms of scheuermann’s disease (3)

A

Juvenile kyphosis, traumatic epiphysitis, vertebral epiphysitis

314
Q

Gender preference of scheuermann’s disease and age range

A

M>F, 13-17 years old

315
Q

Pain, fatigue and defective posture most notable findings of which disease

A

Scheuermann’s

316
Q

SCHMORL’S NODES, multiple at 3 contiguous levels sign of what in thoracic spine, decreased disc height and increased kyphosis, elongation of vertebral bodies in AP dimension

A

Scheuermann’s

317
Q

Disorder of adolescence where small segment of subchondral bone undergoes ischemic necrosis secondary to trauma or primary vascular occlusion and may form loose body

A

OCD

318
Q

OCD common age and gender preference and are of body

A

11-20 years
M>F
Knee and ankle

319
Q

Other common spots of OCD (8)

A

Talus, elbow, patella, hip, foot, shoulder, wrist, TMJ

320
Q

AVN of metatarsal head MC second, sometimes seen in third

A

Freiberg’s disease

321
Q

Gender preference of freiberg’s disease and age group

A

F>M 3:1

13-18

322
Q

High heels and young ballerinas sometimes a cause of this disease

A

Freiberg’s disease

323
Q

AVN secondary to trauma or increased stress in 2nd metatarsal

A

Freiberg’s disease

324
Q

Radiological features of freiberg’s disease (4)

A

Articular cortex flattened and collapsed
Sclerosis: stress reaction seen in shaft of metatarsal
Lucency with cyst formation
Widened joint space

325
Q

Ddx of widened joint space (4)

A

Acromegaly d/t cartilage proliferation
HPT due to subchondral resorption
Thickened metatarsal cortex
“Morton’s foot”

326
Q

What is morton’s foot and what condition is it associated with?

A

Elongated second metatarsal seen in freiberg’s disease

327
Q

Kohler’s disease

A

NAVICULAR AVN

328
Q

Gender preference and age of kohnler’s

A

M>f

5 years old

329
Q

Normal calcaneal apophysis radiologic features

A

Fragmented, irregular sclerotic calcaneal apophysis is normal presentation AND NOT RELATED TO SEVER’S DISEASE! This is a normal finding!

330
Q

SCFE is what type of salter harris dislocation?

A

One!!!

331
Q

What is type 1 S altar harris dislocation?

A

Fracture through growth plate, goes through cartilaginous growth plate, separates epiphysis and metaphysis

332
Q

SCFE age range

A

10-15 years old

333
Q

What happens in SCFE?

A

Femoral neck slips off femoral head

334
Q

Usually unilateral but what percent occurs bilaterally

A

40%

335
Q

More common in what gender

A

Males, but bilateral is mc in females

336
Q

SCFE associated with (3)

A

Renal osteodystrophy
Rickets
Radiotherapy

337
Q

BI AP frog leg views are essential to diagnosis what condition

A

SCFE

338
Q

Slippage in what direction for SCFE

A

Posteromedial

339
Q

Features of SCFE (4)

A

Abnormal Klein’s line
+ trendelenburg
Capener’s sign
Tear drop distance increased

340
Q

CIA

A

BI AVN

D/t corticosteroids, idiopathic, alcoholism

341
Q

SIT

A

Unilateral AVN

D/t surgery, idiopathic, trauma

342
Q

What imaging modality shows AVN changes before any other?

A

MRI

343
Q

What percent of the time is leg calves bilateral?

A

10%

344
Q

T2 shows what as darker?

A

Bone, fluid is lighter

345
Q

T1 weighted, what is darker?

A

Fluid, bone is lighter

346
Q

What’s STIR?

A

Like T2 but suppressed fat

347
Q

Crescent sign is seen where with what condition and what is it

A

Patchy sclerosis above articular bone = lucency under the bone = crescent sign
Subchondral fracture under articular bone that falls a way
DEIFNITELY AVN

348
Q

MC in african american

A

Sickle cell anemia

349
Q

MC in mediterranean and asian

A

Thalassemia

350
Q

Hemophilia MC in M/F?

A

Males

351
Q

Old white smoking males

A

AAA

352
Q

Cushings disease can cause AVN?

A

Yes, all over the place

353
Q

Hand and foot disease/dactilytis associated with which condition

A

Sickle cell anemia

354
Q

Dactylitis mimics what

A

An infection. Seen in sickle cell anemia

355
Q

What is a complication of sickle cell anemia?

A

Osteomyelitis

356
Q

What is thalassemia?

A

Genetic blood disorder that causes body to have less hemoglobin thus less healthy red blood cells, = anemia

357
Q

RODENT FACES

A

THALASSEMIA

358
Q

Hair on end

A

Thalassemia

359
Q

Marrow hyperplasia

A

Thalassemia

360
Q

Honeycomb appearance

A

Thalassemia

361
Q

H shaped vertebrae

A

Sickle cell anemia

Bone Path III (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions