Midterm Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which feature enables you to minimize all windows except the one on which you want to focus?
    a) Aero Snap
    b) Aero Shake
    c) Aero Peek
    d) Aero task switching
A

Answer: b

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a library that is included with Windows 7?
    a) Music
    b) Documents
    c) Movies
    d) Pictures
A

c

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3
Q
  1. In Windows 7, what is designed to replace VB Script for scripting and performing actions at the

command line?

a) Resource Monitor
b) PowerShell
c) Visual Basic
d) C##

A

b

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following editions is available as a volume license only?
    a) Windows 7 Ultimate
    b) Windows 7 Enterprise
    c) Windows 7 Professional
    d) Windows 7 Home Premium
A

b

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5
Q
  1. Which edition of Windows 7 is designed for low-end mobile devices, usually sold through OEMs?
    a) Windows 7 Home Basic
    b) Windows 7 Home Premium
    c) Windows 7 Starter
    d) Windows 7 Professional
A

c

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following editions of Windows 7 can be added to an Active Directory domain?
    a) Windows 7 Home Premium
    b) Windows 7 Starter
    c) Windows 7 Ultimate
    d) Windows 7 Limited Edition 2k
A

c

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is the minimum amount of memory for a 32-bit version of Windows 7?
    a) 512 MB
    b) 1 GB
    c) 2 GB
    d) 4 GB
A

b

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8
Q
  1. What is the minimum graphics adapter requirements to install Windows 7 and utilize the Aero interface?
    a) DirectX 6 graphics adapter with the WDDM 1.0 or higher driver
    b) DirectX 7 graphics adapter with the WDDM 1.0 or higher driver
    c) DirectX 8 graphics adapter with the WDDM 1.0 or higher driver
    d) DirectX 9 graphics adapter with the WDDM 1.0 or higher driver
A

b

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9
Q
  1. What is the minimum disk space to install the 64-bit version of Windows 7?
    a) 10 GB
    b) 15 GB
    c) 20 GB
    d) 30 GB
A

c

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10
Q
  1. What is the minimum processor to install the 64-bit versions of Windows 7?
    a) 800 MHz
    b) 1 GHz
    c) 1.2 GHz
    d) 1.5 GHz
A

c

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11
Q
  1. You need to clean install Windows 7 Professional while keeping user profile settings from the previous Windows Vista OS, how should you proceed?
    a) In-place upgrade
    b) Anytime upgrade
    c) Custom upgrade
    d) Windows Easy Transfer
A

d

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a feature of Windows PE?
    a) Internal networking support
    b) Internal NTFS support
    c) Boot a virtual DOS environment
    d) Scripting language support
A

c

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13
Q
  1. Where would you find a copy of Windows PE?
    a) Windows 7 AIK
    b) DISM
    c) Hyper-V
    d) WIM Downloader
A

a

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14
Q
  1. You have a third-party controller card for your drivers. How do you install the drivers during installation?
    a) Press the F4 key.
    b) Press the F6 key.
    c) Click the Load Driver button when the Windows Installation program asks, “Where do you want to install Windows?”
    d) Boot the driver disk. After the driver is loaded, insert the Windows 7 installation disk.
A

c

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15
Q
  1. You need to migrate user settings from one computer to a new computer with Windows 7. What type of migration is this?
    a) Side-by-side migration
    b) Wipe-and-load migration
    c) In-place migration
    d) Clean migration
A

a

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16
Q
  1. You need to migrate the user settings to a network share, perform a clean installation of Windows 7 on a computer, and migrate the user settings from the network share to the computer. What type of migration is this?

a) Side-by-side migration
b) In-place migration
c) Wipe-and-load migration
d) Clean migration

A

c

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true about Windows PE?
    a) It automatically reboots the computer after 72 hours of continuous operation
    b) Windows PE does not support the entire collection of Win32 APIs
    c) There is only a 32-bit version of Windows PE
    d) Windows PE does not have file server or Terminal Server capabilities
A

d

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18
Q
  1. Which program allows you to migrate user settings from one computer to a computer running Windows 7 using a command line interface?
    a) Windows Easy Transfer
    b) User State Migration Tool
    c) Wipe-Load Tool
    d) Profile Transfer tool
A

b

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19
Q
  1. If you install Windows 7 on a volume that has Windows Vista, where do you find the old Windows files?
    a) Windows.Old folder
    b) Windows.Bak folder
    c) C:\Windows\old folder
    d) Old.sys file
A

a

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a new feature of Windows PE 3.0?
    a) A Windows imaging format that allows itself to be edited.
    b) Windows PE allows direct modification of the BIOS.
    c) Windows PE 3.0 is smaller than previous versions.
    d) Windows PE supports Hyper-V
A

b

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21
Q
  1. What do you call a template for a workstation configuration that contains all the software the workstation requires?
    a) Image system
    b) Windows PE
    c) Flash OS
    d) Reference computer
A

d

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22
Q
  1. You are getting ready to deploy Windows 7 to multiple enterprise workstations. What do you use to hold the information captured from the reference computer?
    a) Template
    b) Image file
    c) WinPE
    d) Snapshot
A

b

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23
Q
  1. What is the graphical utility that installers can use to create distribution shares and answer files that automate and customize Windows 7 installations?
    a) Windows SIM
    b) DISM
    c) ImageX.exe
    d) Windows PE
A

a

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24
Q
  1. What is a command line tool that installers can use to capture, modify, and apply image files in the Windows Imaging format?
    a) ImageX.exe
    b) DISM.exe
    c) Sysprep.exe
    d) USMT.exe
A

a

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25
Q
  1. What is a command line tool that installers can use to mount, edit, and upgrade image files in the Windows Imaging format?
    a) ImageX.exe
    b) DISM.exe
    c) Sysprep.exe
    d) USMT.exe
A

b

26
Q
  1. What is a command line program that installers can use to prepare Windows 7 computers for imaging, auditing, and deployment including preparing a reference computer?
    a) ImageX.exe
    b) DISM.exe
    c) Sysprep.exe
    d) USMT.exe
A

c

27
Q
  1. What tool is a superset of Windows 7 AIK that enables you to perform lite-touch installation (LTI) and zero-touch installation (ZTI) according to the book?
    a) 2010 Package Manager
    b) ImageX.exe
    c) Microsoft Deployment Toolkit 2010
    d) Windows PE 3.0
A

c

28
Q
  1. What command is used to partition and format a disk?
    a) ImageX.exe
    b) DISM.exe
    c) Diskpart.exe
    d) Format.exe
A

c

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an objective when performing a large-scale Windows 7 deployment?
    a) Minimizing the interruption of user productivity
    b) Minimizing the amount of user interaction required at workstations
    c) Creating standardized computing software environments
    d) Use ImageX.exe to deploy the image to each workstation in the enterprise
A

d

30
Q
  1. What is the default partition style used in Windows 7?
    a) MBR
    b) GUID
    c) NFS
    d) DFS
A

a

31
Q
  1. What is the largest disk that MBR supports?
    a) 1 TB
    b) 2 TB
    c) 4 TB
    d) 8 TB
A

b

32
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of primary partitions that MBR supports?
    a) One
    b) Two
    c) Four
    d) Eight
A

c

33
Q
  1. What is the largest disk that GPT supports?
    a) 4 TB
    b) 64 TB
    c) 128 TB
    d) 18 EB
A

d

34
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of primary partitions that GPT supports?
    a) 8
    b) 32
    c) 64
    d) 128
A

d

35
Q
  1. You have decided that you would like to format a volume on your Windows 7 system using FAT32, what is the maximum size this volume can be if you use FAT32?
    a) 32MB
    b) 32GB
    c) 128MB
    d) 128GB
A

b

36
Q
  1. Which type of disk uses primary partitions, extended partitions, and logical drives to organize data?
    a) Basic disk
    b) Dynamic disk
    c) Advanced disk
    d) Extended disk
A

a

37
Q
  1. What type of disk supports an unlimited number of volumes?
    a) Basic disk
    b) Dynamic disk
    c) Advanced disk
    d) Extended disk
A

b

38
Q
  1. Which is the preferred file system used in Windows 7?
    a) FAT
    b) FAT32
    c) NTFS
    d) exFAT
A

c

39
Q
  1. What layer of the OSI model do you find a switch?
    a) Physical
    b) Data-link
    c) Network
    d) Transport
A

b

40
Q
  1. What is the primary protocol used by Windows to communicate over a network?
    a) TCP/IP
    b) IPX/SPX
    c) DLC
    d) SNA
A

a

41
Q
  1. What is used to specify which bits of an IPv4 address are used for the network identifier and which bits are used for the host identifier?
    a) Default gateway
    b) Subnet mask
    c) MAC address
    d) OSI model
A

b

42
Q
  1. In what class is the address of 156.43.75.212?
    a) Class A
    b) Class B
    c) Class C
    d) Class D
A

b

43
Q
  1. If you have an IPv4 address of 123.54.34.77 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the CIDR notation(also called slash notation)??
    a) /16
    b) /20
    c) /24
    d) /28
A

b

44
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an IPv4 private address range?
    a) 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255
    b) 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255
    c) 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255
    d) 224.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255
A

d

45
Q
  1. What address is assigned to a computer that fails to locate a DHCP server?
    a) NAT
    b) MAC
    c) APIPA
    d) CIDR
A

c

46
Q
  1. What type of address is the FCC0:0:0:0B5D:FF:BE3B:F4F7:3311?
    a) MAC
    b) IPv4
    c) IPv6
    d) WINS
A

c

47
Q
  1. What do you call codes that identify specific applications running on the system?
    a) Ports
    b) Protocol
    c) TCP
    d) UDP
A

a

48
Q
  1. What utility or tool allows you to view and manage all your network connections?
    a) Computer Management console
    b) Network and Sharing Center
    c) Network Discovery console
    d) Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
A

b

49
Q
  1. What is a software routine that acts as a virtual barrier between a computer and the network to which it is attached?
    a) Filter watcher
    b) Firewall
    c) Protocol analyzer
    d) SNMP
A

b

50
Q
  1. What is used to store permissions?
    a) ACL
    b) ACE
    c) Rights tree
    d) Hive
A

a

51
Q
  1. You copy several files from one folder to another folder within the same drive. What permissions do the files in the destination folder have?
    a) The same permissions that they had in the source folder.
    b) The same permissions that the target folder has.
    c) No permissions.
    d) Everyone has full control.
A

b

52
Q
  1. You copy several files from one folder to another folder in the same volume, what permissions do the files in the destination folder have?

a) The same permissions that they had in the source folder.
b) The same permissions that the target folder has.
c) No permissions.
d) Everyone has full control.

A

b

53
Q
  1. If you move an NTFS file from one location to another location on a different volume, what permissions do the files in the destination folder have?

a) The same permissions that they had in the source folder.
b) The same permissions that the target folder has.
c) No permissions.
d) Everyone has full control.

A

b

54
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
    a) Allow permissions are cumulative.
    b) Deny permissions override allow permissions.
    c) Explicit permissions take precedence over inherited permissions.
    d) Conceivably everyone could have their permissions revoked and everyone could be locked out of the file permanently.
A

d

55
Q
  1. Which NTFS permission allows you to navigate through restricted folders to reach other files and folders?
    a) Read
    b) Write
    c) Execute
    d) Read & Execute
A

d

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a permission in the Share Permission system?
    a) Read
    b) Change
    c) Traverse
    d) Full control
A

c

57
Q
  1. Which type of sharing is new to Windows 7?
    a) Standard sharing
    b) Public folder sharing
    c) Homegroup sharing
    d) NFS sharing
A

c

58
Q
  1. What do you need to do to activate Public folder sharing?
    a) Enable Network Discovery and Public Folder Sharing in the Network and Sharing Center.
    b) Enable the Public Folder service.
    c) Right click the Public folder, and select Enable Public Sharing.
    d) Use group policies to enable the Public Folder service.
A

a and b

59
Q
  1. What do you call the set of commands that a printer understands in order to print content?
    a) Print driver commands
    b) Print protocol
    c) Printer control language
    d) Print command set
A

c

60
Q
  1. You want to configure the printer so that if an executive and an office worker print at the same time, the executive print job prints first. How do you do this?
    a) Configure two print servers to a single print device and configure priorities.
    b) Configure the High Priority Print permissions to the executives.
    c) When you add the users to the print permissions, order them with the executives listed first.
    d) Move the printers closer to the executive offices.
A

a