Midterm Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Angina Pectoris:

A

Discomfort induced by exertion and relieved with rest or nitroglycerin.

Due to ischemia of the heart or obstruction of coronary arteries.

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2
Q

Stable Angina:

A

Anginal symptomatology that occurs with the same degree of exertion and resolves with the same decree of rest and same dosage and strength of nitroglycerine

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3
Q

Unstable Angina:

A

Angina that occurs with more frequent occurrence of angina episodes, longer lived ones, or more easily proved not relieved by nitroglycerine

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4
Q

Prientz Metal/ Atypical

A

Angina at rest not relieved by Nitroglycerine

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5
Q

Acute Coronary Syndrome:

A

Symptoms that suggest high risk
*pressure/squeezing quality, pain similar to prior mi or angina, radiation to neck, shoulders, jaw or left arm, associated dyspnea and could have nausea and sweating

Most often due to endothelial injury and plaque formation and rupture

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6
Q

Acute Coronary Syndrome:

Pneumothroax:

A

Tension Pneumothorax: present when there is significant impairment of respiration and/or blood circulation.
Emergency!!

PE: Broncophony will be diminished and it will be hyper-resonant on percussion. Increased heart rate, rapid breathing and displacement of windpipe away from affected side

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7
Q

Acute Coronary Syndrome:

Aortic Dissection:

A

Unequal pulses, radiating pain to the back, new onset murmur

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8
Q

Acute Coronary Syndrome:

Pulmonary Embolism:

A

Consider in any patient who presents with chest pain that is pleuritic in nature or dyspnea that is not explained by: *Clinical evaluation

  • Radiograph
  • Electrocardiogram.
  • JVD w/lungs clear to auscultation->Pulmonary embolism, Cardiac Tamponade, RCHF
  • SX: Dyspnea, anxiety, pleuritic chest pain, cough, hemoptysis. Low pulse ox and arterial gasses
  • Tests: CT pulmonary angiography, D-dimer testing & conventional pulmonary angiography.
  • D-dimer also used with suspicion of Deep Vein Thrombosis, Pulmonary Embolism and intravascular coagulation
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9
Q

Acute Coronary Syndrome:

Cardiac Tamponade:

A

SX: Becks Triad= Low BP, JVD, Decreased Heart Sounds

*JVD w/lungs clear to auscultation->Cardiac Tamponade, RCHF, Pulmonary embolism

Occurs as a result of chest trauma, cancer, uremia, pericarditis or cardiac surgery

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10
Q

Acute Coronary Syndrome:

Aortic Aneurysm:

A

Any swelling of the aorta greater than 1.5 x normal, representing an underlying weakness in the wall of the aorta at that location.

Sx: pain radiating to the mid back, hoarse voice and left due to left recurrent laryngeal nerve being stretched *Matching of where pain goes

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11
Q
Acute Coronary Syndrome:
Myocardial Infarction
*Sx's
*Blood Markers
*Tx (MONA)/STEMI (LAD-Widow Maker)
A

Sx onset is usually gradual over minutes and chest pain is the mc sx. Sensation of tightness, squeezing, pressure.

Nitric Oxide is given to increase oxygen load to the heart and by dilating the vessels.

Blood Markers: creatinin Kinase –MB (CKMB) and Troponin
Troponin: late marker, rise at 3 hours . Carbon monoxide poisoning/ cyanide poisioning can also release troponin since it can damage the heart
Primary pulmonary hypertension/pulmonary embolism/obstructive pulmonary disease puts right ventricular strain on the heart leading to an increase in ischemia and tension, therefore increased troponin

Treatment: oxygen, aspirin and sublingual nitroglycerin but STEMI’s need reperfusion therapy,
MONA: morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerine, aspirin.
Clopidogrel: 600 mg for STEMI or 300 for non-STEMI. It is a platlet aggravation inhibitor that is given with aspirin as an additive effect.
Stemi use Percutaneous intervention, thrombolysis with IV alteplace, steptoinase or tenectoplace or CABG

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12
Q

Pneumonia:

A

Sx: Crackles (rales)
Chest pain but with fever, cough, and dyspnea
Chest Xray for CHF can look the same as pneumonia
Use (B-type Natriuretic Peptide) BNP lab test to check for CHF not Pneumonia

BNP is secreted from the ventricles or lower chambers of the heart in response to changes in pressure that occur when heart failure develops and worsens.

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13
Q

Clues that Suggest Gi Sources of Chest Pain

A
Pain persisting for more than one hour
Typically occurs post-prandially (after meals)
Lack of radiation of pain
Associated with esophageal symptoms
Relieved by antacid ingestion
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14
Q

Nitroglycerin relieving chest pain does not = angina always, you also want to think about esophageal spasms

A

GI Cocktail

Antacid with oral zylocaine or Benadryl or Tylenol (artificially sweetened so it tastes better)

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15
Q

Musculoskeletal chest wall pain

A

SX: diffuse pain with multiple areas of tenderness.
Upper costal cartilages are most frequently involved
Diagnosis is based on reproduction of pain with palpation

Tietze’s Syndrome:
painful, non-suppurative localized swelling of the costosternal sternoclavicular or costochondral joints most often involving the area of the second and third rib
Commonly post viral

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16
Q

What criteria are used to rule in an MI?
Signs and symptoms
Patients with typical myocardial infarction may have the following prodromal symptoms in the days preceding the event (although typical STEMI may occur suddenly, without warning):

(STEMI)=>Anterior ST elevation myocardial Infarction

A

Fatigue
Chest discomfort
Malaise

  • Anterior STEMI results from occlusion of the left anterior descending artery (LAD).
  • Anterior myocardial infarction carries the worst prognosis of all infarct locations, mostly due to larger infarct size.
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17
Q

S&sx’s used to rule in an MI!

Typical chest pain in acute M.I. has the following characteristics:

A
  • Intense and unremitting for 30-60 minutes
  • Retrosternal, often radiates to neck, shoulder, jaw & down to the ulnar aspect of the left arm
  • Substernal pressure characterized as squeezing, aching, burning, or even sharp
  • In some pt’s, the sx is epigastric, w/a feeling of indigestion or fullness & gas
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18
Q

S&sx’s used to rule in an MI!

Vital signs demonstrated in myocardial infarction:

A
  1. Inc. Hrt. rate
  2. Inc. Pulse
  3. Inc. BP (Rt ventricular M.I. or Sev. Lt ventricular dysfxn.=>hypotension is seen)
  4. Inc. Resp.
  5. Fever
  6. Coughing, wheezing, & frothy sputum

Hrt rate often increased 2nd to sympathoadrenal d/c

Pulse may be irregular bc of ventricular ectopy, an accelerated idioventricular rhythm, ventricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation or flutter, or other supraventricular arrhythmias; bradyarrhythmias may be present

Pt’s blood pressure is initially elevated bc of peripheral arterial vasoconstriction resulting from an adrenergic response to pain and ventricular dysfunction

However, with right ventricular myocardial infarction or severe left ventricular dysfunction, hypotension is seen

Respiratory rate may be increased d/t pulmonary congestion or anxiety

Coughing, wheezing, and the production of frothy sputum may occur

Fever is usually present within 24-48 hours, with the temperature curve generally parallel to the time course of elevations of creatine kinase (CK) levels in the blood. Body temperature may occasionally exceed 102°F

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19
Q

Diagnosis
Laboratory tests used in the diagnosis of myocardial infarction include the following:

Do a BNP to differentiate from pneumonia.

A
  1. Troponin->only when myocardial necrosis occurs
    (3-12Hrs->New Gold Standard)
  2. Creatine kinase=> CK-MB levels increase w/in 3-12 hrs (Doesn’t exclude inc. of CK from skeletal Mm trauma)
  3. Urine myoglobin rises w/in 1-4 hrs chest pain onset.
Other labs:
Complete blood count
Chemistry profile
Lipid profile
C-reactive protein and other inflammation markers

Cardiac biomarkers/enzymes: The American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association (ACC/AHA) guidelines on unstable angina/NSTEMI (non–ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction) recommend that in patients with suspected myocardial infarction, cardiac biomarkers should be measured at presentation

Troponin levels: Troponin is a contractile protein that normally is not found in serum; it is released only when myocardial necrosis occurs

Creatine kinase (CK) levels: CK-MB levels increase within 3-12 hours of the onset of chest pain, reach peak values within 24 hours, and return to baseline after 48-72 hours

Myoglobin levels: Myoglobin is released more rapidly from infarcted myocardium than is troponin; urine myoglobin levels rise within 1-4 hours from the onset of chest pain

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20
Q

Diagnosis
Dx of M.I. include the following:

Confirms Dx in approximately 80% of cases.

A

Electrocardiography (ECG)

The ECG is the most important tool in the initial evaluation and triage of patients in whom an acute coronary syndrome (ACS), such as myocardial infarction, is suspected.

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21
Q

Diagnosis

Cardiac imaging to definitively diagnose or rule out coronary artery disease

A

Coronary angiogram:
It’s done to find out if your coronary arteries are blocked or narrowed, where and by how much.

For individuals with highly probable or confirmed ACS (acute coronary syndrome), a coronary angiogram can be used to definitively diagnose or rule out coronary artery disease.

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22
Q

Determine the location of a myocardial infarction based on which chest leads are abnormal.

A

Leads with ST elevation

  • Anterior wall MI: V3/V4
  • Lateral wall MI: I and avL
  • Inferior wall MI: II, III, avF (bradycardia)
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23
Q

Go over MONA for MI

A

MONA: morphine, oxygen, nitroglycerine, aspirin.

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24
Q

Review Beck’s triad

Cardiac Tamponade:

A

Low Blood Pressure, Muffled Heart Sounds and JVD

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25
Q

The Wells Criteria is used for DVT: (scoring)

A
  • Active cancer (treatment within last 6 months or palliative): +1 point
  • Calf swelling ≥ 3cm compared to asymptomatic calf (measured 10cm below tibial tuberosity): +1 point
  • Swollen unilateral superficial veins (non-varicose, in symptomatic leg): +1 point
  • Unilateral pitting edema (in symptomatic leg): +1 point
  • Previous documented DVT: +1 point
  • Swelling of entire leg: +1 point
  • Localized tenderness along the deep venous system: +1 point
  • Paralysis, paresis or recent cast immobilization of lower extremities: +1 point
  • Recently bedridden ≥ 3days, or major surgery requiring regional or general anesthetic in the past 12 weeks: +1 point
    10. Alternative diagnosis at least as likely as a diagnosis of DVT: minus (-)2 points* (only minus)
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26
Q

The Wells Criteria is used for DVT Interpretation:

Probability

A
  • High if greater than two (2)
  • Moderate if one or two (1-2)
  • Low if less than one (0)
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27
Q

Wells Pulmonary Embolism Scoring:

A
  1. (3 pts) Clinically suspected DVT: 3 points
  2. (3 pts) Alternative diagnosis is less likely than PE: 3.0 points
  3. (1.5 pts) Tachycardia (HR > 100): 1.5 points
  4. (1.5 pts) Immobilization (≥ 3d)/surgery in previous four weeks: 1.5 points
  5. (1.5 pts) History of DVT or PE: 1.5 points
  6. (1 pt) Hemoptysis: 1.0 points
  7. (1.pt) Malignancy (with treatment within 6 months) or palliative treatment: 1.0 points
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28
Q

Traditional interpretation of Well’s score for PE

A
  • Score of > 6.0 = High probability of PE (probability 59% based on pooled data)
  • Score of 2.0 to 6.0 = Moderate probability of PE (probability 29% based on pooled data])
  • Score of
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29
Q

Alternative interpretation of Well’s score for PE

A
  • Score > 4 = PE is likely. Consider diagnostic imaging.

* Score 4 or less = PE is unlikely. Consider D-dimer testing.

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30
Q

Salicylate Poisoning:

A

SX: tinnitus, abdominal discomfort, dizziness, nausea and hyperventilation, Vertigo, tachycardia, and hyperactivity.

Worsening:
As toxicity progresses, agitation, delirium, hallucinations, convulsions, lethargy, and stupor may occur.

Toxicity Tx include: activated charcoal, intravenous dextrose and normal saline, sodium bicarbonate, and dialysis.

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31
Q

Exam Findings of a Respiratory Emergency:

  1. Breath sounds
  2. JVD
  3. Crackles (rales)
  4. Inspiratory Stridor
  5. Expiratory Stridor
A

Absent or diminished breath sounds-> pneumothorax

JVD with lungs that are clear to auscultation->R CHF, Cardiac Tamponade, Pulmonary embolism

Crackles (rales):
A. “ADHF”->Acute decompensated heart failure,
B. “ARDS”->Adult respiratory distress syndrome
C. “Pneumonia”
D. “Pulmonary Edema” (crackling/wheezing->Acute Pulmonary Edema)

Inspiratory Stridor-> obstruction of air flow above the vocal cords->(Croup, bacterial tracheitis->Staph. aureus)

Expiratory Stridor-> Obstruction of air below the vocal cords: ->DDX: foreign body (may be inspiratory (most common), expiratory, or biphasic)

Resp. Emerg. DDX: COPD, CHF, Pneumonia, Asthma

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32
Q

Signs of worsening CHF:

A

“Crackling/wheezing”
Anxiety, restlessness, dyspnea, rapid labored breathing, cyanosis, blood tinged sputum, distended jugular veins, rapid pulse,cool clammy skin

JVD with lungs that are clear to auscultation-> RCHF, Cardiac Tamponade, Pulmonary embolism

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33
Q

Blood test for CHF VS Pneumonia

A

Brain Natriuretic peptide (BNP) secreted by the heart when there is large changes of blood pressure.

  • Use (B-type Natriuretic Peptide) BNP lab test to check for CHF not Pneumonia.
  • Chest Xray for CHF can look the same as pneumonia.

BNP is secreted from the ventricles or lower chambers of the heart in response to changes in pressure that occur when heart failure develops and worsens.

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34
Q

Acute Decompensated Heart Failure:

Do a BNP to differentiate from pneumonia.

A
  • Sudden worsening of the S&Sx’s of heart failure, caused by severe congestion of multiple organs by fluid that is inadequately circulated by the failing heart.
  • An attack of decompensation can be caused by underlying medical illness, such as myocardial infarction, infection, or thyroid disease.

Sx: Pulmonary edema, enlarged heart size, apivascular redistribution circle and bilateral pleural effusions, JVD, Pedal edema.

*Crackles (rales)
Acute decompensated heart failure,
Adult respiratory distress syndrome or
Pneumonia

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35
Q

Stages of Acute Asthma

A

Mild: adequate air exchange, mild dyspnea, diffuse wheezes

Moderate: Respiratry distress at rest, hypernoea, marked wheeze and air exchange is normal to decreased.

Severe: Marked respiratory distress, marked wheezes, absent breath sounds

36
Q

Acute Asthma want to check for…(Additionally)

A

Pulsus Paradoxus: drop of systolic blood pressure with inspiration > 10mm.

Send them to ER IF!

  1. Vital Signs R >30rpm, P>120 bpm
  2. Pulse Ox: 91 but drops when walking
  3. Peak Flow less than 50% of predicted value
  4. Other SX cyanosis, pulsus paradoxus, altered mental status, inability to speak dt dypnea and use of accessory muscles
37
Q

Be able to compare and contrast the different types of oxygen delivery devices and the oxygen delivery percentages associated with each of these devices.

A

Device* ——–>Flow Rate———–>%Oxygen

  1. Nasal Cannula —->4-6 —–>25-40%
  2. Plastic face mask ——-10 ——>50-60%
  3. Venturi mask —->4 —->24, 25, 35, 40%
  4. Partial rebreather mask ——>6-8 —->35-60%
  5. Non-rebreather mask ——>10-15 —->90%

Possible Tq’s
**Venturi mask is assoc. w/multiple settings of O2.
COPD pt’s may not want to give much oxygen b/c they are so used to having more CO2.

**Non-rebreather mask: in hospital setting

  • ***Which of these have a higher degree of oxygen?
  • ->Non-rebreather mask

**Lower?–>Venturi mask

38
Q

Anaphylaxis Shock

A

IGE mediated
SX: systemic rx, urticaria, respiratory distress, vascurlar collapse, abd cramps and vomiting.

Tx:
1. Epinephrine IM Epinephrine (1mg/ml) .3.5 mg IM in mid-anteriolateral thigh, can repeat every 5-15 minutes as needed.
NO Contraindication to epinephrine in the setting of anaphylaxis
2. Oxygen via face mask 6-8 liters per minute
3. Normal Saline Rapid Bolustreats hypotension, 1-2 liters IV repeat as needed, massive fluid shifts with severe loss of intravascular volume can occur
4. Albuterol: for bronchospasm reistant to IM epinephrine give 2.5 to 5 mg in 3 ml saline via nebulizer as needed
5. H1 antihistamine: diphenhydramine 25 to 50 mg IV for relief from urticaria and itching
6. H2 antihistamine: ranitidine 50 mg iv zntac
7. Glucocorticoids: methylprednisolone 125 mg IV

39
Q

Anaphylactoid reaction

Aspirin, or acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) is a salicylate drug, and is generally used as an analgesic (something that relieves pain without producing anesthesia or loss of consciousness) for minor aches and pains, to reduce fever (an antipyretic), and also as an anti-inflammatory drug.

NSAIDs are a drug class that groups together drugs that provide analgesic (pain-killing) and antipyretic (fever-reducing) effects, and, in higher doses, anti-inflammatory effects.

A
  1. Non IGE mediated reaction that resembles anaphylaxis but not antibody related.
    Occurs with first injection of certain drugs
  2. The first time you have the run its anaphylactoid not anaphylaxis
  3. Dose related toxins with idiosyncratic mechanisms rather than immunologic mediated one: i.e. iodinated radiographic contrast materials will activate alternative complement pathways.
  4. Associated with ASA and NSAIDS-> think Samter’s triad
    A)Aspirin allergy
    B)Nasal polyps
    C)Asthma
40
Q

Acute Pulmonary Edema:

A

“crackling or wheezing sounds, cyanosis, blood tinged sputum”

Sx: dyspnea, rapid labored breathing, crackling or wheezing sounds, cyanosis, blood tinged sputum, dstended jugular vein, rapid pulse, cool, clammy skin, restlessness and anxiety.
TX: high flow O2, keep patients head and shoulder elevated, and keep them call while 911 arrives.

41
Q

Panic Attack/Hyperventillation

A

Respiratory alkalosis and can pass out. They are common and begin abruptly and last for a long time. Chest pain and shortness of breath are common.

42
Q

Samter’s triad

A

Samter’s triad has to do with identifying an IgE mediated respiratory distress that doesn’t respond well to epinephrine.

1) Aspirin allergy
2) Nasal polyps
3) Asthma

43
Q

Signs and symptoms of epiglottis

A

Epiglottis->swollen, difficult to talk, don’t even visualize in office, wait for them to visualize it in the hospital where they can intubate asap.

  1. dysphagia, drooling, distress are hallmarks in children
  2. URI symptoms
  3. High fever
  4. Severe sore throat
  5. Children appear toxic
  6. Choking sensation and are distressed during inspiration, anxious, restless and irritable.
  7. Hot pirate muffled speech
  8. Assume sitting position with the trunk leaning forward, neck hyperextended and chin thirst forward
  9. Thumbprnt sign on Xray
44
Q

Signs and symptoms of croup

A

Inspiratory stridor, cough and hoarseness.
Sx are related to inflammation of the larynx and subglottic airway

Barking coughi->Infants and young children
Hoarseness-> older children and adults
Absent fever but mild URI symptoms

45
Q

upper and a lower GI bleed

A
  1. Hematemesis (vomiting of blood)–>Upper
  2. Melena(blk “tarry” feces)->Upper(Probable)
    Lower–>(Possible)
  3. Hematochezia(fresh blood thru anus)–>Upper(Possible) Lower–>(Probable)
  4. Blood streaked stool–>Lower
46
Q

Upper GI bleed:

  • Sx’s
  • Lab
  • Tx
A
  1. Hemorrhage from pharynx to ligament of trieitz( between the third and fourth portion of duodenum near distal end)
  2. Medical Emergency
  3. SX: hematemesis and melena, coffee ground vomiting (undigested blood) hematochezia (maroon colored stool)
  4. Gastrectomy causes b12 deficiency
  5. Lab: Cbc, coagulation and time and electrolytes with cross matching blood for later transfusion
  6. TX: Emergency Upper Endoscopy

A. If someone spits up coffee ground vomit in your office first assess consciousness (altered mental status, then do bp. Systolic less than 90 is a medical emergency.

B. Orthostatic drop in systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg or an increase in heart rate of more than 10 beats per minute is indicative of atlas 15% blood volume loss

47
Q

Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) Interpretation:

A

Scores of 6 points or more on the Glasgow-Blatchford scoring system are associated with a greater than 50% risk of signifigant bleeding that requires urgent/ emergent intervention.

Admission risk marker	Score component value
Blood Urea (mmol/L)	
6.5-8.0	 2 points
8.0-10.0	 3   “
10.0-25	 4   “
>25	 6   “
Hemoglobin (g/L) for men	
12.0-12.9	 1 point
10.0-11.9	 3    “
48
Q

Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) is what?

A

It’s a screening tool to assess the likelihood that a patient with an acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) will need to have urgent medical intervention such as a blood transfusion or endoscopic examination. The tool may be able to identify patients who do not need to be admitted to hospital after an upper GI bleed.

49
Q

Rockall scoring system is what?

A

Another form of assessment of an upper GI bleed.

Attempts to identify patients at risk of adverse outcome following acute upper GI bleeding.

50
Q

Rockall scoring system criteria mnemonic:

A

ABCDE - Age, Blood pressure fall (shock), Co-morbidity, Diagnosis and Evidence of bleeding.

51
Q

Advantages of the GBS (Glasgow-Blatchford score) over the Rockall score:

A

Assesses the risk of mortality in patients with UGIB, include a lack of subjective variables such as:

  1. Severity of systemic diseases and
  2. Lack of a need for upper endoscopy to complete the score, a feature unique to the GBS.
52
Q

Esophageal Varices:

A
  1. Extremely dilated sub-mucosal veins in the lower third of the esophagus
  2. MC DT Portal hypertension dt cirrhosis
  3. Strong tendency to bleed and perforate
  4. TX: stop blood, maintain plasma volume, correct disorders in coagulation and use antibiotics if gram-negative
    therapeutic endoscopy is gold standard treatment
  5. Be careful because resuscitation of all lost blood volume can lead to increase in portal pressure and lead to more bleeding.
  6. Therapeutic approaching to stoping the bleeding include:
    A. Vatical ligation and sclerotherapy you could also use balloon tamponade for refractory bleeding.
53
Q

Stool terms:

Melena:
Hematochemzia:

A

Melena: black tary stool, bloods been in gi for 8 hours, think upper GI bleed

Hematochemzia: bright red or maroon colored stool. Sign of active GI bled, short transit time so think lower gi bleed or upper

54
Q

Lower GI Bleed:

  • Location
  • Sx’s
  • Tx
  • Risks
  • Indications for surgery
A

Location is distal to the ligament of trietz Includes last ¼ of duodenum and entire jejunum, ileum, colon rectum and anus

SX: hypotension, tachycardia, angina, syncope, weakness, confusion, stroke, myocardial infarction

  • maroon stool-> right side of colon
  • bright red blood-> Left side of colon
  • melana-> bleeding from cecum and distal to cecum

TX: Iv fluids, O2 facemask or NC as needed

Risks: poor renal function, >60yo, low BP, persistent blleding increased risk for mortality

Indications for surgery:

  • Persistent hemodynamic instability with active bleeding
  • Persistent recurrent bleeding
  • Transfusion of more than 4 units packed red blood cells in a 24-hour period with active or recurrent bleeding
55
Q

Lower GI:

Massive Bleeding

A
  1. Pt’s >65yo W/Multi Med. Cond’ts
  2. Hematochezia or bright red per rectum
  3. Hemodynamics Unstable
    * **SBP=90mmhg
    * **HR>100/min
    * **Low unrine output
  4. Hemoglobin level =6g/dl
  5. M/C d/t Diverticulosis & Angiodysplasias
  6. Mortality rate = 21%
56
Q

Lower GI:

Moderate Bleeding

A
  1. Pt of any age
  2. Presents as Hematochezia or Melena
  3. Hemodynamically stable pt’s
  4. Long list of Dz’s may cause mod. amount of Acute or Chronic Bleeding:
    * *Benign anorectal
    * *Congenital
    * *Inflammatory
    * *Neoplastic Dz’s
57
Q

Lower GI:

Occult Bleeding

A
  1. Pt. of any age
  2. Presents as Microcytic hypochromic anemia d/t Chronic blood loss.
  3. Long list of dz’s may cause chronic occult bleeding:
    * *Congenital
    * *Inflammatory
    * *Neoplastic
58
Q

Diverticulosis:

A

M/c in sigmoid colon

59
Q

Colorectal cancer:

A

Adenocarcinoma is third M/C cancer in US

Occult bleeding b/c mucosal ulceration =>Common
Microcytic Hypochromic Anemia

60
Q

Ulcerative Colitis:

A

Bloody diarrhea

Skip Lesions

61
Q

Chron’s Dz

A

Blood: Small, rare
Cobble Stones
Constipation or Diarrhea

62
Q

Ischemic Colitis:

A

Mc form, involves watershed areas including the splenic flexure and recto-sigmoid junction
SX: mucosal and parital thickness colonic wall sloughing, edema and bleeding along with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea

63
Q

Infectious colitis:

A

think Salmonella, shigella, ecoli 0157 : H7

64
Q

Angiodysplasia:

A

arteriovenous malformations of the cecum and ascending colon

65
Q

Spinal Cord Compression:
Sx’s
PE:
Tx:

A

SX: cancer pt’s w/complaints of new onset back pain that is worsened by movement and unimproved with rest. *Lower extremity weakness.

  • Pain is localized or radicular
  • Urinary & bowel incontinence can develop.

PE: quality of pain is mimicked by percussion over the affected vertebra and worse with valsalva.
*DTR could increase, babinskis sign & lower extremity spasticity.

Tx: Steroids =>limited usefulness.

  • Radiation therapy is indicated
  • Followed by chemo
66
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome:
Sx’s
Imaging

A

SX: Lower extremity weakness, decreased DTR’s, Lower extremity flaccidity, leg and perianal sensory loss and urine retention and constipation

Imaging of the spine:

  • Shows lytic changes consistent with mets
  • Misses para-spinal lesions that impinge neuronal foramina
  • Misses intra-spinal tumor mets
  • You may need to do a MRI, CT or Lumbar Puncture
67
Q
Brain tumors:
Age
Sx's
Mets
Tx
A

40’s or older and 1st seizure you must r/o brain tumor, second think stroke

SX: new onset headache, HA with increasing intensity/frequency, visual field changes, focal neurological deficits, persistent nausea and vomiting, stroke, siezures.

Mets is the most common type of tumor in the brain: from lung, breast, renal, colon and melanoma

TX: IV dexamethasone 40->80mh to reduce swelling and steroids, SX, gamma-knife radio surgery

  • ***For impending herniation-> IV mannitol and high dose Dexamethasone
  • ***Once stabilized, brain irradiation for radiation sensitive tumors
68
Q
Superior Vena Cava Syndrome
M/C
Edema
SX
DX
TX
A

Happens as a result of direct obstruction of the superior vena cava by malignancies such as compression of the vessel wall by lung cancer.

  • M/C Malignancy => bronchogenic carcinoma (“Lung Cancer” M/C cause of cancer in men->M/C fatal malignancy worldwide both in male & female, 85% of lung cancers are non-small cell lung cancers, Adenocarcinoma=>M/C form of lung ca in U.S. both men & women)
  • 2nd=> thrombosis around and indwelling catheter
  • Cerebral edema related to this is uncommon but prognosis is poor if it happens
  • SX: Shortness of breath followed by facial or arm swelling/, Headache, Venous distention of the neck and distended veins in upper neck and arm, lightheadedness, and cough
  • DX: MRI with or without contracts
  • TX: Steroids, diuretics, bed rest with elevation of head, chemotherapy if caused by small cell lung and lymphoma
69
Q

Cardiac Tamponade:

A

Becks Triad: Hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds

JVD w/lungs that are clear to auscultation: R CHF, Cardiac Tamponade, Pulmonary embolism

TX: Remove fluid from pericardial space, pericardiocentesis, sclerotic therapy, surgical placement of a pleuropericardial window, low dose radiation

70
Q
Hypercalcemia:
Mets
Tumors 
Sx's
Tx's
A
  • Mets breast or prostate Bone Lysis and respiration:
  • ***Mc are lung, breast, prostate & kidney

*Multiple myeloma Cytokine Production:=>(peptide)
Tumor prod. of parathyroid hormone related protein (PTH-rP)=>MC reason for hypercalcemia.

  • Hypercalcemia of malignangy is a grave prognosis of 1-2 months or less
  • SX: increased lethargy, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, confusion and coma.
  • TX:
    1. Saline infusion=>corrects dehydration,
    2. IV Lasix =>renal excretion of calcium.
    3. Bisphosphonates =>blocks bone resorption
71
Q

Syndrome of Inappropriate Anti-diuretic Hormone:
Aka=>Vasopressin=> (Fluid Retention):

M/C electrolyte finding?
M/C d/t?
Sx
Tx

A
  • Hypernatremia=>High Sodium (M/C=Electrolyte finding)
  • MC d/t Small cell carcinoma (Aka “Oat cell Ca) of lung=> ectopic prod. of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).
  • SX: no fatigue or altered mental status, excessive concentration of urine (Super Yellow Urine)
  • TX: Fluid intake restriction, demeclocyine, treat the cancer.
Pituitary Hormones: 
Ant:
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) 
Post:
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)=>Aka=>Vasopressin 

Ectopic production of large amounts of ADH leads to syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH).

Lambert-Eaton myasthenia syndrome (LEMS) is a well-known paraneoplastic condition linked to small-cell carcinoma.

“Oat cell carcinoma” due to the flat cell shape and scanty cytoplasm. It is thought to originate from neuroendocrine cells (APUD cells) in the bronchus called Feyrter cells.

72
Q

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

A
  • Occurs in patients with large tumor burden that is very sensitive to chemo
  • SX: hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia and hyperphosphatemia.
  • Pre-existing renal dysfunction is a major risk, urine alkalinzation or allopurinol before chemo can prevent it from happening
73
Q

Deep Vein Thrombosis

A

*Thrombosis within the deep veins of the calf, thigh or pelvis with a dull, deep, aching pain that is worse standing or walking or when the leg is in a dependent position (legs dangling, dec. blood return & reduces pulmonary congestion)

*SX: swelling, tenderness and redness in the calf, thigh or groin with possible palpable cord.
Homan’s sign: discomfort in calf or behind knee on dorsiflexion of foot

***D-dimer also used with suspicion of Deep Vein Thrombosis, Pulmonary Embolism and intravascular coagulation

74
Q

Pulmonary embolism:

A

SX: shortness of breath & chest pain,

  • Apprehensive pt
  • Tachypnea (rapid breathing) & tachycardia (inc. hrt. rate)
  • Chest pain is pleuritic in nature & worse with inspiration or cough.
75
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage:
Sx’s
Dx
Tx

A

*Rupture of Lrg. Intracranial art.=>M/C circle of willis=>berry aneurysm

  • SX: HA b/4 physical exertion or sexual activity b/4 hemorrhage.
  • Loss of consciousness
  • Ha remains after regain of consciousness
  • Stiff neck could develop
  • DX: CT
  • TX: Focused on stabilization of the patient and reducing any high blood pressure, may consider neurosurgical interventions also
76
Q

Cerebral Hemorrhage:

A
  • Intraparenchymal hemorrhage in the setting of long standing poorly controlled hypertension
  • Dt rupture of medium size artery at the base of the brain-> the basal ganglia, pons or cerebellum

*More likely = death or major disability than ischemic stroke or subarachnoid hemorrhage

77
Q

Intracranial mass lesion

A

SX: HA worse w/valsalva, after cough or bearing down with bowel movement, Pain is chronic and new onset seizures could occur

78
Q

Traumatic Vascular Injury

A

Trauma to the skull, leading to laceration of the temporal artery

79
Q

Subdural hematoma:

“B.S.D.A.”

A
  • Damage to the bridging vein between the brain and the superior sagittal sinus leads to accumulation of blood between the dura and arachnoid
  • Bleeding most often due to trauma
  • Epidural is measured in hours but subdural can take longer
  • If you have pain with percussion over the spleen with a patient with cancer suspect mets
80
Q

JVD with lungs that are clear to auscultation?

A

R CHF, Cardiac Tamponade, Pulmonary embolism

81
Q

A Glasgow-Blatchford score can be zero if all of the following findings are present:

A

Hemoglobin level: >12.9 g/dL (men) or >11.9 g/dL (women)

Systolic blood pressure: >109mm Hg, Pulse:

82
Q

*D-dimer also used with suspicion of?

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis, Pulmonary Embolism and intravascular coagulation

83
Q

A 50-year-old woman presents with right eye pain and blurred vision with the perception of “halos forming around objects.” Examination reveals conjunctival injection with corneal clouding and a mid-dilated pupil. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Iritis
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C. Scleritis
D. Corneal abrasion
E. Orbital cellulitis
A

B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma

84
Q

61 year old male with complaints of headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication and reduced visual acuity in right eye.

A

Dx: Temporal arteritis (often assoc. w/polymyalgia rheumatic which may cause Onset
(Aka->Giant cell arteritis (GCA), temporal arteritis, cranial arteritis or Horton disease.)

85
Q
A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset of pain and decreased vision of the right eye after he was in an altercation. The patient's exam includes visual acuity of 20/200 (OD), an afferent pupillary defect, proptosis, decreased extraocular movements, hemorrhagic chemosis, and IOP of 40 mm Hg. The left eye exam is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Ruptured globe
B. Hyphema
C. Retrobulbar hematoma
D. Orbital floor fracture
E. Traumatic retinal detachment
A

C. Retrobulbar hematoma

86
Q
A 55-year-old woman presents with loss of vision in her right eye that occurred suddenly and without pain. Examination reveals a pale, edematous retina with a visible red macula (shown). What is the diagnosis? 
A. Retinal detachment
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C. Central retinal artery occlusion
D. Central retinal venous occlusion
A

“cherry-red spot”

C. Central retinal artery occlusion