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Lab Procedure II (vet tech 101) > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

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1
Q

Crystal violet & methylene blue are stain usually used for:

A

Yeasts

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2
Q

lactophenol cotton blue usually used to:

A

confirm the identity of fungal organisms

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3
Q

All specimens should be treated as potentially

A

zoonotic

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4
Q

Any material solid or liquid that can support the growth of microorganism

A

culture medium

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5
Q

what is agar composed of

A

dried extract of sea algae known as agarophytes

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6
Q

Is a protein that is obtained from animal tissues

A

gelatin

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7
Q

agar plate should be stored at

A

5-10 degrees C

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8
Q

six general types of culture medias:

A 
transport (swab)
general purpose
enriched
selective
differential 
enrichment
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9
Q

Enriched media are formulated to meet requirements of the most _________ pathogens.

A

fastidious

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10
Q

MacConkey is what type of media?

A

Selective

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11
Q

A growth medium that contains microbial inhibitors that allow the preferential growth desired types of microorganism in preference to others. They may range from narrow to broad spectrum

A

selective

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12
Q

A growth med. that allows two or more organisms to be distinguished from one another by some characteristics such as growth, ability to metabolize a specific nutrient as an energy source, diff. end products of metabolism … etc

A

Differential

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13
Q

A growth medium that permits preferential emergence of certain organism that initially may have made up a relatively minute proportion of a mixed inoculum. May be formulated to provide excess nutritional requirements for fastidious organisms.

A

Enrichment

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14
Q

A non-nutritive, buffered medium for maintaining viability without overgrowth of microorganisms during transport of specimens to the lab for examination

A

Transport

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15
Q

What can be detected in a blood agar and what type of media is it?

A

enriched medium & it contain four distinct hemolysis

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16
Q

partial hemolysis that creates a narrow band of greenish or slimy discoloration around colony

A

Alpha-hemolysis

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17
Q

complete hemolysis that creates a clear zone around the bacterial colony

A

Beta-hemolysis

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18
Q

Hemolysis that produces no change in the appearance of the medium and no hemolysis around colonies

A

Gamma-hemolysis

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19
Q

A zone of hemolysis surrounded by a narrow zone of hemolysis around the bact. colony

A

Delta-hemolysis

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20
Q

Bacteria can be classified on the basis of their pattern of ________on blood agar

A

hemolysis

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21
Q

MacConkey and Eosin-Methylene blue are what types of media

A

selective

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22
Q

MacConkey suppress the growth of

A

gram + bact

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23
Q

Bacteria that cannot ferment ________ attacks the _______ in MacConkey agar, producing a __________ reaction and colorless colonies

A

lactose
peptone
alkaline

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24
Q

A liquid med. that is used to culture anaerobic bact. to determine the O2 tolerance of microbes

A

Thioglycollate Broth

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25
Q

__________ will grown on ONLY O2-rich top layer, where as ________ will grown only in the lower part of the tube.

A

Obligate aerobes

Obligate anaerobes

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26
Q

Med. where it is inoculated with a straight stab depth of appros. one inch. (hydrogen sulfide production is indicated by blackening of the med.)

A

Sulfide Indole Motility tube

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27
Q

Agar used for presumptive ID of salmonellae and initial diff. of enteric bact.

A

Triple Sugar Iron Agar

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28
Q

In triple sugar agar if there is acid production it will turn _______. However, if the organism doesnt ferment lactose or sucrose it will revert to ______ (alkaline condition).

A

yellow

red

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29
Q

Highly rec. med for Staphyloccoci and to isolate staphylococcus from contaminated specimens.

A

mannitol salt agar

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30
Q

selective med. acts with brilliant green to suppress growth of coliforms while permitting the growth of salmonellae

A

Bismuth Sulfite Agar

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31
Q

In Bismuth Sulfite Agar Salmonellae reacts with:

A

black “rabbit eye” colonies

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32
Q

a general purpose media that is primarily usde for the perf. of the agar diffusion antimicrobial sensitivity test

A

Mueller Hinton Agar

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33
Q

DTM is composed of

A

sabourad dextrous agar

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34
Q

The most standard test med. for dermatophytes

A

DTM

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35
Q

Bone and joint samples are collected by

A

aspiration

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36
Q

Specimens for histopathologic examination should consist of thin tissue placed immediately in

A

10% formalin

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37
Q

The 2 most common fungal stains are:

A

gram stain

Ziehl-Neelsen (acid fast)

38
Q

colonies should be no older than _____ hrs old because older colonies may not yield to proper results and the stained bacteria often becomes _________.

A

24

decolorized

39
Q

used to detect TB, Mycobacterium, Nocardia

A

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

40
Q

In Ziehl-Neelsen stain: If the stain is not removed the organism is ________ and appears ______ if it is _________ it appears _____.

A

positive, red

negative, blue

41
Q

used to diagnose rickettsiae, spirochetes & Bacilli anthracis. Then it will be examined for the purpleish blue stained bact.

A

Giemsa stain

42
Q

speciallized stains contain

A

flagella
capsule
endospore
fluorescent

43
Q

Fluorescent stains are used for the ID of

A

Legionella & pseudomonas

44
Q

specialized stain that uses crystal violet to detect and characterize bacteria motility

A

flagella

45
Q

specialized stain used for detection if pathogenic bact.

A

Capsule

46
Q

specialized stain that detects the presence, location, shape of spores and can aid differentiation of bact.

A

Endospore

47
Q

specialized stain that involves malachite green to specimen on slide

A

endospore

48
Q

specialized stain of endospore show + when spore appear _____ and ______with the remainder of the bacterial cell _____ or ____.

A

dark blue, green

pink, red

49
Q

This method is designed to help with the isolation of pure bact. culture

A

quadrant streak method

50
Q

because most anaerobes survive exposure of air for less than 20 minutes, the collection of samples for anerobic culture on swab is acceptable T/F

A

False; It is NOT acceptable

51
Q

Liver abscess seen at slaughter on otherwise healthy feedlot cattle commonly yield the anaerobe _________ _______ and the aerobe _______ _______.

A

Fusobacterium necrophrum

Actinomyces pyogenes

52
Q

Most labs used fluorescent antibody technique for diagnoses in

A

clostridium

53
Q

_______ approach is needed for the proper evaluation of cultures

A

Systemic

54
Q

The most commonly performed method for antimicrobial susceptibility testing

A

Agar diffusion test

55
Q

_____ testing is the most precise than direct testing, but results are not available as quickly.

A

Indirect

56
Q

Measure the _____________ and compare it against a standard chart to identify the susceptibility of the bact. to the abx being tested.

A

zone of inhibition

57
Q

when is reading the zone of inhibition performed (after how many hrs)

A

overnight incubation 18-24 hrs

58
Q

the zones are divided into two major categories:

A

resistant and susceptible to the particular antimicrobial agent

59
Q

the zone size alone is not indicative of the efficacy of an antimicrobial T/F

A

true

60
Q

An in vitro test of the effectiveness of selected antimicrobials agents against microorganism (ie Staph & E. coli)

A

Antimicrobial susceptibility test

61
Q

The presence of pathogenic bact. necessarily indicate infection T/F

A

False; does NOT

62
Q

For sensitivity testing the diameter of what is being measure with a caliper?

A

Each inhibition (including the diameter of the disk) from the underside of the plate

63
Q

the most common type of sensitivity testing performed?

A

Bauer-Kirby agar diffusion method

64
Q

what procedures are used to test for motility:

A

hanging drop, wet prep, motility media

65
Q

the movement of cells back and forth

A

Brownian movement

66
Q

If organism are non-motile under microscopic exam then a ________ test is perf.

A

motility

67
Q

motility test + is indicative when

A

diffuse growth throughout the med.

68
Q

controls for catalase test include

A

staph: catalase +
strep: catalase -

69
Q

Def: Coagulase

A

an enzyme that coagulates plasma

70
Q

A + coagulase test will show results within ______ seconds

A

5-20 seconds

71
Q

A + oxidase test will show the reagent reduced to a _________ color within 60 seconds, if longer it will be considered negative

A

deep purple

72
Q

oxidase test controls

A

pseudomonas: oxidase +

E. coli: oxidase -

73
Q

Test perf. to verify cause of bact. mycotic organisms (“cow side”)

A

California Mastitis Test (CMT)

74
Q

California Mastitis Test (CMT) is based on _____ formation when the test reagents reacts with _____ in somatic cells.

A

gel

DNA

75
Q

precautions to be considered when perf. CMT:

A
  1. DNA in somatic cells deteriorate upon standing refrigerate for no more than 2 days
  2. WBC migrate with mild fat (throughly mix sample prior to test)
  3. CMT reaction must be scored 10-15 seconds after mixing start.
76
Q

Test used for ID of bact pathogens , particularly obligate intracellular bact.

A

immunologic testing

77
Q

A separate incubator for fungal samples will minimize the cross contamination of bact. samples with fungal spores T/F

A

true

78
Q

Most fungal agents of clinical importance in t vet practice are cutaneous mycotic organisms known as ______ and often ref. to as ______.

A

dermatophyte

ringworm

79
Q

Only about 1/3 of the cases of M. canis show evidence of fluorescence T/F

A

False; 1/2

80
Q

In dematophyte testing after _____ min small globular anthrospores attached to the hair shaft are visible and indicate + results

A

2-10

81
Q

always allow the wood lamp to warm for at least ____ before use.

A

5 min

82
Q

Standard sabourad dextrous agar will promotes early formation of ______, but it contains _______ indicator.

A

macroconidia

no color

83
Q

all dermatophyte infections should be verified with

A

microscopic evaluations

84
Q

Fungi grows as yeast when at body temp and molds at

A

25 degrees C

85
Q

cutaneous mycotic organisms are also known as

A

dermatophytes

86
Q

Forms tubular filaments

A

hyphae

87
Q

tangled mass of hyphae

A

mycelium

88
Q

fungi contain no

A

chloraphyll

89
Q

fungi are strict

A

aerobic

90
Q

when environment is very dry fungi produce

A

spores

91
Q

optimal temp for fungi

A

22-33 degrees C

92
Q

woods lamp false + may be caused by:

A

pseudomonas, scales, lint, sebum, dandruff, crust and topical meds

Lab Procedure II (vet tech 101) (2 decks)

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