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IL 2 Lab > Midterm > Flashcards

Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What goes on an IV bag lab

A

Institutions name, patient name, room number,patient medical record number, bag number out of how many, medications and quantity in bag, name and volume of solution, instructions with flow rate and route of administration, when prepared, expiration, prepared by, checked by, storage, warnings

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2
Q

how do you determine the size of IV bad needed?

A

look in package insert for what the final concentration should be and set that equal to the amount of drug you want and solve for the missing ml’s

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3
Q

what is A1C?

A

glucose in the blood can glycosolate onto hemoglobin

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4
Q

calculate aeG

A

28.7xA1c-46.7

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5
Q

How do you calculate LDL using the friedwald

A

tc-(HD+(tg/5) if TG is under 400

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6
Q

what is included in a fasting lipid panel

A

TC,LDL,TG,HDL

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7
Q

if a lipid panel is done on a non fasting patient what readings are still ok

A

TC and HDL

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8
Q

how long do they need to fast

A

8-12 hours

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9
Q

if a patient recently ate what levels will be inacurate

A

TG will be higher and ldl will look lower

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10
Q

what other than food can affect a lipid panel

A

drinks other than water, medications, alcohol, smoking, exercsise, genetics, and illness

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11
Q

at what age should cholesterol screening start

A

20

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12
Q

how often should a healthy individual be screened

A

4-6 years

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13
Q

what is a benefit of direct LDL assay

A

TG can be high

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14
Q

what levels does a home lipid panel asses

A

TC and HDL

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15
Q

based on TG levels of a non fasting person when should further action be taken

A

if TG is over 200 then a fasting panel should be done

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16
Q

what are the high values for TC, TG, and LDL

A

TC=240, LDL 160, TG 200

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17
Q

Name a consequence of diabetic neuropathy

A

foot ulcerations an amputation

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18
Q

how often should a foot exam be done if there are no risks

A

yearly

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19
Q

how often should foot exams be done if there is neuropathy

A

every visit

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20
Q

how often should foot exams be done if there at one or more high risk factors

A

at least twice a year

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21
Q

if a patient has LOPS and a deformity how often should they have their foot checked

A

every 3-6 months

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22
Q

if a patient has LOPS how often should they have their foot checked

A

every 3-6 months

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23
Q

if a patient has PAD how often should their foot be checked

A

every 2-3 months

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24
Q

if a patients has PAD and LOPS how often should their foot be checked

A

every 2-3 months

25
Q

if a patient has a past history of foot ulceration how often should their foot be checked

A

every 1-2 months

26
Q

if a patient has a past history of amputation how often should their foot be checked

A

every 1-2 months

27
Q

during the 10-g monofilament test what sites should be tested

A

1, 3, and 5 metatarsal, big toe, and 4th toe (3rd on D2L)

28
Q

name all components of a comprehensive foot exam

A

PMH, general inspection, dermatologic assessment, musculoskeletal assessment, test for LOPS, and vascular assessment

29
Q

what does topical phenytion do in foot ulcerations

A

has antimicrobial affect and promotes granulation in a wound

30
Q

what does topical misoprostol do in foot ulcerations

A

synthetic prostoglandidn that accelerates wound healing

31
Q

what does metronidazole do in foot ulcerations

A

it is antimicrobial

32
Q

what does nifedipine do in foot care

A

increases blood flow

33
Q

when treating wounds in a diabetic foot what are the two most important things to do

A

cause rapid granulation and increase blood flow

34
Q

Why do we use PLO to deliver topical medication?

A

increases medication absorption into the skin because of its ampapathicness, gel structure, capacity to solubalize many drugs, partitions vehicle into skin vial interactions between lecthin and skin

35
Q

if you want to deliver PLO systemical what delivery method would you use

A

percutaneous or transdermal

36
Q

if you wanted to deliver PLO just to the site it is needed what delivery method would you use

A

cutaneous or dermal

37
Q

which ingredients in the PLO are what phase

A

poloxamer is the water soluble phase and organic solvents and lecithin are oil phase

38
Q

what needs to be on a nonsteril label

A

pharmacy name, rx number, patient name, doctor, fill date, directions, drug, drug quantity, refills, filled by, warnings/storage, discard by date

39
Q

what is the molecular weight of transdermal drugs

A

100-800

40
Q

what are the disadvantages of transdermal route as listed in the reading

A

drug must be potent and you can have contact dermatitis

41
Q

what is the average daily requirement for insulin in type 2 DM

A

.5-.6u/kg

42
Q

for type 1 DM what are is the ration of mealtime to maintenence

A

50/50

43
Q

what is the correction factor calculation for rapid acting insulin and regular rapid acting insulin

A

rapid: 1800/TDD
regular: 1500/TDD

44
Q

what is the correction dose

A

(current BG- target BG)/correction factor

45
Q

what is the insulin/carbohydrate ratio

A

500/TDD

46
Q

how do you determine how many units of mealtime to give when you know how many carbs you will eat?

A

find correction factor, correction dose, and insulin/carb ration. Divide amount of carbs by insulin/carb ration and add correction dose to that

47
Q

what does PERRLA stand for?

A

pupils equal round and reactive to light and accomidation

48
Q

what does EOMI stand for

A

extra ocular movement intact

49
Q

what is the leading cause of blindness in people under 65

A

diabetic retinopathy

50
Q

the sympathetic NS causes the eyes to what

A

dilate, mydriasis

51
Q

the parasympathetic causes the eyes to what

A

constrict, miosis

52
Q

when changing focus from far to near the eyes should

A

constrict

53
Q

when changing focus from near to far the eyes should

A

dilate

54
Q

what does the confrontation test test?

A

peripheral vision

55
Q

what does the rosenbaum chart test

A

near site

56
Q

what does the cover-uncover test test

A

motility

57
Q

what does the H test test

A

EOMI

58
Q

what eye test do pharmacists do the most and why

A

EOMI because nystagmus are common side effects of medications

59
Q

what should the eardrum look like

A

shiny, transluscent pearly gray, intact

IL 2 Lab (1 decks)

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