Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What goes on an IV bag lab

A

Institutions name, patient name, room number,patient medical record number, bag number out of how many, medications and quantity in bag, name and volume of solution, instructions with flow rate and route of administration, when prepared, expiration, prepared by, checked by, storage, warnings

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2
Q

how do you determine the size of IV bad needed?

A

look in package insert for what the final concentration should be and set that equal to the amount of drug you want and solve for the missing ml’s

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3
Q

what is A1C?

A

glucose in the blood can glycosolate onto hemoglobin

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4
Q

calculate aeG

A

28.7xA1c-46.7

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5
Q

How do you calculate LDL using the friedwald

A

tc-(HD+(tg/5) if TG is under 400

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6
Q

what is included in a fasting lipid panel

A

TC,LDL,TG,HDL

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7
Q

if a lipid panel is done on a non fasting patient what readings are still ok

A

TC and HDL

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8
Q

how long do they need to fast

A

8-12 hours

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9
Q

if a patient recently ate what levels will be inacurate

A

TG will be higher and ldl will look lower

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10
Q

what other than food can affect a lipid panel

A

drinks other than water, medications, alcohol, smoking, exercsise, genetics, and illness

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11
Q

at what age should cholesterol screening start

A

20

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12
Q

how often should a healthy individual be screened

A

4-6 years

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13
Q

what is a benefit of direct LDL assay

A

TG can be high

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14
Q

what levels does a home lipid panel asses

A

TC and HDL

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15
Q

based on TG levels of a non fasting person when should further action be taken

A

if TG is over 200 then a fasting panel should be done

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16
Q

what are the high values for TC, TG, and LDL

A

TC=240, LDL 160, TG 200

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17
Q

Name a consequence of diabetic neuropathy

A

foot ulcerations an amputation

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18
Q

how often should a foot exam be done if there are no risks

A

yearly

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19
Q

how often should foot exams be done if there is neuropathy

A

every visit

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20
Q

how often should foot exams be done if there at one or more high risk factors

A

at least twice a year

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21
Q

if a patient has LOPS and a deformity how often should they have their foot checked

A

every 3-6 months

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22
Q

if a patient has LOPS how often should they have their foot checked

A

every 3-6 months

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23
Q

if a patient has PAD how often should their foot be checked

A

every 2-3 months

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24
Q

if a patients has PAD and LOPS how often should their foot be checked

A

every 2-3 months

25
if a patient has a past history of foot ulceration how often should their foot be checked
every 1-2 months
26
if a patient has a past history of amputation how often should their foot be checked
every 1-2 months
27
during the 10-g monofilament test what sites should be tested
1, 3, and 5 metatarsal, big toe, and 4th toe (3rd on D2L)
28
name all components of a comprehensive foot exam
PMH, general inspection, dermatologic assessment, musculoskeletal assessment, test for LOPS, and vascular assessment
29
what does topical phenytion do in foot ulcerations
has antimicrobial affect and promotes granulation in a wound
30
what does topical misoprostol do in foot ulcerations
synthetic prostoglandidn that accelerates wound healing
31
what does metronidazole do in foot ulcerations
it is antimicrobial
32
what does nifedipine do in foot care
increases blood flow
33
when treating wounds in a diabetic foot what are the two most important things to do
cause rapid granulation and increase blood flow
34
Why do we use PLO to deliver topical medication?
increases medication absorption into the skin because of its ampapathicness, gel structure, capacity to solubalize many drugs, partitions vehicle into skin vial interactions between lecthin and skin
35
if you want to deliver PLO systemical what delivery method would you use
percutaneous or transdermal
36
if you wanted to deliver PLO just to the site it is needed what delivery method would you use
cutaneous or dermal
37
which ingredients in the PLO are what phase
poloxamer is the water soluble phase and organic solvents and lecithin are oil phase
38
what needs to be on a nonsteril label
pharmacy name, rx number, patient name, doctor, fill date, directions, drug, drug quantity, refills, filled by, warnings/storage, discard by date
39
what is the molecular weight of transdermal drugs
100-800
40
what are the disadvantages of transdermal route as listed in the reading
drug must be potent and you can have contact dermatitis
41
what is the average daily requirement for insulin in type 2 DM
.5-.6u/kg
42
for type 1 DM what are is the ration of mealtime to maintenence
50/50
43
what is the correction factor calculation for rapid acting insulin and regular rapid acting insulin
rapid: 1800/TDD regular: 1500/TDD
44
what is the correction dose
(current BG- target BG)/correction factor
45
what is the insulin/carbohydrate ratio
500/TDD
46
how do you determine how many units of mealtime to give when you know how many carbs you will eat?
find correction factor, correction dose, and insulin/carb ration. Divide amount of carbs by insulin/carb ration and add correction dose to that
47
what does PERRLA stand for?
pupils equal round and reactive to light and accomidation
48
what does EOMI stand for
extra ocular movement intact
49
what is the leading cause of blindness in people under 65
diabetic retinopathy
50
the sympathetic NS causes the eyes to what
dilate, mydriasis
51
the parasympathetic causes the eyes to what
constrict, miosis
52
when changing focus from far to near the eyes should
constrict
53
when changing focus from near to far the eyes should
dilate
54
what does the confrontation test test?
peripheral vision
55
what does the rosenbaum chart test
near site
56
what does the cover-uncover test test
motility
57
what does the H test test
EOMI
58
what eye test do pharmacists do the most and why
EOMI because nystagmus are common side effects of medications
59
what should the eardrum look like
shiny, transluscent pearly gray, intact